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2018 New Pass4isture Cisco 100-105 Dumps Version: This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to network fundamentals, LAN switching technologies, routing technologies, infrastructure services, and infrastructure maintenance.

QUESTION 1 pass4itsure Cisco 100-105 dumps
Which feature allows a device to use a switch port that is configured for half-duplex to access the network?
A. CSMA/CD
B. IGMP
C. port security
D. split horizon
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Ethernet began as a local area network technology that provided a half-duplex shared channel for stations connected to coaxial cable segments linked with signal repeaters. In this appendix, we take a detailed look at the half-duplex shared
channel mode of operation, and at the CSMA/CD mechanism that makes it work. In the original half-duplex mode, the CSMA/CD protocol allows a set of stations to compete for access to a shared Ethernet channel in a fair and equitable manner. The protocol’s rules determine the behavior of Ethernet stations, including when they are allowed to transmit a frame onto a shared Ethernet channel, and what to do when a collision occurs. Today, virtually all devices are connected to Ethernet switch ports over full-duplex media, such as twisted-pair cables. On this type of connection, assuming that both devices can support the full-duplex mode of operation and that Auto-Negotiation (AN) is enabled, the AN protocol will automatically select the highest-performance mode of operation supported by the devices at each end of the link. That will result in full-duplex mode for the vast majority of Ethernet connections with modern interfaces that support full duplex and AN.

QUESTION 2
Which statement about the inside interface configuration in a NAT deployment is true?
A. It is defined globally
B. It identifies the location of source addresses for outgoing packets to be translated using access or route maps.
C. It must be configured if static NAT is used
D. It identifies the public IP address that traffic will use to reach the internet.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This module describes how to configure Network Address Translation (NAT) for IP address conservation and how to configure inside and outside source addresses. This module also provides information about the benefits of configuring NAT for IP address conservation. NAT enables private IP internetworks that use nonregistered IP addresses to connect to the Internet. NAT operates on a device, usually connecting two networks, and translates the private (not globally unique) addresses in the internal network into legal addresses before packets are forwarded onto another network. NAT can be configured to advertise to the outside world only one address for the entire network. This ability provides additional security by effectively hiding the entire internal network behind that one address. NAT is also used at the enterprise edge to allow internal users access to the Internet and to allow Internet access to internal devices such as mail servers.

QUESTION 3
Which value is indicated by the next hop in a routing table?
A. preference of the route source
B. IP address of the remote router for forwarding the packets
C. how the route was learned
D. exit interface IP address for forwarding the packets
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The routing table contains network/next hop associations. These associations tell a router that a particular destination can be optimally reached by sending the packet to a specific router that represents the “next hop” on the way to the final destination. The next hop association can also be the outgoing or exit interface to the final destination.

2018 New Pass4isture Cisco 200-105 Dumps Version: This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to LAN switching technologies, IPv4 and IPv6 routing technologies, WAN technologies, infrastructure services, and infrastructure maintenance.
QUESTION 1 pass4itsure Cisco 200-105 dumps
Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# router ospf 0
B. Router(config)# router ospf 1
C. Router(config)# router ospf area 0
D. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0
E. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
F. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation/Reference:
In the router ospf
Command, the ranges from 1 to 65535 so o is an invalid number – B is correct but A is not correct. To configure OSPF, we need a wildcard in the andquot;network” stat

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true, as relates to classful or classless routing?
A. Classful routing protocols send the subnet mask in routing updates.
B. RIPv1 and OSPF are classless routing protocols.
C. Automatic summarization at classful boundaries can cause problems on discontiguous subnets.
D. EIGRP and OSPF are classful routing protocols and summarize routes by default.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
RIPv1, RIPv2, IGRP, and EIGRP all auto-summarize classful boundaries by default (OSPF do

QUESTION 3
What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route to that destination network is in active status?A. It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in the routing table.
B. It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers.
C. It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths to the destination network.
D. It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.
Correct Answer: C

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[2018 New Version] Latest Updated Cisco 300-075 Dumps PDF CCNP Collaboration Exam Questions Video Training 420Q Full Version Offer 1-21

Posted by previousublingkey on 7 May 2018, 3:35 am

How to win with 300-075 dumps? The Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 2 v1.0 (CIPTV2) exam (300-075) is a 75-minute assessment with 50-60 questions, which is required for Cisco CCNP Collaboration certification. The pass4itsure 300-075 dumps pdf computer-based, multiple-choice exam tests the candidate’s knowledge of Uniform Resource Identifier (URI) dialing, globalized call routing, Intercluster Lookup Service and Global Dial Plan Replication, Cisco Service Advertisement Framework and Call Control Discovery, tail-end hop-off, Cisco Unified Survivable Remote Site Telephony, Enhanced Location Call Admission Control (CAC) and Automated Alternate Routing (AAR), and mobility features such as Device Mobility, Cisco Extension Mobility, and Cisco Unified Mobility.

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Pass4itsure Cisco 300-075 dumps Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 2 v1.0 is a multiple choice dumps that must be completed within 75. Some of the topics assessed are how to consider the challenges faced by business and IT today and how this relates to Cisco opportunities. The exam also assesses who “the customer” is and the importance of applications to many of the customers that are influential in purchasing application-based solutions.

TO GET MORE INFORMATION ABOUT Cisco 300-075 Dumps EXAM GO HERE(1-21)

Question No : 1Scenario:
There are two call control systems in this item. The Cisco UCM is controlling the DX650, the Cisco Jabber for Windows Client, and the 7965 and 9971 Video IP Phones. The Cisco VCS and TMS control the Cisco TelePresence Conductor, the Cisco TelePresence MCU, and the Cisco Jabber TelePresence for Windows.
DNS Server:
300-075 dumps

What two tasks must be completed in order to support calls between the VCS controlled endpoints and the Cisco Unified CM endpoints? (Choose two.)
A. Media Resource Group List.
B. Configure a SIP trunk on the Cisco Unified CM to point to the Cisco VCS.
C. Configure a neighbor zone on the Cisco Unified CM to point to the Cisco VCS.
D. Configure a SIP trunk on the Cisco VCS to point to the Cisco Unified CM.
E. Configure a neighbor zone on the Cisco VCS to point to the Cisco Unified CM.
300-075 exam Answer: C,D

Question No : 2
How long is the default keepalive period for SRST in Cisco IOS?
A. 45 sec
B. 30 sec
C. 60 sec
D. 120 sec
Answer: B

Question No : 3
Which three items must you configure to enable SAF Call Control Discovery? (Choose three.)
A.a calling search space
B.hosted DN patterns
C.translation patterns
D.route patterns
E.the SIP or H.323 trunk
F.hosted DN groups
300-075 dumps Answer: B,E,F

Question No : 4
Which module is the minimum PVDM3 module needed to support video transcoding?
A. PVDM3-32
B. PVDM3-64
C. PVDM3-128
D. PVDM3-192
Answer: C

Question No : 5
When you connect a Cisco VCS Control to Cisco Unified Communications Manager by using a SIP trunk, which mechanism do you use to verify that the trunk has an active
connection?
A. OPTIONS ping
B. DNS tracing
C. Continuous ping
D. Dynamic DNS
300-075 pdf Answer: A

Question No : 6
Company X currently uses a Cisco Unified Communications Manager, which has been configured for IP desk phones and Jabber soft phones. Users report however that whenever they are out of the office, a VPN must be set up before their Jabber client can be
used. The administrator for Company X has deployed a Collaboration Expressway server at the edge of the network in an attempt to remove the need for VPN when doing voice. However, devices outside cannot register. Which two additional steps are needed to complete this deployment? (Choose two.)
A. A SIP trunk has to be set up between the Expressway-C and Cisco UCM.
B. An additional interface must be enabled on the Cisco UCM and placed in the same subnet at the Expressway.
C. The customer firewall must be configured with any rule for the IP address of the external Jabber client.
D. The Expressway server needs a neighbor zone created that points to Cisco UCM.
E. Jabber cannot connect to Cisco UCM unless it is on the same network or a VPN is set up from outside.
Answer: A,D

Question No : 7
An engineer is configuring Global Dial Plan Replication and wants to prevent the local cluster from routing the Vice President number 5555555555 to the remote cluster. Which action accomplishes this task?
A. Create a block route pattern.
B. Create a block learned pattern.
C. Create a block transformation pattern.
D. Create a block translation pattern.
300-075 vce Answer: C

Question No : 8
Which solution is needed to enable presence and extension mobility to branch office phones during a WAN failure?
A. SRST without MGCP fallback
B. SRST with VoIP dial peers to Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express
C. SRST with MGCP fallback
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express in SRST mode
Answer: C

Question No : 9
Which three statements about configuring an encrypted trunk between Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server and Cisco Unified Communications Manager are true? (Choose three.)
A. The root CA of the VCS server certificate must be loaded in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Incoming Transport Type set to TCP+UDP.
C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager trunk configuration must have the destination port set to 5061.
D. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Device Security Mode set to TLS.
E. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with the X.509 Subject Name from the VCS certificate.
F. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have SIP authentication trust mode set to On.
G. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have TLS verify mode set to Off.
300-075 exam Answer: A,C,E

Question No : 10
When video endpoints register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager, where are DSCP values configured?
A. in Unified CM, under Enterprise Parameters Configuration
B. in Unified CM, under Device > Device Settings > Device Defaults
C. in Unified CM, under Service Parameters > Cisco CallManager Service > Cluster-wide Parameters
D. DSCP parameters are always configured on each individual video endpoint.
Answer: C

Question No : 11
Company X has a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster and a VCS Control server with video endpoints registered on both systems. Users find that video endpoints registered on Call manager can call each other and likewise for the endpoints registered on the VCS server. The administrator for Company X realizes he needs a SIP trunk between the two systems for any video endpoint to call any other video endpoint. Which two steps must the administrator take to add the SIP trunk? (Choose two.)
A. Set up a SIP trunk on Cisco UCM with the option Device-Trunk with destination address of the VCS server.
B. Set up a subzone on Cisco UCM with the peer address to the VCS cluster.
C. Set up a neighbor zone on the VCS server with the location of Cisco UCM using the menu option VCS Configuration > Zones > zone.
D. Set up a SIP trunk on the VCS server with the destination address of the Cisco UCM and Transport set to TCP.
E. Set up a traversal subzone on the VCS server to allow endpoints that are registered on Cisco UCM to communicate.
300-075 dumps Answer: A,C

Question No : 12
Which three options are overlapping parameters for roaming when a device is configured for Device Mobility? (Choose three.)
A. device pool
B. location
C. network locale
D. codec
E. MRGL
F. extension
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
The overlapping parameters for roaming-sensitive settings are Media Resource Group List, Location, and Network Locale. The overlapping parameters for the Device Mobility-related settings are Calling Search Space (called Device Mobility Calling Search Space at the device pool), AAR Group, and AAR Calling Search Space. Overlapping parameters configured at the phone have higher priority than settings at the home device pool and lower priority than settings at the roaming device pool.

QUESTION 13
Which two options are configuration steps on Cisco Unified Communications Manager that are used when integrating with VCS Expressway servers? (Choose two.)
A. allowing numeric dialing from Cisco phones to Expressway
B. configuring a device pool with video feature enabled
C. allowing dialing to Expressway domain from Cisco phones
D. creating an application user on Cisco Unified Communications Manager with assigned privileges
E. adding the Expressway servers to the Application Servers list
300-075 pdf Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 14
Which three commands are necessary to override the default CoS to DSCP mapping on interface Fastethernet0/1?Question No : 7
(Choose three.)
A. mls qos map cos-dscp 0 10 18 26 34 46 48 56
B. mls qos map dscp-cos 8 10 to 2
C. mls qos
D. interface Fastethernet0/1 mls qos trust cos
E. interface Fastethernet0/1 mls qos cos 1
F. interface Fastethernet0/2 mls qos cos 1
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 15
Scenario:
There are two call control systems in this item.
The Cisco UCM is controlling the DX650, the Cisco Jabber for Windows Client, and the 9971 Video IP Phone.
The Cisco VCS and TMS control the Cisco TelePresence MCU, and the Cisco Jabber TelePresence for Windows.
DP:
300-075 dumps

After adding SRST functionality the SRST does not work. After reviewing the exhibits, which of the following reasons
could be causing this failure?
A. Device Pool cannot be default.
B. The Cisco UCM is pointing to the wrong IPv4 address of the BR router.
C. The router does not support SRST.
D. The SRST enabled router is not configured correctly.
300-075 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
A voice engineer is enabling video capabilities between H.323 and SIP endpoints. Which component allows for standardized caller addresses between the endpoints?
A. search rules
B. SIP route pattern
C. policy service
D. transform
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
You need to verify if the Media Gateway Control Protocol gateway is enabled and active. Which command should you use for this purpose?
A. show running-config
B. show fallback-mgcp
C. show gateway
D. show ccm-manager fallback-mgcp
E. show running-config gateway
F. show fallback-mgcp ccm-manager
300-075 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Scenario:
There are two call control systems in this item.
The Cisco UCM is controlling the DX650, the Cisco Jabber for Windows Client, and the 9971 Video IP Phone.
The Cisco VCS is controlling the SX20, the Cisco TelePresence MCU, and the Cisco Jabber TelePresence for
Windows.
SX20 System information:
300-075 dumps

What two issues could be causing the Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence failure shown in the exhibit? (Choose two)
A. Incorrect username and password.
B. Wrong SIP domain configured.
C. User is not associated with the device.
D. IP or DNS name resolution issue.
E. CSF Device is not registered.
F. IP Phone DN not associated with the user.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 19
What is the default DSCP/PHB for TelePresence video conferencing packets in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. EF/46
B. CS6/48
C. AF41/34
D. CS3/24
E. CS4/32
300-075 dumps Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 20
In the case of a VCS cluster, which configuration element is recommended for endpoint H.323 registration?
A. DNS SRV records pointing to the VCS cluster name
B. static IP addresses
C. hostname of the VCS cluster configuration master
D. hostname of the VCS cluster member peer
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Scenario:
There are two call control systems in this item.
The Cisco UCM is controlling the DX650, the Cisco Jabber for Windows Client, and the 9971 Video IP Phone.
The Cisco VCS and TMS control the Cisco TelePresence MCU, and the Cisco Jabber TelePresence for Windows DP:
300-075 dumps

Which device configuration option will allow an administrator to control bandwidth between calls placed between branches?
A. Media Resource Group List
B. Device Pool
C. Location
D. AAR Group
E. Regions
300-075 pdf Correct Answer: C

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[2018 New Version] High Quality Cisco 300-070 Dumps PDF CCNP Collaboration Exam Questions Youtube Online 211Q Full Version Offer 22-51

Posted by previousublingkey on 7 May 2018, 2:29 am

How to win with 300-070 dumps? The Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1 v1.0 (CIPTV1) exam (300-070) is a 75-minute assessment with 65 – 75 questions, which is required for Cisco CCNP Collaboration certification. The pass4itsure 300-070 dumps ciptv1 computer-based, multiple-choice exam tests the candidate’s knowledge of configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager, implement gateways and Cisco Unified Border Element, and build dial plans to place on-net and off-net voice and video calls using traditional numbered dial plans and Uniform Resource Identifiers (URIs).

What if I don’t pass the exam? How do I claim Refund?

Any pass4itsure.com user who fails the corresponding exam has 30 days from the date of purchase of 300-070 dumps exam on pass4itsure.com for a full refund. We can accept and arrange a full refund requests only if your score report or any relevant filed be confirmed.

Cisco 300-070 dumps Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1 v1.0 is a multiple choice dumps that must be completed within 75. Some of the topics assessed are how to consider the challenges faced by business and IT today and how this relates to Cisco opportunities. The exam also assesses who “the customer” is and the importance of applications to many of the customers that are influential in purchasing application-based solutions.

TO GET MORE INFORMATION ABOUT Cisco 300-070 Dumps EXAM GO HERE(22-51)

QUESTION 22
Refer to Exhibit:
300-070 dumps
If the user at extension 1001 dials the user at extension 2111, which dial peer is used to route the call?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1
300-070 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit. Bob has set his phone to forward calls to extension 5000. When a call is placed to extension 2000, which phone will ring?
300-070 dumps
A. Phone A
B. Phone B
C. Phone C
D. Phone D
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 24
Which two options are resources in a route list that route calls that match a defined route pattern? (Choose two.)
A. gateways
B. route groups
C. virtual machine servers
D. IP phones
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 25
Which statement about a partition is true?
A. A partition is a logical group of transformation patterns with similar accessibility characteristics.
B. A partition is a group of gateways with similar accessibility characteristics.
C. A partition is a logical group of directory numbers with similar accessibility characteristics.
D. A partition is a logical group of route patterns with similar accessibility characteristics.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 26
Which statement about translation patterns and transformation patterns is true?
A. Both transformation patterns and translations patterns support only numeric values.
B. Both transformation patterns and translations patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values.
C. Transformation patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values, whereas translations patterns supportonly numeric values.
D. Translation patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values, whereas transformation patterns supportonly numeric values.
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 27
Which three Cisco Unified Communications Manager settings can be used to support IP phone services? (Choose three.)
A. Device Defaults
B. Enterprise Parameters
C. IP Phone Service Configuration window
D. Common Phone Profile
E. Service Parameters
F. Phone Configuration window
Correct Answer: BDF
Explanation

QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
A Network Administrator needs to create a SIP route pattern to communicate with Monterrey’s Gateway. The Administrator does not understand why this is not working properly. Which two statements explain the issue and resolve the problem? (Choose two.)
A. The Administrator needs to set up a SIP trunk between Monterrey’s Gateway and Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. The Administrator should type the reload command into Monterrey’s Gateway
C. The issue is caused by a failure of communication between the Monterrey’s Gateway and Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. The issue is caused by incorrect protocol integration between Monterrey’s Gateway and Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
300-070 vce Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 29
If the route patterns 5XXX, 51XX, 513X and 5134 exist within a call route database, which pattern would be matched if the dialed number was 5324?
A. 5XXX
B. 51XX
C. 513X
D. 5134
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 30
You are a Voice Engineer at ABC Company. You want to provision a new voice gateway for a remote site, and you need to configure 24 channels of a T1 CAS interface. Which set is the correct set of commands for this configuration?
A. R1(config)# controller t1 1/0R1(config-controller)# framing esfR1(config-controller)# linecode b8zsR1(config-controller)# primary-group 1 timeslot 1-24 type fxo-loop-start
B. R1(config)# controller t1 1/0R1(config-controller)# linecode hdb3R1(config-controller)# framing crc4R1(config-controller)# clock source lineR1(config-controller)# ds0-group 1 timeslot 1-24 type fxo-loop-start
C. R1(config)# isdn switch-type primary-5essR1(config)# controller t1 t1/0R1(config- controller)# pri-group timeslots 1-24
D. R1(config)# controller t1 1/0R1(config-controller)# framing esfR1(config-controller)# linecode b8zsR1(config-controller)# clock source lineR1(config-controller)# ds0-group 1 timeslot 1-24 type fxo-loop-start
300-070 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 31
Which three statements about the default VoIP dial peer are true? (Choose three.)
A. VAD is disabled.
B. RSVP is not supported.
C. Only the G.711 codec is supported.
D. The G.729 and G.711 codecs are supported.
E. Fax-rate service is supported.
F. DTMF relay is supported.
Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation

QUESTION 32
Which two elements of a dial plan define the domains that are accessible and are assigned to an endpoint? (Choose two)
A. Partitions.
B. Calling Search Spaces.
C. Route patterns.
D. Translation patterns.
E. Call Admission Control.
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
What is the problem when 237 dials 972551915?
A. The problem is in “forward-digits 7”; the dial peer should be with “forward-digits 9.”
B. The problem is in “forward-digits 7”; the dial peer should be with “forward-digits 5.”
C. The problem is in “forward-digits 7”; the dial peer should be with “forward-digits 2.”
D. The problem is in “forward-digits 7”; the dial peer should be with “forward-digits 8.”
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 34
You are performing route pattern configuration. You need to ensure that internal extensions are automatically expanded to full external phone numbers for calling line information on outgoing calls. What should you use?
A. calling extension expansion
B. called number expansion
C. external number mask of the called party
D. external phone number mask of the calling party
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
To reach an external number, a user first dials a 9. Which route pattern will be matched if a user dials the toll-free number 18005550123?
A. 911
B. 9.[2-9]XXXXXX
C. 9.1[2-9]XX[2-9]XXXXXX
D. 9.1800XXXXXXX
E. 9.1866XXXXXXX
F. 9.1877XXXXXXX
G. 9.1888XXXXXXX
H. 9.1900XXXXXXX
I. 9011!
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 36
A voice engineer is troubleshooting an issue that involves incoming calls to POTS lines. Which command verifies the digits that are received by voice-port?
A. debug voip dial-per
B. debug vtsp session
C. debug vtsp dsp
D. debug call treatment
E. debug voice protocol
300-070 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 37
Which QoS model is bandwidth-dedicated to provide sufficient quality for applications that need high resolution, such as video terminals?
A. Best-Effort
B. IntServ
C. DiffServ
D. DiffServf
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 38
Which QoS model is bandwidth-dedicated to provide sufficient quality for applications that need high resolution, such as video terminals?
A. DiffServ
B. Best-Effort
C. DiffServf
D. IntServ
300-070 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 39
Which two options can a route pattern be assigned? (Choose two.)
A. a gateway that is not assigned to a route group
B. a gateway that is assigned to a route group
C. a route list with no route groups configured
D. a route list with one or more route groups configured
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

QUESTION 40
You need to delete an auto-registration Cisco Unified Communications Manager group for a cluster. What should you do?
A. Remove the Cisco Unified CallManager group devices.
B. Disable auto-registration settings in the Cisco Unified CallManager group.
C. Assign a different call group as the auto-registration Cisco Unified CallManager group.
D. Delete the auto-registration Cisco Unified CallManager group without performing any action.
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 41
What function does the device pool perform?
A. It separates user and physical location information.
B. It sets the default device parameters for all IP phones in the cluster.
C. It sets the location bandwidth used between different locations.
D. It provides a single point of configuration for every device in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

QUESTION 42
Hackers are sending calls through a gateway router that is running SIP. The engineer blocks all SIP messages to the router except from their SIP server, which has an IP address of 208.177.10.1. The customer also must connect via SIP to their Cisco Expressway server with an IP address of 10.1.10.110. Which series of commands secures the router from the hackers?
A. voice service voip voip security allow
ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255
ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
B. voice service voip ip address trusted list
ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255
ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
C. voice service voip allow-connections sip to sip
ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255
ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
D. voice service voip address-hiding ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255
ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 43
Which three commands show the output of an active video call? (Choose three.)
A. show vrm active_calls
B. show call active video brief
C. show voip rtp connections
D. show voice call
E. show voice call summary
F. show video dsp
Correct Answer: BCE
Explanation

QUESTION 44
Which route pattern wildcard character is used to terminate the interdigit timeout?
A. $
B. !
C. #
D. .
300-070 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 45
Which CUCM default global conference setting should be changed to ensure fraud prevention?
A. Advanced Ad Hoc Conference Enabled.
B. Block OffNet to OnNet Transfer.
C. MCU Conference Bridge Custom Layout Index.
D. Drop Ad Hoc Conference.
E. Enable Click-to-Conference for Third-Party Applications.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 46
Refer to Exhibit:
300-070 dumps
If the user at extension 1001 dials the user at extension 2001, which dial peer is used to route the call?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1
300-070 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 47
Which two of these are required in order for Cisco Unified Communications Manager to support software conferencing? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application needs to be activated on the server running the conferencing service in the cluster.
B. The service parameter for the Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application needs to have Run Flag set to True.
C. The software conference bridge resource needs to be configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
D. The Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application needs to be activated for all servers in the cluster.
E. Under the Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application parameters, the conference bridge needs to have Run Flag set to True.
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation

QUESTION 48
Which two options can a route pattern be assigned? (Choose two.)
A. a gateway that is not assigned to a route group
B. a gateway that is assigned to a route group
C. a route list with no route groups configured
D. a route list with one or more route groups configured
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation

QUESTION 49
Which DSCP classification is defined in RFC 2474?
A. DSCP CS3.
B. DSCP 0.
C. DSCP AF11.
D. DSCP CS6.
E. DSCP EF.
F. DSCP CS2.
G. DSCP CS1.
H. DSCP AF21.
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 50
What are two benefits of using the DiffServ QoS model? (Choose two)
A. It offers an absolute guarantee of service quality.
B. It is highly scalable.
C. RTCP is scalable.
D. It provides many different levels of quality.
E. RSVP is not scalable.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation

QUESTION 51
Which two features are advantages of deploying a cluster over WAN? (Choose two.)
A. Shared line appearances
B. CentralizedDSP resources
C. Extension mobility within the cluster
D. Scalability up to 20 sites, if thereis sufficient IP WAN bandwidth
E. Failover to co-resident Cisco UnifiedCall Manager Express platforms
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: AC
Explanation

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QUESTION 15
Your company has three offices. The offices are located in Seattle, London, and Tokyo. The network contains an Active Directory domain named northwindtraders.com. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. System Center 20l2 R2 Operations Manager is deployed to the domain. The servers in all three sites are monitored by using Operations Manager. The company has a web site for its customers. The web site requires users to signin. You need to recommend a solution to monitor the web site.
The solution must meet the following requirements: Monitor the availability of the web site from locations in North America, Europe, Asia, and Australia. Monitor multistep requests to the web site. Use a central console for monitoring. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Import the System Center Global Services Monitoring Management Pack and add the Web Application Availability Monitoring monitoring type.
B. Add the Web Application Transaction monitoring type and configure watcher nodes.
C. Add the TCP Port monitoring type and configure watcher nodes.
D. Import the System Center Global Services Monitor Management Pack and add the Visual Studio Web Test Monitoring monitoring type.
70-980 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You plan to implement Microsoft System Center 20l2. You need to identity which soluti n automates the membership of security groups for contoso.com. The solution must use workflows that provide administrators with the ability to approve the addition of members to the security groups. Which System Center 20l2 roles should you identify?
A. Configuration Manager and Orchestrator
B. Service Manager and Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
C. Orchestrator and Service Manager
D. Operations Manager and Orchestrator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Your network contains 20 servers that run Windows Server 20l2. The servers have the HyperV server role installed. You plan to deploy a management solution.You need to recommend which Microsoft System Center 20l2 roles must be deployed to meet the following requirements: An administrator must be notified when an incident occurs, such as a serious error in the event log, on a HyperV host, or on a virtual machine. An administrator must be able to assign an incident to a specific administrator for resolution. An incident that remains unresolved for more than 10 hours must be escalated automatically to another administrator. Administrators must be able to generate reports that contain the details of incidents and escalations. Which System Center 20l2 roles should you recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Operations Manager and Orchestrator
B. Operations Manager and Service Manager
C. Configuration Manager and Service Manager
D. Service Manager and Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Your company has a main office and a branch office. Each office contains several hundred computers that run Windows 20l2.You plan to deploy two Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) servers. The WSUS servers will be configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to implement the WSUS infrastructure to meet the following requirements: All updates must be approved from a server in the main office. All client computers must connect to a WSUS server in their local office. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that has the update location set to Serverl.
B. On Server2, configure WSUS in Replica mode.
C. On Serverl, configure WSUS in Replica mode.
D. On Server2, configure WSUS in Autonomous mode.
E. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that has the update location set to Server2.
F. On Serverl, configure WSUS in Autonomous mode.
70-980 dumps Correct Answer: ABEF

QUESTION 19
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.Your company works with a partner company that has an Active Directory forest named fabrikam.com. Both forests contain domain controllers that run only Windows Server 20l2 R2.The certification authority (CA) infrastructure of both companies is configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to recommend a certificate solution that meets the following requirements:
Server authentication certificates issued from fabrikam.com must be trusted automati ally by the computers in contoso.com.
The computers in contoso.com must not trust automatically any other type of certificates issued from the CA hierarchy in fabrikam.com. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that defines intermediate CAs. Import a certificate that has an application policy object identifier (OID) of CA Encryption Certificate.
B. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that defines an enterprise trust. Import a certificate that has an application policy object identifier (OID) of Microsoft Trust List Signing.
C. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that defines an enterprise trust. Import a certificate that has an application policy object identifier (OID) of CA Encryption Certificate.
D. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that defines intermediate CAs. Import a certificate that has an application policy object identifier (OID) of Microsoft Trust List Signing.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.Your company has an enterprise root certification authority (CA) named CAl. You plan to deploy Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) to a server named Serverl.The company purchases a Microsoft Office 365 subscription.You plan to register the company’s SMTP domain for Office 365 and to configure single signon for all users. You need to identify which certificate or certificates are required for the planned deployment. Which certificate or certificates should you identify? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. a server authentication certificate that is issued by a trusted thirdparty root CA and that contains the subject name serverl.contoso.com
B. a server authentication certificate that is issued by CAl and that contains the subject name Serverl
C. a server authentication certificate that is issued by a trusted thirdparty root CA and that contains the subject name Serverl
D. a server authentication certificate that is issued by CAl and that contains the subject name serverl.contoso.com
E. selfsigned server authentication certificates for serverl.contoso.com
70-980 pdf Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 21
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm that will contain eight federati n servers. You need to identify which technology or technologies must be deployed on the network before you install the federation servers. Which technology or technologies should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
B. Microsoft Forefront Identity Manager (FIM) 20l0
C. The Windows Internal Database feature
D. Microsoft SQL Server 20l2
E. The Windows Identity Foundation 3.5 feature
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 22
Your network contains a HyperV host named Host1. Host1 hosts 25 virtual machines. All of the virtual machines are configured to start automatically when Hostl restarts. You discover that some of the virtual machines fail to start automatically when Host1 restarts and require an administrator to start them manually. You need to modify the settings of the virtual machines to ensure that they automatically restart when Host1 restarts. Which settings should you modify?
A. Maximum RAM
B. Minimum RAM
C. Memory weight
D. Startup RAM
70-980 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Your network contains a Microsoft System Center 20l2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) server named Serverl. You use Serverl to manage 20 HyperV hosts. The network also contains five Citrix XenServer virtualization hosts. You need to recommend which installation is required to manage the XenServer servers from Serverl. What should you recommend installing?
A. The Citrix XenServer Microsoft System Center Integration Pack on the Citrix XenServer hosts
B. The Citrix XenServer Microsoft System Center Integration Pack on Serverl
C. Citrix Essentials for HyperV on Serverl
D. Citrix Essentials for HyperV on the Citrix XenServer hosts
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You plan to implement Network Load Balancing (NLB).
You need to identi y which network services and applications can be load balanced by using NLB.
Which services and applications should you identi y?
A. Microsoft SQL Server 20l2 Reporting Services
B. A failover cluster
C. A DHCP server
D. A Microsoft Exchange Server 20l0 Mailbox server
E. A file server
F. A Microsoft SharePoint Server 20l0 frontend Web server
70-980 exam Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 25
You have a Windows Server 20l2 R2 failover cluster that contains four nodes. Each node has four network adapters. The network adapters on each node are configured as shown in the following table.
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NIC4 supports Remote Direct Memory Access (RDMA) and Receive Side Scaling (RSS). The cluster networks are configured as shown in the following table.

You need to ensure that ClusterNetwork4 is used for Cluster Shared Volume (CSV) redirected traffic. What should you do?
A. Set the metric of ClusterNetwork4 to 90,000 and disable SMB Multichannel.
B. On each server, replace NIC4 with a 1Gbps network adapter.
C. Set the metric of ClusterNetwork4 to 30,000 and disable SMB Multichannel.
D. On each server, enable RDMA on NIC4.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 20l2. Server1 has the Active Directory Certificate Services server role installed. Server1 is configured as an offline standalone root certification authority (CA). You install the Active Directory Certificate Services server role on Server2 and configure the server as an enterprise subordinate CA. You need to ensure that the certificate issued to Server2 is valid for 10 years.What should you do first?
A. Modify the subordinate CA certificate template.
B. Modify the registry on Server2.
C. Modify the registry on Server1.
D. Modify the CAPolicy.inf file on Server2.
E. Modify the CAPolicy.inf file on Server1.
70-980 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 200 servers that run either Windows Server 2012 R2, Windows Server 2012, or Windows Server 200S R2. The servers run the
following enterprise applications:
Microsoft Exchange Server 2013
Microsoft SQL Server 20l4
System Center 2012 R2 Operations Manager is deployed to the domain. Operations Manager monitors all of the servers in the domain. Audit Collection Services (ACS) is installed.You need to recommend a monitoring strategy for the domain that meets the following requirements:
A group of administrators must be notified when an error is written to the System log on the servers that run Exchange Server 2013.
A group of administrators must be notified when a specific event is written to The Application log on the servers that run SQL Server 20l4.
What is the best approach to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. From Operations Manager, enable audit collection.
B. From Operations Manager, implement two monitors.
C. From Computer Management, implement one event subscription.
D. From Operations Manager, implement two rules.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Your network contains the following:
20 HyperV hosts
100 virtual machines
2,000 client computers
You need to recommend an update infrastructure design to meet the following requirements: Deploy updates to all of the virtual machines and the client computers from a single console. Generate reports that contain a list of the applied updates. What should you recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager and a second WSUS server that is integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
B. One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
C. One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager, a second WSUS server integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM), and a third standalone WSUS server.
D. One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager and Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
70-980 pdf Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 14
Note: Thi* question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to It. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2016. The forest contains 2#W client computers that run Windows 10. All client computers are deployed (rom a customized Windows image. You need to deploy 10 Pnvileged Access Workstations (PAWs). The solution must ensure that administrators can access several client applications used by all users. Solution: You deploy 10 physical computers and configure each wie as a virtualization host You deploy the operating system on each host by using the customized Windows image. On each host you create a guest virtual machine and configure the virtual machine as a PAW. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-744 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario b repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series. Start of repeated scenario Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The functional level of the forest and the domain is Windows Server 2008 R2. The domain contains the servers configured as shown m the following table.
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All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10. You have an organizational unit (OU) named Marketing that contains the computers in the marketing department You have an OU named Finance that contains the computers in the finance department You have an OU named AppServers that contains application servers. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to the Marketing OU. A GPO named GP2 is linked to the AppServers OU. You install Windows Defender on Nano1. End of repeated scenario
You need to disable SMB 1.0 on Server2. What should you do?
A. From File Server Resource Manager, create a classification rule.
B. From the properties of each network adapter on Server2. modify the bindings.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set -SmbClientConfiguration cmdlet.
D. From Server Manager, remove a Windows feature.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com The domain contains five file servers that run Windows Server 2016. You have an organizational unit (OU) named Finance that contains all of the servers. You create a Group Policy object (GPO) and link the GPO to the Finance OU. You need to ensure that when a user in the finance department deletes a file from a file server, the event is logged. The solution must log only users who have a manager attribute of Ben Smith. Which audit policy setting should you configure in the GPO?
A. File system in Global Object Access Auditing
B. Audit Detailed File Share
C. Audit Other Account Logon Events
D. Audit File System in Object Access
70-744 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Windows PowerShell is a task-based command-line shell and scripting language designed especially for system administration. Windows Defender comes with a number of different Defender-specific cmdlets that you can run through PowerShell to automate common tasks. Which Cmdlet would you run first if you wanted to perform an offline scan?
A. Start-MpWDOScan
B. Start-MpScan
C. Set-MpPreference -DisableRestorePoint $true
D. Set-MpPreference -DisablePrivacyMode $true
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.You are deploying Microsoft Advanced Threat Analytics (ATA) to the domain.You install the ATA Center on server named Server1 and the ATA Gateway on a server named Served.You need to ensure that Server2 can collect NTLM authentication events.What should you configure?
A. the domain controllers to forward Event ID 4776 to Server2
B. the domain controllers to forward Event ID 1000 to Server1
C. Server2 to forward Event ID 1026 to Server1
D. Server1 to forward Event ID 1000 to Server2
70-744 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Note: This question is part of a scries of questions that present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question In this section, you will NOT be able to return to It. As a result, these questions will not appear In the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains mulbple Hyper-V hosts. You need to deploy several critical line-of-business applications to the network; to meet the following requirements:
*The resources of the applications must be isolated from the physical host.
*Each application must be prevented from accessing the resources of the other applications.
*The configurations of the applications must be accessible only from the operating system that hosts the application.
Solution: You deploy a separate Windows container for each application. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Note: This question b part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear In the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contow.com. All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10. The relevant objects in the domain are configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to assign User1 the right to restore files and folders on Server1 and Server2. Solution: You create a Group Policy object (GPO), link it to the Operations Users OU, and modify the Users Rights Assignment in the GPO. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-744 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. The services on Server1 are shown in the following output.
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Sefver1 has the AppLocker rules configured as shown in the exhibit (Click the Exhibit button.)

Rule1 and Rule2 are configured a$ shown in the following table

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No

QUESTION 22
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest has Microsoft Identity Manager (MIM) 2016 deployed. You implement Privileged Access Management (PAM). You need to request privileged access from a client computer in contoso.com by using PAM. How should you complete the Windows PowerShell script? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 23
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and adatum.com. Contoso.com contains a Hyper-V host named Server1. Server1 is a member of a group named HyperHosts. Adatum.com contains a server named Server2. Server1 and Server2 run Windows Server 2016. Contoso.com trusts adatum.com. You plan to deploy shielded virtual machines to Server1 and to configure Admin-trusted attestation on Server2. Which component should you install and which cmdlet should you run on Server2? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 24
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series. Start of repeated scenario Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The functional level of the forest and the domain is Windows Server 2008 R2. The domain contains the servers configured as shown in the following table.
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All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10. You have an organizational unit (OU) named Marketing that contains the computers in the marketing department. You have an OU named Finance that contains the computers in the finance department. You have an OU named AppServers that contains application servers.
A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to the Marketing OU. A GPO named GP2 is linked to the AppServers OU. You install Windows Defender on Nano1. End of repeated scenario You need to ensure that you can implement the Local Administrator Password Solution (LAPS) (or the finance department computers. What should you do in the contoso.com forest? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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Microsoft 70-698 dumps Installing and Configuring Windows 10 is a multiple choice dumps that must be completed within 90. Some of the topics assessed are how to consider the challenges faced by business and IT today and how this relates to Microsoft opportunities. The exam also assesses who “the customer” is and the importance of applications to many of the customers that are influential in purchasing application-based solutions.

TO GET MORE INFORMATION ABOUT Microsoft 70-698 EXAM GO HERE(1-15)

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answer choices. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A user connects to a wireless network and receives the following message: “Do you want to allow your PC to be discoverable by other PCs and devices on this network?” The user clicks No. The user is unable to browse to the shared folders of other computers on the network by using File E explorer. You need to ensure that the user can browse to the other computers. What should you do?
A. Click Turn on password protected sharing.
B. Disable Network Discovery.
C. Modify the Profile settings of an incoming firewall rule.
D. Run theAdd-VpnConnectionTriggerApplicationcmdlet.
E. Run the New-NetFirewallRule cmdlet and specify the -Direction Outbound parameter.
F. Run the New-VpnConnection cmdlet.
G. Run the Set-NetConnectionProfile cmdlet.
H. Run the Set-VPNConnection cmdlet.
70-698 exam Correct Answer: G
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
In this section, you will see one or more sets of questions with the same scenario and problem. Each question presents a unique solution to the problem, and you must determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Any of the solutions might solve the problem. It is also possible that none of the solutions solve the problem.
Once you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
Your network contains a single Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two computers named Computer1 and Computer2. A user named User1 is a member of the local Administrators group on Computer1 and Computer2. User1 fails to access the Event Viewer logs on Computer2 from Computer1. User1 can connect to Computer2 remotely by using Computer Management. You need to ensure that User1 can use Event Viewer on Computer1 to remotely view the Event Viewer logs on Computer2. Solution: You run winrm quickconfig on Computer2. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
You have a Windows 10 Enterprise computer named Computer1. Computer1 has File History enabled. You create a folder named Folder1 in the root of the C: drive.
You need to ensure that Folder1 is protected by File History. What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. From File Explorer, include Folder1 in an existing library.
B. Modify the Advanced settings from the FileHistory Control Panel item.
C. From the Settings app, modify the Backup options.
D. From File Explorer, modify the system attribute of Folder1.
70-698 dumps Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
By default, File History backs up all libraries. We can therefore ensure that Folder1 is protected by File History by adding the folder to a library. The second method of ensuring that Folder1 is protected by File History is to add the folder location to File History. You do this by modifying the Backup options, not the File History Control Panel item as you might expect. In the Settings app, select Update & Security then Backup. Under the Back up using File History heading, select the Add a drive option.

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answer choices. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
You have a computer named Computer1. Computer1 has a virtual hard disk (VHD) named Disk1.vhdx. Disk1.vhdx has an NTFS partition, which is visible in File Explorer as drive E.
You need to apply a Windows 10 image to drive E. What should you run?
A. Add-WindowsImage
B. bcdboot.exe
C. bcdedit.exe
D. bootcfg.exe
E. bootim.exe
F. bootsect.exe
G. diskpart.exe
H. Expand-WindowsImage
70-698 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 5
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 has two volumes named C and D. Volume C is formatted NTFS and volume D is formatted exFAT. You need to ensure that you can recover files stored in D:\Data. What should you use?
A. System Restore points
B. File History
C. wbadmin.exe
D. Backup and Restore (Windows 7)
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
You have 10 computers that run Windows 10 Pro. The computers currently receive updates as part of the Current Branch. You need to configure the computers to receive updates as part of Current Branch for Business. What should you do?
A. Select the Defer upgrades check box.
B. Upgrade to Windows 10 Enterprise.
C. Change the product key.
D. Clear the Give me updates for other Microsoft products when I update check box.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answer choices. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You have a computer that has a dual-boot configuration. Windows 10 Pro is installed on the local disk. Windows 10 Enterprise is installed in a VHDX file named Disk1.vhdx. You start the computer to Windows 10 Pro, and then you download a driver package. You need to ensure that the next time the Windows 10 Enterprise installation starts, the driver is installed already. What should you run first?
A. Add-WindowsImage
B. bcdboot.exe
C. bcdedit.exe
D. bootcfg.exe
E. bootim.exe
F. bootsect.exe
G. G. diskpart.exe
H. Expand-WindowsImage
70-698 vce Correct Answer: G
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Your network contains a single Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two computers named Computer1 and Computer2.
A user named User1 is a member of the local Administrators group on Computer1 and Computer2.
User1 fails to remotely manage the devices on Computer2 by using Device Manager on Computer1.
User1 can connect to Computer2 remotely by using Computer Management. You need to ensure that User1 can disable a device on Computer2 remotely. Solution: You enable Remote Desktop on Computer2, and you instruct User1 to use Remote Desktop. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answer choices. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Your network contains a single Active Directory domain. The domain contains devices that run Windows 10 Enterprise. You need to prevent computers from connecting to hosts on subnet 131.107.0.0/24. What should you do?
A. Click Turn on password protected sharing.
B. Disable Network Discovery.
C. Modify the Profile settings of an incoming firewall rule.
D. Run the Add-VpnConnectionTriggerApplication cmdlet.
E. Run the New-NetFirewallRule cmdlet and specify the- Direction Outbound parameter.
F. Run theNew-VpnConnection cmdlet.
G. Run the Set-NetConnectionProfile cmdlet.
H. Run the Set-VPNConnection cmdlet.
70-698 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
You have set up a new wireless network for one of your prestigious clients. The director wants to ensure that only certain designated wireless laptops can connect to the new network to prevent misuse. What do you need to do?
A. Use MAC address control
B. UseIPv4 address control
C. Use WEP
D. Use WPA
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 11
Your networks contain a single Active Directory domain. On a domain controller, an administrator creates a custom Microsoft Management Console (MMC) that uses the Active Directory Users and Computer snap-in. The domain contains a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. You use the computer to perform management tasks. You copy the custom MMC to the computer. You need to ensure that you can use MMC and all of the features of the MMC. What should you do on Computer1?
A. Enable the Sideload apps developer feature.
B. Install the Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT).
C. Install the Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT).
D. Disable User Account Control (UAC).
70-698 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answer choices. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You have 10 computers that run Windows 10 Pro. The computers are in a workgroup. A computer named PC_User1 has shared folder named Share1. Users are not prompted for credentials when they access Share1. You modify the permissions on Share1 so that the share is shared only to a user named User1. You need to ensure that when users from other computers in the workgroup access Share1, they must authenticate by using the credentials of User1. What should you do?
A. Click Turn on password protected sharing.
B. Disable Network Discovery.
C. Modify the Profile settings of an incoming firewall rule.
D. Run the Add-VpnConnectionTriggerApplication cmdlet.
E. Run the New-NetFirewallRule cmdlet and specify the- Direction Outbound parameter.
F. Run the New-VpnConnection cmdlet.
G. Run the Set-NetConnectionProfile cmdlet.
H. Run the Set-VPNConnection cmdlet.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
In this section, you will see one or more sets of questions with the same scenario and problem. Each question presents a unique solution to the problem, and you must determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Any of the solutions might solve the problem. It is also possible that none of the solutions solve the problem. Once you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. File History is turned on. The user of Computer1 reports that previous versions of D:\Folder\File1.doc are unavailable from the Previous Versions tab. You need to ensure that the previous versions of the file are created. Solution: Modify the Backup settings in the Settings app. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-698 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
Your network contains a single Active Directory domain that has a Key Management Service (KMS) host. You deploy Windows 10 to several laptops. You need to ensure that Windows 10 is activated on the laptops immediately. Which command should you run?
A. ospp.vbs/act
B. slmgr.vbs/dli
C. slmgr.vbs/ato
D. ospp.vbs/dstatus
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answer choices. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Your network contains a single Active Directory domain. The domain contains a VPN server that supports all of the VPN protocols. A user named User1 works from home and has a desktop computer that runs Windows 10 Pro. User1 has an application named App1 that requires access to a server on the corporate network. User1 creates a VPN connection on the computer. You need to ensure that when User1 opens App1, App1 can access the required data. What should you do?
A. Click Turn on password protected sharing.
B. Disable Network Discovery.
C. Modify the Profile settings of an incoming firewall rule.
D. Run the Add-VpnConnectionTriggerApplication cmdlet.
E. Run the New-NetFirewallRule cmdlet and specify the- Direction Outbound parameter.
F. Run the New-VpnConnection cmdlet.
G. Run the Set-NetConnectionProfile cmdlet.
H. Run the Set-VPNConnection cmdlet.
70-698 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Pass4itsure new updated Cisco 200-125 dumps certification exam video CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0). The CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0) exam (200-125) is a 90-minute assessment with 60-70 questions, which is required for CCNA Routing and Switching certification. The computer-based, multiple-choice exam tests the candidate’s knowledge of network fundamentals, LAN switching technologies, IPv4 and IPv6 routing technologies, WAN technologies, infrastructure services, infrastructure security, and infrastructure management in the Cisco environment.

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TO GET MORE INFORMATION ABOUT CISCO 200-125 EXAM GO HERE(1-28)

QUESTION 1
Which technology supports the stateless assignment of IPv6 addresses?
A. DNS
B. DHCPv6
C. DHCP
D. autoconfiguration
200-125 exam Correct Answer: BD
Explanation

QUESTION 2
What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)
A. exactly one active router
B. one or more standby routers
C. one or more backup virtual routers
D. exactly one standby active router
E. exactly one backup virtual router
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 3
After you configure the Loopback0 interface, which command can you enter to verify the status of the interface and determine whether fast switching is enabled?
A. Router#show ip interface loopback 0
B. Router#show run
C. Router#show interface loopback 0
D. Router#show ip interface brief
200-125 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Which command sequence can you enter to create VLAN 20 and assign it to an interface on a switch?
A. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y
Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20
B. Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y
Switch(config-if)#vlan 20
Switch(config-vlan)#switchport access vlan 20
C. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 20
D. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20
E. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 20
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 5
Which three commands can you use to set a router boot image? (Choose three.)
A. Router(config)# boot system flash c4500-p-mz.121-20.bin
B. Router(config)# boot system tftp c7300-js-mz.122-33.SB8a.bin
C. Router(config)#boot system rom c7301-advipservicesk9-mz.124-24.T4.bin
D. Router> boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin
E. Router(config)#boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin
F. Router(config)#boot bootldr bootflash:c4500-jk9s-mz.122-23f.bin
200-125 pdf Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation

QUESTION 6
Which two statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)
A. Link-local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
B. OSPFv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
C. EIGRP, OSPF, and BGP are the only routing protocols that support IPv6.
D. Loopback addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
E. EIGRPv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 7
If primary and secondary root switches with priority 16384 both experience catastrophic losses, which tertiary switch can take over?
A. a switch with priority 20480
B. a switch with priority 8192
C. a switch with priority 4096
D. a switch with priority 12288
200-125 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 8
Which two statements about late collisions are true? (Choose two.)
A. They may indicate a duplex mismatch.
B. By definition, they occur after the 512th bit of the frame has been transmitted.
C. They indicate received frames that did not pass the FCS match.
D. They are frames that exceed 1518 bytes.
E. They occur when CRC errors and interference occur on the cable.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 9
Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an interface?
A. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
B. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 GigabitEthernet0/1
C. router(config-router)#default-information originate
D. router(config-router)#default-information originate always
200-125 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 10
Which two spanning-tree port states does RSTP combine to allow faster convergence? (Choose two.)
A. blocking
B. listening
C. learning
D. forwarding
E. discarding
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 11
If a router has four interfaces and each interface is connected to four switches, how many broadcast domains are present on the router?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
200-125 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 12
Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?
A. ipv6 local
B. ipv6 host
C. ipv6 unicast-routing
D. ipv6 neighbor
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?
200-125 dumps
A. 10.0.0.0 /21
B. 10.0.0.0 /22
C. 10.0.0.0 /23
D. 10.0.0.0 /24
200-125 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 14
Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?
A. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
B. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
C. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
D. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 15
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?
A. the OSPF route
B. the EIGRP route
C. the RIPv2 route
D. all three routes
E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
200-125 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 16
Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected via their serial interfaces as illustrated, but they are unable to communicate. The Atlanta router is known to have the correct configuration.
200-125 dumps
Given the partial configurations, identify the fault on the Brevard router that is causing the lack of connectivity
A. incompatible IP address
B. insufficient bandwidth
C. incorrect subnet mask
D. incompatible encapsulation
E. link reliability too low
F. IPCP closed
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 17
A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?
A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# no shut
B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
Main(config-if)# no shut
C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay
Main(config-if)# authentication chap
Main(config-if)# no shut
D. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf
Main(config-if)# no shut
200-125 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 18
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has built in security mechanisms?
A. HDLC
B. PPP
C. X.25
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)
200-125 dumps
A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
200-125 dumps Correct Answer: BDF
Explanation

QUESTION 20
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link.
200-125 dumps
The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?
A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.
B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.
C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.
D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.
F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 21
What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?
A. Addresses in a private range will be not be routed on the Internet backbone.
B. Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network.
C. The NAT process will be used to translate this address to a valid IP address.
D. A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.
200-125 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit. The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router. What is the cause of the problem?
200-125 dumps
A. The usernames are incorrectly configured on the two routers.
B. The passwords do not match on the two routers.
C. CHAP authentication cannot be used on a serial interface.
D. The routers cannot be connected from interface S0/0 to interface S0/0.
E. With CHAP authentication, one router must authenticate to another router. The routers cannot be configured to authenticate to each other.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 23
What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch? Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
E. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
200-125 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 24
You are using MADlib for Linear Regression analysis. Which value does the statement return? SELECT (linregr(depvar, indepvar)).r2 FROM zeta1;
A. Goodness of fit
B. Coefficients
C. Standard error
D. P-value
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which data asset is an example of quasi-structured data?
A. Webserver log
B. XML data file
C. Database table
D. News article
200-125 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
What would be considered “Big Data”?
A. An OLAP Cube containing customer demographic information about 100, 000, 000 customers
B. Daily Log files from a web server that receives 100, 000 hits per minute
C. Aggregated statistical data stored in a relational database table
D. Spreadsheets containing monthly sales data for a Global 100 corporation
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
A data scientist plans to classify the sentiment polarity of 10, 000 product reviews collected from the Internet. What is the most appropriate model to use? Suppose labeled training data is available.
A. Naïve Bayesian classifier
B. Linear regression
C. Logistic regression
D. K-means clustering
200-125 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
In which lifecycle stage are test and training data sets created?
A. Model building
B. Model planning
C. Discovery
D. Data preparation
Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 90
Refer to the exhibit
100-105 dumps

If the resume command is entered after the sequence that is shown in the exhibit, which router prompt will be displayed?
A. Router1>
B. Router1#
C. Router2>
D. Router2#
100-105 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 91
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 92
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 93
Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two.) Router(config)# router ospf 1
A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.
B. Only one process number can be used on the same router.
C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes
D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 94
Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.
B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.
C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length.
D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address.
E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 95
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning the advertisement of VRF routes on a 7750 SR?
A. By default, a 7750 SR does not advertise all routes in the VRF to a CE router.
B. The default 7750 SR behavior describes all routes in a VRF that are advertised to other PE routers.
C. By default, a 7750 SR does not advertise all routes in the VRF to other PE routers.
D. By default, a 7750 SR advertises all routes in the VRF to a CE router.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 96
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding 6VPE?
A. Multiple MP-BGP sessions are required to carry VPN-IPv4 and VPN-IPv6 routes.
B. PE routers must support both IPv4 and IPv6 addresses; customer routers can use either one
C. In 6VPE, MP-BGP is used to advertise IPv6 prefixes and the associated VPRN label.
D. In 6VPE, the provider core routers are IPv6-unaware.
E. All of the above statements are true.
F. All of the above statements are false.
100-105 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 97
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding 6VPE?
A. 6VPE is a tunneling technology that makes use of MPLS tunnels to transport IPv6 information over an IPv4 MPLS infrastructure.
B. Customers connected to 6VPE could run native IPv6 or IPv4.
C. On the PE router, the next hop for a VPN IPv6 address is an IPv6 address, regardless of the nature of the network between the PEs.
D. 6VPE requires an IPv6-aware MPLS core.
E. Both C and D are false.
F. All of the above statements are true.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 98
Which of the following is NOT a service offered on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. IES
B. VPWS
C. VPLS
D. VPRN
E. L2TP
100-105 exam Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 99
Which of the following best describes a VPRN?
A. Layer 3 direct Internet access service.
B. Layer 2 point-to-point service.
C. Layer 2 multipoint-to-multipoint service.
D. Layer 3 IP multipoint-to-multipoint VPN service.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 100
Which of the following describes a service on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. A logical entity that provides a uniform, end-to-end configuration, management and billing model for provisioning either Internet or VPN connectivity.
B. Provides connectivity between customer access points.
C. A service that can either be local or distributed.
D. All of the above
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 101
Once a service has been created with a customer association, it is possible to change the customer association.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 102
What needs to be configured before a SAP appears? (Choose 2)
A. Configuring the physical port in access mode.
B. Configuring the physical port in network mode.
C. Enabling the port using the no shutdown command.
D. Ports are enabled by default, thus no need to use the no shutdown command.
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 103
All services mapped to an SDP use the same transport encapsulation type (either GRE or MPLS)
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 104
A Cpipe supports both structured and unstructured frames.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
100-105 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 105
A service provider wishes to configure a Layer 2 service that will forward customer VLAN tags. When configuring an SDP for the service, which vc-type will forward service delimiting tags on the ingress PE?
A. vc-type ether
B. vc-type vlan
C. vc-type dot1q
D. vc-type null
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 106
Which service type would be used to provide a bi-directional Layer 2 connection of TDM circuits over an IP/MPLS network?
A. A-pipe
B. E-pipe
C. I-pipe
D. F-pipe
E. C-pipe
100-105 exam Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 107
Which of the following SAP encapsulations support multiple services on a port? (Choose 3)
A. dot1q
B. null
C. qinq
D. atm
E. ipcp
F. bcp-null
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 108
When a tagged packet is received on a SAP configured with dot1q encapsulation, the VLAN tag must match the value configured on the SAP in order to be forwarded.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 109
In a Layer 2 VPN service, the FCS is stripped when a customer packet arrives at the ingress PE and regenerated on egress.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 110
By default, what does a PE do to support VPLS services for different customers? (Choose 2)
A. MAC learning.
B. Maintain a different Forwarding Data Base for each service
C. ARP mediation.
D. Maintain a different Routing Information Base for each service.
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 111
What is the minimum Ethernet physical network MTU required for a Layer 2 service on a GRE encapsulated SDP with a service MTU of 1514?
A. 1514
B. 1526
C. 1548
D. 1556
E. 1536
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 112
A network technician needs to set up a local mirror to replicate traffic for examination with a protocol analyzer. The analyzer is on port 1/1/4 of his service router. Which of the following configuration steps is required?
A. A mirror source listing port 1/1/4.
B. A mirror destination listing port 1/1/4.
C. A remote source command indicating the IP address of the service router he is configuring a local mirror on.
D. Verification that his IP/MPLS infrastructure is in place
E. None of the above.
100-105 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 113
Which of the following best describes the label stack for a packet in the VPRN context?
A. An outer label and a transport label.
B. An inner label and a service label.
C. A transport label and a service label.
D. An MPLS transport label
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 114
Which of the following statements about VPRN is NOT true? (Choose 2)
A. VPRN is an IP service that connects multiple sites in a single routed domain over the provider managed IP/MPLS network.
B. Each VPRN consists of a set of customer sites that must connect to the same PE router
C. In a VPRN service, each customer router becomes a routing peer to other customer routers
D. VPRN provides customer routers with transparent IP connectivity without knowledge of the MPLS core
100-105 exam Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 115
A VPRN service is configured with BGP used as the CE-PE routing protocol. What address families are required on the PE-CE BGP session?
A. VPN-IPv4 address families are required in order for routes to be exchanged with the PE.
B. Only default IPv4 address families are required since the CE is not aware of the VPRN service
C. Either IPv4 or VPN-IPv4 address families can be configured on the PE-CE BGP session
D. An IPv4 address family configuration is required for the PE-PE configuration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 116
Which of the following statements are FALSE regarding the VPN-IPv4 address family? (Choose 2)
A. When a PE router receives an IPv4 prefix from its local CE it creates a VPN-IPv4 prefix.
B. The route distinguisher (RD) is appended to the IPv4 prefix to form a 16 byte VPN-IPv4 prefix.
C. VPN-IPv4 allows BGP to distinguish multiple routes with the same prefixes originated from distinct customers
D. VPN-IPv4 addresses are only present within the service provider network.
E. In VPRN, data traffic is carried in VPN-IPv4 packets.
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 117
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding 6VPE?
A. 6VPE is a tunneling technology that makes use of MPLS tunnels to transport IPv6 information over an IPv4 MPLS infrastructure.
B. Customers connected to 6VPE could run native IPv6 or IPv4.
C. On the PE router, the next hop for a VPN IPv6 address is an IPv6 address, regardless of the nature of the network between the PEs.
D. 6VPE requires an IPv6-aware MPLS core.
E. Both C and D are false.
F. All of the above statements are true.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 118
Service tunnels and transport tunnels are bidirectional and only require the operator to configure the tunnel on one router.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 119
A transport tunnel can either use an MPLS or GRE encapsulation.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 120
Which of the following must be configured when configuring an Epipe service? (Choose 4)
A. Configuring an Epipe service with a customer ID
B. Defining a SAP or SAPs.
C. Binding to an SDP if it is a distributed service.
D. Enabling the service using the no shutdown command.
E. Creating and assigning an IP filter to the SAP.
F. Configuring QoS parameters
100-105 vce Correct Answer: ABCD

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QUESTION 13
Which two methods can an administrator use to configure Web Interface in high availability mode? (Choose two.)
A. Windows Cluster services
B. NetScaler Load Balancing feature
C. Windows Load Balancing services
D. NetScaler Access Gateway feature
1Y0-A22 exam Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
A XenApp Administrator plans to use Citrix NetScaler to load balance Web Interface servers. Which persistence setting should the administrator choose to correctly configure high availability for Web Interface?
A. NOCE
B. DESTIP
C. SOURCEIP
D. COOKIEINSERT
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Scenario: A XenApp Administrator of a 100-server farm needs to apply Citrix and vendor hotfixes on a monthly basis, and a server restart is always required. The administrator needs to automate this process but does NOT have a third party tool available. Which two tasks should the administrator complete to guarantee that updates will be applied successfully? (Choose two.)
A. Prohibit logons and notify users.
B. Restart the server and install hotfixes.
C. Apply application load evaluators and notify users.
D. Log off all users from servers and schedule a .EXE setup file installation.
1Y0-A22 dumps Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Scenario: The Citrix Administrator of a large farm needs to perform a health check after a scheduled update window. The health check should alert the administrator when the server is unavailable to users. Which action must the administrator take to perform a health check after a scheduled update window?
A. Use PowerShell SDK scripts to verify the applied updates.
B. Use MFCOM to check applied updates and enabled logons.
C. Use MFCOM scripts to verify enabled logons and open Citrix ports.
D. Use PowerShell SDK scripts to check enabled logons and open Citrix ports.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Scenario: A new administrator has been asked to ensure that all servers meet the minimum required patching level. A test server has been used to confirm that all patches can be deployed to the production servers. Testing has identified that production servers are NOT at the same patch level. Which action can the administrator take to identify which patches are required on each production server?
A. Use the Citrix Computer policy wizard.
B. Use the Citrix AppCenter History node.
C. Use the Citrix AppCenter Configuration Tools node.
D. Use the Prepare this server for imaging and provisioning task.
1Y0-A22 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Scenario: A XenApp Administrator needs to deploy a small MSI package across all XenApp servers. This package requires a restart which needs to be scheduled to ensure that all servers do NOT restart at once. Which action must the administrator take to fulfill the requirement?
A. Set up Installation Manager.
B. Configure Health Monitoring and Recovery.
C. Create a maintenance policy in the AppCenter console.
D. Use the XenApp Server Role Manager to install Installation Manager.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which component should an administrator monitor to verify if the XenApp servers are accepting ICA connections?
A. ICA Listener
B. Logon Monitor
C. Citrix IMA Service
D. Citrix Streaming Service
1Y0-A22 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
A XenApp Administrator needs to set up monitoring between a Web Interface server and the back-end XenApp servers. Which component should the administrator monitor?
A. ICA Listener
B. Citrix IMA Service
C. Local Host Cache
D. Citrix XML Service
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Scenario: Some users in remote offices complain that Citrix sessions are slow, and the network administrator has asked the Citrix Administrator to determine whether any data transmission errors are occurring for a group of sample users. In this environment, EdgeSight, Branch Repeater and Session Reliability are NOT used. How can the Citrix Administrator determine the extent of data transmission errors based on the sample users?
A. Configure Multi-Stream for sample users.
B. Open the Citrix Connection Center for sample users.
C. Enable ICA round trip calculators for idle connections for sample users.
D. Change the active session limit to something other than Never in the ICA-TCP settings.
1Y0-A22 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
Scenario: A user reports that a hosted desktop session is sporadically slow. To assess the problem, an administrator reviews the Client Connection Status of the user and observes the information displayed in the attached exhibit.
Click the Exhibit button to view the attached exhibit.
1Y0-A22 dumps

What can the administrator assess about the network based on the information in the exhibit?
A. ICA network traffic is functioning normally.
B. The white receive bar indicates there is a problem receiving data.
C. Incoming data is constrained as evidenced by the number of incoming versus outgoing frames.
D. Outgoing data is constrained as evidenced by four times the number of incoming bytes/frames.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
Scenario: A remote user has reported that published applications are occasionally slow or choppy. The administrator thinks that it may be a network issue, and requests that the user send a Client Connection Status screenshot which is shown in the attached exhibit. Click the Exhibit button to view the attached exhibit.
1Y0-A22 dumps

Which conclusion can the administrator make based on the information in the attached exhibit?
A. ICA network traffic is functioning normally.
B. The white bar indicates that there may be a problem with incoming data.
C. Outgoing data is constrained as evidenced by the number of bytes/frame.
D. An older version of the Citrix Receiver may be causing ICA traffic to function less optimally.
1Y0-A22 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
A governmental auditor was assigned to determine reasons why the students in one region scored significantly higher on education evaluation tests than did the students in another region. Previous research showed that there is a direct correlation between public financial support and student results. Which of the following is most likely to explain the difference in the regional results?
A. The more successful region spends 30 percent more money on education than does the other region.
B. A higher percentage of the general tax fund is spent on education in the more successful region than in the other region.
C. The more successful region spends more money per student on education than does the other region.
D. The more successful region has increased educational spending by an average of 10 percent each year for the last three years, whereas the other region’s increase averaged only three percent.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
Which of the following would constitute a violation of the IIA Code of Ethics?
A. An internal auditor, who has recently joined the organization, has accepted an assignment to audit the electronics manufacturing division. The auditor previously served as senior auditor for the external audit of that division and has audited many electronics companies during the past two years.
B. An internal auditor has accepted an assignment to audit the warehousing function six months from now. The auditor has no expertise in that area but has signed up for courses in warehousing that will be completed before the assignment begins.
C. An internal auditor has no ambitions for promotion and has not engaged in training or other professional development activities during the last three years. The auditor’s performance assessments indicate consistent quality of work.
D. An internal auditor discovered an internal financial fraud during the year, and the financial statements were adjusted to properly reflect the loss associated with the fraud. The auditor discussed the fraud with the external auditor during the external auditor’s review of the working papers detailing the incident.
1Y0-A22 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
An auditor decides to perform an inventory turnover analysis for both raw materials inventory and finished goods inventory. The analysis would be potentially useful in:
I. Identifying products for which management has not been attuned to changes in market demand.
II. Identifying potential problems in purchasing activities.
III. Identifying obsolete inventory.
A. III only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I, II, and III
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
An internal auditor provided the following statement about division A’s performance during the month: “Because supplies of raw material X were scarce, division A’s profits declined by 15 percent.” Which of the following can be validly concluded from the auditor’s statement?
I. Division A’s production level declined by 15 percent.
II. Division A could have sold more products than it produced.
III. Division A usually sells all of the products that it produces.
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only
1Y0-A22 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
As part of an operational audit of the shipping department, an auditor selected a sample of 45 daily shipping logs from the department’s files. On 44 of the days, the log contained a sufficient number of shipments to meet the department’s daily quota. Based on this test, the auditor concluded that the shipping department was effective at meeting its quotas. Which of the following is true about the auditor’s conclusion?
A. The number of items selected for testing is inadequate to justify the conclusion.
B. The shipping department is effective in meeting its responsibilities.
C. This conclusion would negate any need to perform tests of efficiency.
D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
An internal audit activity implemented an integrated test facility to test payroll processing. The auditors identified the key controls and processing steps built into the computer program and developed test data to test them. The auditors submitted test transactions throughout the year and did not find any differences in their test results. The auditors can conclude that:
A. The system is properly capturing the hours worked by employees during the year and the hours have been properly submitted to payroll and processed correctly.
B. All employees were correctly paid during the year and their pay was correctly computed.
C. The computer application and its control procedures were processing payroll transactions correctly during the past year.
D. All of the above.
1Y0-A22 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
A code of ethics within the internal auditing profession is necessary in order to:
A. Reduce the likelihood that members of the profession will be sued for substandard work.
B. Ensure that all members of the profession perform at approximately the same level of competence.
C. Provide guidance to internal auditors in their service to others.
D. Require members of the profession to exhibit loyalty in all matters pertaining to the affairs of their organization.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
An auditor is scheduled to audit payroll controls for a company which has recently outsourced its processing to an information service bureau. What action should the auditor take, considering the outsourcing decision?
A. Review the controls over payroll in both the company and the service bureau.
B. Review only the company’s controls over data sent to and received from the service bureau.
C. Review only the controls over payments to the service bureau based on the contract.
D. Cancel the engagement because the processing is being performed outside of the organization.
1Y0-A22 dumps Correct Answer: A

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A. CSFs are quantitative in nature and focus stakeholder relationships
B. CSFs describe an element that is needed by an organization or project to reach its goal
C. CSFs help link business initiatives or processes with selling, designing, developing, and adopting solutions and services
D. CSFs should receive special and continual attention from management in order to help the organization be effective
810-403 exam Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
810-403 dumps

QUESTION 3
Which two classes of solutions enable business outcomes for the Energy/Utilities industry? (Choose two.)
A. Advanced Routing
B. Data Center and Virtualization
C. Multilayer Switching
D. Internet of Everything
E. Remote Expert
F. Service Provider Network Infrastructure
810-403 dumps Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 4
How could IT as a Service help drive business outcomes?
A. By the fast technology acquisition options for the customers.
B. Providing an organization with the right to use the technology and service without the need for purchasing it.
C. Providing an organization with various options for the types of services to deploy.
D. Depending upon what the business is seeking, each type of service has different financial implications for business outcomes.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Which two options are part of the five steps approach needed to conduct a stakeholder analysis? (Choose two.)
A. Define ways to move stakeholders from their current to future position.
B. Identifycustomer stakeholders.
C. Define absolute power and interest of stakeholders.
D. Generate consensus among stakeholders.
810-403 pdf Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 6
When you seek customer support for an action, which framework can be used to plan influential communication?
A. stakeholder analysis matrix
B. seven elements
C. principled negotiation
D. business model canvas
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Which option is a main benefit that Cisco Partners bring to the table for customers?
A. additional teams to implement solutions in a timely manner
B. relationships with key Cisco personnel
C. a large customer base for which to sell Cisco services
D. Cisco expertise and the ability to have specializations in certain practice areas
810-403 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
810-403 dumps

810-403 dumps

QUESTION 9
Which framework can give the best insight and visual flow into how a customer\’s functions work together, to go from parts inventory through shipped product?
A. business model canvas
B. porters value chain
C. critical success factor
D. organization chart
810-403 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which option is the leading reason that technology projects fail, according to research?
A. too many stakeholders
B. lack of a business model canvas
C. poor stakeholder management
D. lack of budget
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Which three options are financial challenges in business outcome-based selling? (Choose three.)
A. Competing stakeholder goals and expectations.
B. Difficulty to determine external value.
C. Financial resources are distributed across functional areas.
D. Competitive analysis is often incomplete.
E. IT adoption and implementation may have long business cycles.
810-403 dumps Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 12
Which question provides the best information to use to define customer success factors?
A. What services do you need?
B. Which Cisco products best fit your goals?
C. What tools are you looking for, to better measure your ROI?
D. What are your business objectives for this project/initiative?
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION13 A technician deployed a Communication Server 1000E with dual homing feature configured. Both the T and 2T ports are connected on the media Gateway Controller (MGC) one connection is active to avoid network loops.
Which two statements are true, if the connection to the active port on the MGC is host? (Choose two)
A. The MGC will issue a link down error.
B. The MGC will switch to the active pert.
C. The MGC and CPPM will have no loss of service.
D. The MGC will switch to the active port after 12 seconds.
810-403 pdf Answer: B,C
QUESTION 14 A customer has deployed a Communication Server 100 Rls. 7x system at their site. The technician has been asked to add the Call pickup feature to the 100 IP telephone in the sales department. The customer wants to be sure active calls not lost when the changes are made. Which Phones Configuration feature can be enabled that will ensure changes to the telephone are not transmitted to the call server until the telephone are busy.?
A. Bulk change
B. Courtesy change
C. Group change
D. Template change
Answer: B
QUESTION 15 A customer wants to build a new Ip node on their Communication Server (CS) 1000E system with three Signaling Servers. This node will support virtual trunks, IP media services, TPS and personnel directories. A technician logs into Elements manager to complete the configuration, after creating and saving the node configuration, the transfer now option chosen, then the servers are selected, the start sync is selected followed by restart application.
What is expected outcome from the system?
A. The node file will be transferred from Signaling Servers to the call servers, and INI files will be transferred from the call server to the selected servers.
B. The node file will be transferred from Call Servers to the Signaling servers, and the INI files will be transferred from the Call Servers to the selected servers.
C. The node file will be transferred from Signaling Servers to the Call Server, and the INI files will be transferred from Call Servers to the Signaling servers.
D. The node will be transferred from Element manager to the call server, and INI files will be transferred from Element manager to CallServer.
810-403 vce Answer: B
QUESTION 16 A customer wants to deploy an Avaya Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 7x system in Avaya Aura solution. They plan to have the system support 50,000 users. Which system type will meet the customer ¯ s needs?
A. CS 1000E Co-Resident Call Server and Signaling Server
B. CS 1000E Standard Availability (SA)
C. CS 1000E High Availability (HA)
D. CS 1000E High Scalability (HS)
Answer: D
QUESTION 17 You are installing a new Communication Server 1000E (CS 1000E) SA release 7x system for your customer. They have asked you to implement the corporate Directory Feature during the installation.
A. SFTP must be disabled in LD 117.
B. Valid telephony accounts must already exist in Subscriber Manager.
C. The CS 1000E Call Server must be joined to security domain.
D. Centralized authentication must be disabled.
810-403 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 18 A customer with a Communication Server (CS) 1000E at Rls. 5.5 with two IPMG is upgrading the system to CS 1000E SA release 7 x. The second media gateway includes a media Gateway Controller card with one high density DSP daughter board. How many voice channels does this configuration provide?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 96
D. 128
Answer: D
QUESTION 19 Refer to the exhibit.
A Communication Server 1000E Rls. 7 x customer is adding a new Human Resources department with eight IP telephone users. The customer has asked for the telephones to be programmed with consecutive Directory numbers (DNs) from their DID range (2000-2099). Which numbers sequence is available to meet the customers requirements?
A. 2001-2008
B. 2010-2017
C. 2050-5057
D. 5091-2098
810-403 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 20 A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 7 x system with a System Manager as the primary Security Server that has been designated as a Deployment Server. The application file (.nai) has been uploaded to the deployment manager library. The customer has added an element to the security domain and wants to deploy software applications to the element.With respect to deployment services, which statement is false?
A. Deployment Manager has logicto prevent applications beingdeployed on unsupported hardware platform.
B. MAS application has its own separate .nai file.
C. IM & Presence application has its own separate .nai file.
D. MAS can be deployed on the same server as Session Manager.
Answer: D
QUESTION 21 A technician is installing the Linux Base Operating System software on the CPDC server for the Avaya Aura system and steps away while the software is loading. When the technician returns, he verifies that the Linux base installation is complete and successfully installed. What status can the technician verify to ensure the installation is successful?
A. There is no visible indication available.
B. The Linux server reboots and the FQDN login prompt appears.
C. The status of Linux Hardening items is displayed and the system reboots. D.
The Linux server reboots and the Linux Status Completion screen appears.
810-403 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 22 A technician on a Communication Server 1000E SA Rls. 7x cannot get a second media Gateway to register with the Call Server. The call server and Media Gateway 1 sit in the same 19 inch rack while Media Gateway 2 is in another building and connected via the computer IP network Media Gateway 2 can ping the Call Server but cannot register. The network is suspected of having a firewall or port blocking issue. Which diagnostic tool will help to isolate and identify a firewall or port blocking issue between the call server and Media Gateway 2?
A. Gryphon Tool
B. Packet Capture Tool
C. Linux PPP Tool
D. Linux Modem Configuration Tool
Answer: B

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