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QUESTION 1
Which of the following professionals plays the role of a monitor and takes part in the organization’s configuration management process?
A. Senior Agency Information Security Officer
B. Authorizing Official
C. Common Control Provider
D. Chief Information Officer
70-532 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
The Chief Information Officer (CIO), or Information Technology (IT) director, is a job title commonly given to the most senior executive in an enterprise. What are the responsibilities of a Chief Information Officer? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Preserving high-level communications and working group relationships in an organization
B. Facilitating the sharing of security risk-related information among authorizing officials
C. Establishing effective continuous monitoring program for the organization
D. Proposing the information technology needed by an enterprise to achieve its goals and then working
within a budget to implement the plan
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 3
The Information System Security Officer (ISSO) and Information System Security Engineer (ISSE) play the role of a supporter and advisor, respectively. Which of the following statements are true about ISSO and ISSE? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. An ISSE provides advice on the impacts of system changes.
B. An ISSE manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation (C&A).
C. An ISSO manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation (C&A).
D. An ISSO takes part in the development activities that are required to implement system changes.
E. An ISSE provides advice on the continuous monitoring of the information system.
70-532 dumps Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 4
Which of the following professionals is responsible for starting the Certification & Accreditation (C&A) process?
A. Information system owner
B. Authorizing Official
C. Chief Risk Officer (CRO)
D. Chief Information Officer (CIO)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Which of the following assessment methodologies defines a six-step technical security evaluation?
A. FITSAF
B. FIPS 102
C. OCTAVE
D. DITSCAP
70-532 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
DIACAP applies to the acquisition, operation, and sustainment of any DoD system that collects, stores, transmits, or processes unclassified or classified information since December 1997. What phases are identified by DIACAP? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Accreditation
B. Identification
C. System Definition
D. Verification
E. Validation
F. Re-Accreditation
Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 7
Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. He wants users to access only those resources that are required for them. Which of the following access control models will he use?
A. Mandatory Access Control
B. Role-Based Access Control
C. Discretionary Access Control
D. Policy Access Control
70-532 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which of the following refers to an information security document that is used in the United States Department of Defense (DoD) to describe and accredit networks and systems?
A. FITSAF
B. FIPS
C. TCSEC
D. SSAA
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
James work as an IT systems personnel in SoftTech Inc. He performs the following tasks: Runs regular backups and routine tests of the validity of the backup data. Performs data restoration from the backups whenever required. Maintains the retained records in accordance with the established information classification policy. What is the role played by James in the organization?
A. Manager
B. Owner
C. Custodian
D. User
70-532 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
You are creating a set of load-balanced virtual machines (VMs) that are hosted on Azure. You run the following Windows PowerShell script. Line numbers are included for reference only.
70-532 dumps
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
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QUESTION 11
You are developing a messaging solution for a financial services company named Adatum. The solution must integrate an application named Enrollment and an application named Activation. The Enrollment application is used to enroll new customers. The Activation application is used to activate accounts for new customers. You need to ensure that each message that the Enrollment application sends is stored in a queue for ten minutes before the Activation application uses the message. How should you complete the relevant code? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 12
You have a cloud service that runs an external process that is named MyStartupTask.cmd. The cloud service runs this external process when the web role starts. The external process writes information to the Windows registry. You set the value of an environment variable named MyID to the deployment ID for the current web role instance. The external process must complete writing the information to the Windows registry before the web role starts to accept web traffic. You need to configure the cloud service. How should you complete the relevant markup? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 13
You deploy a new version of a cloud-service application to a staging slot. The application consists of one web role. You prepare to swap the new version of the application into the production slot. Your Azure account has access to multiple Azure subscriptions. You load the Azure PowerShell cmdlets into the Windows PowerShell command shell. The command shell is NOT configured for certificate-based authentication. You must use the Windows PowerShell command window to configure the application. You need to create five instances of the web role. How should you configure the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the answer area.
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[2017 New Citrix Version] Prepare for Best Citrix 1Y0-250 Dumps Study Guide Youtube With Accurate Answers (From Google Drive)

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Exam Code: 1Y0-250
Exam Name: Implementing Citrix NetScaler 10 for App and Desktop Solutions
Updated: Sep 12, 2017
Q&As: 65

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QUESTION NO: 1
A company uses various pre-approved user devices in the environment, including mobile devices
running iOS and Android operating systems.
Which two types of policies could an administrator use on the NetScaler Gateway virtual server to
allow access to these mobile devices? (Choose two.)
A. Rewrite policies, including endpoint analysis scans
B. Session policies, excluding the endpoint analysis scans
C. Authorization policies, including the endpoint analysis scans
D. Pre-authentication policies, excluding the endpoint analysis scans
1Y0-250 exam Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 2
An administrator plans to configure a NetScaler Gateway virtual server to be able to provide
SmartAccess, endpoint analysis and network layer tunneling features.
Which client option should the administrator use for this scenario?
A. Offline plug-in
B. Online plug-in
C. Citrix Receiver
D. Access Gateway plug-in
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 3
An administrator is planning a NetScaler Gateway implementation and must ensure that users are
only allowed to access the company resources 1Y0-250 dumps if a specific file is present on the endpoint device
they connect from.
Which component should the administrator include within the plan?
A. An SSL Offload virtual server
B. A double-hop NetScaler Gateway virtual server
C. A Basic mode NetScaler Gateway virtual server
D. A SmartAccess mode NetScaler Gateway virtual server
 Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 4
Which information is required to license a NetScaler VPX 1000?
A. NSIP
B. MAC address
C. NetScaler host name
D. Citrix License Server host name
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 5
An administrator created a service for a Web Interface server that is encrypted by an SSL
certificate.
Which command should the administrator run at the command-line interface to create a monitor
that will check the Web Interface by logging on to it with a test user’s credentials?
A. add lb monitor mon-WebInterface CITRIX-WI-EXTENDED -sitePath “/Citrix/XenApp” –
userName user -domain DomainName -password P@ssw0rd -encrypted
B. add lb monitor mon-WebInterface CITRIX-WI-EXTENDED -sitePath “/Citrix/XenApp” –
userName user -domain DomainName -password P@ssw0rd -secure YES
C. add lb monitor mon-WebInterface CITRIX-WI-EXTENDED -sitePath “/Citrix/XenApp” –
userName user -domain DomainName -password P@ssw0rd -destPort 443
D. add lb monitor mon-WebInterface CITRIX-WI-EXTENDED -sitePath “/Citrix/XenApp” –
userName user -domain DomainName -password P@ssw0rd -encrypted -secure YES
1y0-250 study guide Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 6
Scenario: An administrator configured a NetScaler Gateway session policy named spol_ICAP. The
administrator needs to bind the policy to ensure that it is evaluated only when users of the ICAP
security group log on to the NetScaler Gateway virtual server named vsrv_AGEE.
Which command should the administrator run at the command-line interface to meet the needs of
the scenario?
A. bind vpn vserver vsrv_AGEE ICAP
B. bind aaa group ICAP -policy spol_ICAP
C. bind aaa group ICAP -policy spol_ICAP -global OFF
D. bind vpn vserver vsrv_AGEE -policy spol_ICAP -priority 1
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 7
An administrator plans to use only Citrix Receiver for XenDesktop remote access through a
NetScaler Gateway device.
Which type of policy should the administrator configure to meet this requirement?
A. Session
B. Authentication
C. Clientless access
D. Pre-authentication
1y0-250 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 8
Which configuration option should an administrator select to pass users’ credentials to a file share
in a NetScaler Gateway environment?
A. Local LAN-Access
B. Single sign-on to a domain
C. Single sign-on with Windows
D. Single sign-on to Web applications
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 9
Scenario: An administrator has an existing SSL certificate that is installed and used on a Microsoft
Windows IIS server. The administrator exported the certificate, including the private key, to a PFX
file and now wants to use that certificate for SSL Offloading on NetScaler.
Which two methods could the administrator use to import the certificate on NetScaler? (Choose
two.)
A. Import PKCS#12.
B. Change advanced SSL settings.
C. Use the Server Certificate Wizard.
D. Convert the certificate to PEM format.
1y0-250 vce Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 10
An administrator needs to install a certificate from the NetScaler onto a Microsoft Windows IIS
server.
Which action should the administrator complete before the certificate can be imported on the IIS
server?
A. Select Export PKCS#12 and copy the file to Windows.
B. Copy the certificate file from /nsconfig/ssl to Windows.
C. Copy the certificate file and the key file from /nsconfig/ssl to Windows.
D. Manage Certificates / Keys / CSRs and download the certificate file to Windows.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 11
Scenario: For auditing requirements, NetScaler administrators are required to use their Active
Directory accounts to log on to NetScaler. All NetScaler administrators belong to the NSAdmins
Active Directory group.
Which configuration must an administrator create in NetScaler to meet the requirements of the
scenario?
A. User accounts
B. NSAdmins group
C. Authorization policy
D. Service Groups policy
1y0-250 study guide Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 12
Scenario: An administrator is implementing a two-factor authentication solution with an RSA
SecureID product. The administrator already has the server name and port number of the RSA
server.
Which additional information does the administrator need to configure RSA SecureID?
A. LDAP password
B. Firewall access rule
C. Authentication policy
D. RADIUS shared secret
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 13
Scenario: An administrator is creating a NetScaler Gateway virtual server for mobile devices only.
The administrator must include two-factor authentication.
Which two steps must the administrator take to configure two-factor authentication for this
environment? (Choose two.)
A. Bind the RSA policy first.
B. Bind the LDAP policy first.
C. Create an authentication policy.
D. Create a pre-authentication policy.
1y0-250 dumps Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 14
Scenario: An administrator implemented RADIUS with NetScaler Gateway as a two-factor
authentication solution for a XenDesktop implementation. A planned outage is scheduled in wake
of a software upgrade on the RADIUS infrastructure. During the outage, the administrator needs to
disable the two-factor authentication on NetScaler Gateway to enable users’ continued access to
published applications.
Which action could the administrator take to meet the needs of the scenario without affecting the
connected users?
A. Delete the RADIUS authentication policy.
B. Set the RADIUS policy to be secondary authentication.
C. Disable authentication on the NetScaler Gateway virtual server.
D. Unbind the RADIUS authentication policy from the NetScaler Gateway virtual server.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 15
In which format should an administrator save the AppExpert Template files in order to import and
upload to the NetScaler?
A. XML
B. ASP
C. CSV
D. HTML
1Y0-250 vce Answer: A

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Exam Name: Deploying Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solutions
Q&As: 112

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QUESTION NO: 72
Which of the following defenses is legitimate for a U.S. firm operating in other countries for violating Title VII of the Civil Rights Act?
A. Treaty rights
B. Compulsory by foreign law
C. Is a non-extraterritorial law
D. Sovereignty immunity
1Y0-301 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 73
Which of the following is an intangible benefit of an international assignment?
A. Faster cross-border project completion times
B. Development of technical skills by local workers
C. Increased alignment of host country goals with overall company goals and objectives
D. Increased process efficiency
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 74
The success of an internal business process is evaluated by the extent to which that process meets the objectives of its function. Which of the following best describes this measurement of success?A. Management by objective
B. Effectiveness
C. Balanced screcard
D. Efficiency
1Y0-301 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 75
You are in the process of evaluating the current global compensation structure, which is based on headquarters biases. One of the remote offices has a very unique culture, Because their culture is diffuse often combining family, life, and work together, is universalistic, and focuses on the collective group. On the other hand, the other locations, including headquarters, have a culture that is particularistic, individualistic, and specifically divides work and family. Which of the following aaspects of the current structure might be affecting the unique location by the lack of adaptation to local pressurea?
A. Defined goals are clear, relevant, and ensure line of sight
B. Company has adopted an aggressive sales commission plan for each salesperson
C. Company has adopted a gainsharing plan
D. Every employment offer is deltailed in writing
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 76
A company is a four-year old start-up running on venture capital investment. Its initial assumption of a $2 billion market for its product has ahrunk to a $50 million market. Which of the following stategies is NOT a stategy that would be deliberated during the strategy development phase of the strategic planning process?
A. Plan to expand the capability of the R&D team to add value addea skill and knowledge to the company
B. Decide to move into a new market place
C. Evaluate potential merger and acquisition candidates to expand product mix and create a healtheir income stream
D. Reduce the number of different versions of the product into three main product lines
1Y0-301 pdf Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 77
Which of the following stages of the International Assignment Process model is the most critical in determining the success of an international assignment?
A. Pre-departure preparation
B. Assessment and selection
C. On assignment
D. Completing the assignment
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 78
You are responsible for hiring an entry-level engineer position in Bangalore, India. Which of the following recruitment sources is the least likely to be used?
A. Contingency-basis employment agencies
B. Recruiting at colleges? vocational schools
C. Employee referral program
D. Post jobs online on corporate website
1Y0-301 vce Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 79
Which of the following takes into account the effects of inflation when analyzing data from a pulished survey?
A. Aging
B. Measuring central tendency
C. Utilizing frequency distributions
D. Leveling
Answer: A
Explanation:QUESTION NO: 80
Which of the following is NOT a variable that differs between replacement planning and succession planning?
A. Identified skill requirements
B. Tools utilized
C. Information flow
D. Outlook into future (in terms of time)
1Y0-301 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 81
Which of the following is the mostimportant step when outsourcing the sert up of a new HRIS (human resource information system)?
A. Select the best HRIS system with extensive capabilities
B. Prepare a detailed request for proposal (RFP)defininf desired specifications
C. Analyze the organization’s needs for building a HRIS system
D. Develop a complaint procedure for all work disputes
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 82
Which of the following decribes an employee’s motivational potential, according to the job characteristics mode?
A. Ability to implement, responses, feedback
B. Motivation factors and incentives
C. Skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomu, feedback
D. job analysis, task significance
1Y0-301 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 83
A company decides to pursue an international assogment program to fill a new position in is newoffice in Beijing, China. With the assistance of the human professional, the management team has finalized a list of job-specific selection crieria of the ideal candidate for the role. During the interviewing process, the key selection tool utilized was role-playing. Role-playing was done entirely in Mandarin bases around common business and family situations an expatriate may face. In addition , role-playing was utilized to show how the candidate had successfully protrayedidentified success factors in past behavior. Which of the following selection methods was NOT utilized in this scenario?
A. Work sample
B. Situational assessments
C. Self-assessment
D. Interview
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 84
Which of the following leadership theories believes that leadership styles should correspond to the
maturity of the employees?
A. Contingency theories
B. Situational theories
C. Behavioral theories
D. Trait theories
1Y0-301 pdf Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 85
A .U. S. based Engineering Manager was sent to England for a short-term six-month assignment
to recruit and build a team. He is almost dome with the assignmrnt and describes the entire
opportunity as being exciting and challenging. He wants to stay in Europe further and hopes to go
on future international assignments. According to Black and Mendenhall, which of the following
stages of the cross-cultural adjustment cycle is the manager in?
A. Culture shock
B. Mastery
C. Adjustment
D. HoneymoonAnswer: D
Explanation:

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Q&As: 85

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QUESTION NO: 66
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main(){
int i, j;
for(i = 0, j = 1; j < 2, i < 4; i++, j++);
cout << i << ” ” << j;
return 0;
}
A. It prints: 4 5
B. It prints: 2 3
C. It prints: 3 2
D. It prints: 4 3
200-155 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 67
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <cstdarg>
using namespace std;
int mult(int f, int s, int t);
int main()
{
cout << mult(1,2,3);
return 0;
}
int mult(int f, int s, int t)
{
int mult_res;
mult_res = f*s*t;
return mult_res;
}
A. It prints: 0
B. It prints: 6
C. It prints: 2
D. It prints: 3
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 68
Which code, inserted at line 5, generates the output “ABC”?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
class A {
public:
//insert code here
};
class B:public A {
public:
void Print(){ cout<< “B”; }
};
class C:public B {
public:
void Print(){ cout<< “C”; }
};
C++ Institute CPA Exam
int main()
{
A ob1;
B ob2;
C ob3;
A *obj;
obj = &ob1;
obj?>Print();
obj = &ob2;
obj?>Print();
obj = &ob3;
obj?>Print();
}
A. void Print(){ cout<<“A”;}
B. virtual void Print(){ cout<<“A”;}
C. virtual void Print(string s){ cout<<s;}
D. None of these
200-155 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 69
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
class BaseClass
{
public:
int *ptr;
BaseClass(int i) { ptr = new int(i); }
~BaseClass() { delete ptr; delete ptr;}
void Print() { cout << *ptr; }
};
void fun(BaseClass x);
int main()
{
BaseClass o(10);
fun(o);
o.Print();
}
void fun(BaseClass x) {
cout << “Hello:”;
}
A. It prints: Hello:1
B. It prints: Hello:
C. It prints: 10
D. Runtime error.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 70
What will happen when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int getValue();
int main()
{
const int x = getValue();
cout<<x;
return 0;
}
int getValue()
{
return 5;
}
A. It will print 0
B. The code will not compile.
C. It will print 5
D. It will print garbage value
200-155 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 71
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <string>
using namespace std;
class A {
public:
A() { cout << “A0 “;}
A(string s) { cout << “A1”;}
};
class B : public A {
public:
B() { cout << “B0 “;}
B(string s) { cout << “B1 “;}
};
class C : private B {
public:
C() { cout << “C0 “;}
C(string s) { cout << “C1 “;}
};
int main () {
B b1;
C c1;
return 0;
}
A. It prints: A0 B0 A0 B1 A0 C0 A0 C1
B. It prints: B0 B1 C0 C1
C. It prints: A0 B0 A0 B0 C0
D. It prints: B0 B1
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 72
What is the output of the program?
#include <iostream>
#include <string>
using namespace std;
struct Person {
int age;
};
class First
{
Person *person;
public:
First() {person = new Person;
person?>age = 20;
}
void Print(){
cout << person?>age;
}
};
int main()
{
First t[2];
for (int i=0; i<2; i++)
t[i].Print();
}
A. It prints: 10
B. It prints: 2020
C. It prints: 22
D. It prints: 00
200-155 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 73
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <cstdlib>
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
inline float sum(float a,float b)
{
return a+b;
}
int main()
{
float a,b;
a = 1.5; b = 3.4;
cout<<sum(a,b);
return 0;
}
A. It prints: 0
B. It prints: 4.9
C. It prints: 5
D. It prints: 4
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 74
What is the output of the program?
#include <iostream>
#include <string>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
string s1=”Hello”;
string s2=”World”;
s1+=s2;
cout << s1;
return( 0 );
}
A. It prints: HelloWorld
B. It prints: Hello
C. It prints: World
D. It prints: HelWorld
200-155 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 75
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
#define DEF_A 0
#define DEF_B DEF_A+1
#define DEF_C DEF_B+1
int main(int argc, char *argv[]) {
cout << DEF_C;
return 0;
}
A. It prints: 2
B. It prints: 10
C. It prints: 0
D. It prints: 1
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 76
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
void set(struct person*);
struct person
{
int age;
};
int main()
{
struct person e = {18};
set(&e);
cout<< e.age;
return 0;
}
void set(struct person *p)
{
p?>age = p?>age + 1;
}
A. It prints: 18
B. It prints: 19
C. It prints: 20
D. It prints: 0
200-155 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 77
Point out an error in the program.
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
const int x=1;
int const *y=&x;
cout<<*y;
return 0;
}
A. No error
B. Error: unknown pointer conversion
C. cannot convert from ‘const int *’ to ‘int *const’
D. Compilation error
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 78
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
int i=2;
switch(i)
{
case 1:
cout<<“Hello”;
case 2:
cout<<“world”;
case 3:
cout<<“End”;
} return 0;
}
A. It prints: Hello
B. It prints: world
C. It prints: worldEnd
D. It prints: End
200-155 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 79
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
class complex{
double re;
double im;
public:
complex() : re(0),im(0) {}
complex(double x) { re=x,im=x;};
complex(double x,double y) { re=x,im=y;}
void print() { cout << re << ” ” << im;}
};
int main(){
complex c1;
double i=2;
c1 = i;
c1.print();
return 0;
}
A. It prints: 0 0
B. It prints: 1 1
C. It prints: 2 0
D. It prints: 2 2
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 80
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <string>
using namespace std;
int f(int i, int b);
int main()
{
int i=0;
i++;
for (i=0; i<=2; i++)
{
cout<<f(0,i);
}
return 0;
}
int f(int a, int b)
{
return a+b;
}
A. It prints: 202020
B. It prints: 012
C. It prints: 0
D. It prints: 2
200-155 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 81
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
class Test {
float i,j;
};
class Add {
public:
int x,y;
Add (int a=3, int b=3) { x=a; y=b; }
int result() { return x+y;}
};
int main () {
Test test;
Add * padd;
padd = &test;
cout << padd?>result();
return 0;
}
A. It prints: 6
B. It prints: 9
C. Compilation error
D. It prints: 33
Answer: C

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Exam Code: A00-211
Exam Name: SAS Base Programming for SAS 9
Q&As: 218

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QUESTION 1
The value 110700 is stored in a numeric variable named SALARY.
Which FORMAT statement displays the value as $110,700.00 in a report?
A. format salary comma11.2;
B. format salary dollar8.2;
C. format salary dollar11.2;
D. format salary comma8.2 dollar8.2;
A00-211 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
The following SAS program is submitted:
data work.new;
length word $7;
amount = 4;
it amount = 4 then word = `FOUR’;
else if amount = 7
then word = `SEVEN’;
else word = `NONE!!!’;
amount = 7;
run;
What are the values of the AMOUNT and WORD variables in SAS dataset work.new?
A. amount word
4 FOUR
B. amount word
4 NONE!!!
C. amount word
7 FOUR
D. amount word
7 SEVEN
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
The following SAS program is submitted:
data test;
infile `file specification’;
input name $ amount@@;
run;
Which of the following is true?
A. Two @@ together are the same as one c.
B. Two @@ hold the data records until the bottom of the DATA step.
C. Two @@ hold the raw data record across iterations of the DATA step.
D. Two @@ are invalid syntax and will cause the program to fail to execute.
A00-211 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Given the SAS data set PEPM.STUDENTS:
PERM.STUDENTS NAME AGE
——— —— Alfred 14
Alice13
Barbara13
Carol14
The following SAS program is submitted:
libname perm `SAS data library’;
data students;
set perm.students;
file `file specification’;
put name $15. @5 age 2.;
run;
What is written to the output raw data file?
A. —-I—-10—I—-20—I—-30
Alfred 14
Alice 13
Barbara 13
Carol 14
B. —-I—-10—I—-20—I—-30
Alfr14
Alic13
Barb13a
Carol 4
C. —-I—-10—I—-20—I—-30
Alfr14ed
Alic130
Barb13ara
Caro141
D. —-I—-10—I—-20—I—-30
Alfred14
Alice13
Barbara13
Carol14
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which statement specifies that records 1 through 10 are to be read from the raw data file customer.txt?
A. infile ‘customer.txt’ 1-10;
B. input ‘customer.txt’ stop@10;
C. infile ‘customer.txt’ obs=10;
D. input ‘customer.txt’ stop=10;
A00-211 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which statement describes a characteristic of the SAS automatic variable _ERROR_?
A. The _ERROR_ variable maintains a count of the number of data errors in a DATA step.
B. The _ERROR_ variable is added to the program data vector and becomes part of the data set being
created.
C. The _ERROR_ variable can be used in expressions in the DATA step.
D. The _ERROR_ variable contains the number of the observation that caused the data error.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
The following SAS program is submitted:
A00-211 dumps

What types of variables are DayOfMonth, MonthOfYear, and Year?
A. DayOfMonth, Year, and MonthOfYear are character.
B. DayOfMonth, Year, and MonthOfYear are numeric.
C. DayOfMonth and Year are numeric. MonthOfYear is character.
D. DayOfMonth, Year, and MonthOfYear are date values.
A00-211 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
The following output is created by the FREQUENCY procedure:
A00-211 dumps

Which TABLES option(s) would be used to eliminate the row and column counts and just see the
frequencies and percents?
A. norowcount nocolcount
B. freq percent
C. norow nocol
D. nocounts
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
The following SAS program is submitted:
data WORK.AUTHORS;
array Favorites{3} $ 8 (‘Shakespeare’,’Hemingway’,’McCaffrey’);
run;
What is the value of the second variable in the dataset WORK.AUTHORS?
A. Hemingway
B. Hemingwa
C. ‘ ‘ (a missing value)
D. The program contains errors. No variables are created.
A00-211 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
The data set WORK.REALESTATE has the variable LocalFee with a format of 9. and a variable
CountryFee with a format of 7.;
The following SAS program is submitted:
A00-211 dumps

What are the formats of the variables LOCALFEE and COUNTRYFEE in the output dataset?
A. LocalFee has format of 9. and CountryFee has a format of 7.
B. LocalFee has format of 9. and CountryFee has a format of percent7.2
C. Both LocalFee and CountryFee have a format of percent7.2
D. The data step fails execution; there is no format for LocalFee.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Consider the following data step:
A00-211 dumps

The computed variables City and State have their values assigned using two different methods, a
RETAIN statement and an Assignment statement. Which statement regarding this program is true?
A. The RETAIN statement is fine, but the value of City will be truncated to 8 bytes as the LENGTH
statement has been omitted.
B. Both the RETAIN and assignment statement are being used to initialize new variables and are equally
efficient. Method used is a matter of programmer preference.
C. The assignment statement is fine, but the value of City will be truncated to 8 bytes as the LENGTH
statement has been omitted.
D. City’s value will be assigned one time, State’s value 5 times.
A00-211 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
The following SAS program is submitted:
data work.new;
length word $7;
amount = 7;
if amount = 5 then word = ‘CAT’;
else if amount = 7 then word = ‘DOG’;
else word = ‘NONE!!!’;
amount = 5;
run;
Which one of the following represents the values of the AMOUNT and WORD variables?
A. amount word
5 DOG
B. amount word
5 CAT
C. amount word
7 DOG
D. amount word
7 ‘ ‘ (missing character value)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
The following SAS program is submitted:
data work.pieces;
do while (n lt 6);
n + 1;
end;
run;
Which one of the following is the value of the variable N in the output data set?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
A00-211 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
The following SAS program is submitted:
data work.test;
Title = ‘A Tale of Two Cities, Charles J. Dickens’;
Word = scan(title,3,’ ,’);
run;
Which one of the following is the value of the variable WORD in the output data set?
A. T
B. of
C. Dickens
D. ‘ ‘ (missing character value)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
The following SAS program is submitted:
data work.test;
First = ‘Ipswich, England’;
City_Country = substr(First,1,7)!!’, ‘!!’England’;
run;
Which one of the following is the length of the variable CITY_COUNTRY in the output data set?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 17
D. 25
A00-211 vce Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION 34
What are the three layers of a hierarchical network design? (Choose three.)
A. access
B. core
C. distribution
D. user
E. server
F. Internet
210-260 exam Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 35
What is the best way to confirm that AAA authentication is working properly?
A. Use the test aaa command.
B. Ping the NAS to confirm connectivity.
C. Use the Cisco-recommended configuration for AAA authentication.
D. Log into and out of the router, and then check the NAS authentication log.
Correct Answer: A
 QUESTION 36
What VPN feature allows Internet traffic and local LAN/WAN traffic to use the same network connection?
A. split tunneling
B. hairpinning
C. tunnel mode
D. transparent mode
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
With which NTP server has the router synchronized?
A. 192.168.10.7
B. 108.61.73.243
C. 209.114.111.1
D. 132.163.4.103
E. 204.2.134.164
F. 241.199.164.101
Correct Answer: A
Question: 38
The following SAS program is submitted:
%macro execute;
<insert statement here>
proc print data = sasuser.houses;
run;
%end;
%mend;
Which of the following completes the above program so that it executes on Tuesday?
A. %if &sysday = Tuesday %then %do;
B. %if &sysday = ‘Tuesday’ %then %do;
C. %if “&sysday” = Tuesday %then %do;
D. %if ‘&sysday’ = ‘Tuesday’ %then %do;
210-260 pdf Answer: A
Question: 39
Which one of the following statements is true regarding a SAS DATA step view?
A. It allows write capabilities.
B. It contains global statements.
C. It contains data and a descriptor portion.
D. It contains a partially compiled DATA step.
Answer: D
Question: 40
Given the following SAS data sets ONE and TWO:
ONE TWO
OBS COMMON X OBS COMMON Y
————————— —————————–
1 A 10 1 A 1
2 A 13 2 A 3
3 A 14 3 B 4
4 B 9 4 B 2
5 C 8 5 C 5
6 C 14
The following SAS DATA step is submitted:
data combine;
merge one two;
by common;
run;
Which one of the following represents the data values stored in data set COMBINE?
A. OBS COMMON X Y
——————————–
1 A 10 1
2 A 13 3
3 A 14 3
4 B 9 4
5 B 9 2
6 C 8 5
7 C 14 5
B. OBS COMMON X Y
———————————
1 A 10 1
2 A 13 3
3 B 9 4
4 C 8 5
C. OBS COMMON X Y
——————————-
1 A 10 1
2 A 13 3
3 B 14 4
4 B 9 2
5 C 8 5
D. OBS COMMON X Y
———————————-
1 A 10 1
2 A 13 1
3 A 14 1
4 A 10 3
5 A 13 3
6 A 14 3
7 B 9 4
8 B 9 2
9 C 8 5
10 C 14 5
210-260 vce Answer: A
Question: 41
Assume today is Tuesday, July 23, 2002. Which one of the following statements submitted at the
beginning of a SAS session assigns the value Tuesday, July 23, 2002 to the macro variable
START?
A. %let start = today(),weekdate.;
B. %let start = today(),format=weekdate.;
C. %let start = %sysfunc(today(),weekdate.);
D. %let start = %sysfunc(%today(),weekdate.);
Answer: C
Question: 42
The following SAS program is submitted:
%macro test(var);
%let jobs = BLACKSMITH WORDSMITH SWORDSMITH;
%let type = %index(&jobs,&var);
%mend;
%test(SMITH)
Which one of the following is the resulting value of the macro variable TYPE?
A. 0
B. 3
C. 6
D. null
210-260 exam Answer: C
Question: 43
Which one of the following SAS integrity constraint types ensures that a specific set or range of
values are the only values in a variable?
A. CHECK
B. UNIQUE
C. FORMAT
D. DISTINCT
Answer: A
Question: 44
Which one of the following options displays the value of a macro variable in the SAS log?
A. MACRO
B. SOURCE
C. SOURCE2
D. SYMBOLGEN
210-260 dumps Answer: D
Question: 45
The following SAS ARRAY statement is submitted:
array score{*} a4 – a10, a25 ;
Which one of the following is the maximum number of elements stored?
A. 3
B. 7
C. 8
D. 11
Answer: C
Question: 46
When is it appropriate to create indexes on a SAS data set for efficient processing?
A. if small subsets of data are often retrieved
B. if the key variable has very few unique values
C. if the data are often used for BY group processing
D. if the SAS data set file page count is less than three pages
210-260 pdf Answer: A
Question: 47
The following SAS program is submitted:
options yearcutoff = 1950;
%macro y2kopt(date);
%if &date >= 14610 %then %do;
options yearcutoff = 2000;
%end;
%else %do;
options yearcutoff = 1900;
%end;
%mend;
data _null_ ;
date = “01jan2000″d;
call symput(“date”,left(date));
run;
%y2kopt(&date)
The SAS date for January 1, 2000 is 14610 and the SAS system option for YEARCUTOFF is set
to 1920 prior to submitting the above program. Which one of the following is the value of
YEARCUTOFF when the macro finishes execution?
A. 1900
B. 1920
C. 1950
D. 2000
Answer: D
Question: 48
Which one of the following is the purpose of the REUSE= YES option in a compressed SAS data
set?
A. It temporarily compresses observations in a SAS data set.
B. It allows users to update the same SAS data set concurrently.
C. It allows new observations to be inserted wherever enough free space exists.
D. It specifies that a new empty data set with a given name replaces an existing data set with
the same name.
210-260 vce Answer: C
Question: 49
Given the following SAS data set ONE:
ONE
LEVEL AGE
——————–
1 10
2 20
3 20
2 10
1 10
2 30
3 10
2 20
3 30
1 10
The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sql;
select level, max(age) as MAX
from one group by level
having max(age) > (select avg(age) from one);
quit;
Which one of the following reports is generated?
A. LEVEL AGE
—————–
2 20
3 20
B. LEVEL AGE
——————-
2 30
3 30
C. LEVEL MAX
——————
2 20
3 30
D. LEVEL MAX
———————
2 30
3 30
Answer: D
Question: 50
Which one of the following is true regarding the KEEP statement?
A. The KEEP statement is available in both the DATA and the PROC steps.
B. The KEEP statement selects the variables read from the input data set(s).
C. The KEEP statement applies to all data sets created within the same DATA step.
D. The KEEP statement applies only to the first data set created within the same DATA step if
more than one data set is created.
210-260 exam Answer: C

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QUESTION: 1
Which two statements are true about Activity step pages? (Choose Two)
A. The step page always corresponds to the class named in the Applies To key part of
the Activity
B. Step pages are automatically removed when an Activity ends
C. The step page sets the default page context for the duration of the step’s execution
D. Named step pages are not required for each step of an Activity
1Z0-068 exam Answer: C, D
QUESTION: 2
Which Activity method is used to view the contents of a step page in XML format?
(Choose One)
A. Page-New
B. Show-Page
C. Property-Set
D. Step pages cannot be viewed as XML
Answer: B
QUESTION: 3
Which two are characteristics of the primary page of an Activity? (Choose Two)
A. It is a clipboard page named Primary
B. It is the default location of properties referenced with a dot and no preceding page
name
C. It is the same as the parameter page
D. It is a clipboard page of the Applies To class of the activity or one of its ancestors
1Z0-068 dumps Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 4
What is the transition in an Activity used for? (Choose One)
A. To repeat a step several times, or until a condition is met
B. To change the harness display
C. To jump to a previous step in the Activity
D. To specify conditional processing which is evaluated after the method in the step is
executed
Answer: D
QUESTION: 5
Which of the following can an activity do that a data transform cannot? (Choose One)
A. Set the value of a property on a clipboard page
B. Apply a data transform
C. Route a work item
D. Remove a clipboard page
1Z0-068 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION: 6
Which statements describe the use of methods in an activity? (Choose Two)
A. Methods are atomic operations performed in activity steps
B. Methods are the same as Java methods
C. You can create activity methods for use in your activities
D. Methods can be applied to clipboard pages
Answer: A, D
QUESTION: 7
Which of the following tools can be used to accelerate the creation of rules used to
support PRPC connectors and services? (Choose Two)
A. Application Profile Wizard
B. Connector and Metadata Accelerator
C. Application Accelerator
D. Service Accelerator
1Z0-068 vce Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 8
A PRPC component that defines and implements an interface between an external
application acting as a client and a Process Commander system acting as a server is
called a ? (Choose One)
A. Connector
B. Activity
C. Service
D. Assignment
Answer: C
QUESTION: 9
The Connector and Metadata Accelerator can simplify the creation of a connector by
to create the necessary rules. (Choose Two)
A. parsing a WSDL
B. parsing a provided Java source file
C. introspecting class metadata
D. creating an SQL query
1Z0-068 exam Answer: A, C
QUESTION: 10
Which of the following is the best method for requesting data from an SQL database?
(Choose One)
A. SQL connector
B. SQL listener
C. Service package
D. External database table class mapping
Answer: D
QUESTION: 11
Once you create a simu-lation for a connector, the simu-lation remains in effect
. (Choose One)
A. until disabled by using the Connector Simulation tool
B. until the simulation activity is deleted
C. permanently on the system; it can never be disabled
D. until the first call to the connector is completed
1Z0-068 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 12
On which flow shape would you reference a service rule? (Choose One)
A. Decision
B. Integrator
C. Assignment
D. None of the above shapes
Answer: D
QUESTION: 13
Why should a business process be run at least once before measuring it with
Performance Analyzer (PAL)? (Choose One)
A. So PAL can establish a baseline
B. So Rules Assembly occurs and does not adversely affect the outcome
C. So PAL can start up properly
D. So the developer can capture Rules Assembly times
1Z0-068 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION: 14
Which statement is true about Work Users utilizing the Clipboard tool? (Choose One)
A. They may use it to change their portal layout
B. They may use it to change their password
C. They have no access to the Clipboard tool from the standard User portal
D. They may use it to update work object properties
Answer: C
QUESTION: 15
What is the primary purpose of the My Alerts tool? (Choose One)
A. To review and resolve interactions that exceed predefined threshold settings
B. To insert JavaScript alerts into HTML property rules
C. To establish PRPC threshold settings in the prconfig.xml file
D. To create personal alerts warning the System Architect of rule conflicts
1Z0-068 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 16
Which of the following tools are most commonly used to evaluate performance during
development of a PRPC application? (Choose Three)
A. Preflight
B. PAL
C. Rules Inspector
D. My Alerts
E. Clipboard
Answer: A, B, D
QUESTION: 17
(True or False) When you optimize a property for reporting, any data saved in the
BLOB up to that point is not available for reports.
A. True
B. False
1Z0-068 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 18
An operator enters data into fields on a work item form. When does PRPC write the
data to the database? (Choose One)
A. When the user leaves each field
B. When the user submits the form, but before any validation occurs
C. When the user completes the last assignment in the process
D. When the user submits the form, and after any validation occurs
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 300-208
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Secure Access Solutions
Q&As: 269

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QUESTION 1
A network administrator needs to implement a service that enables granular control of IOS commands that can be executed. Which AAA authentication method
should be selected?
A. TACACS+
B. RADIUS
C. Windows Active Directory
D. Generic LDAP
300-208 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
An administrator can leverage which attribute to assign privileges based on Microsoft Active Directory user groups?
A. member of
B. group
C. class
D. person
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Cisco 802.1X phasing enables flexible deployments through the use of open, low-impact, and closed modes. What is a unique characteristic of the most secure mode?
A. Granular ACLs applied prior to authentication
B. Per user dACLs applied after successful authentication
C. Only EAPoL traffic allowed prior to authentication
D. Adjustable 802.1X timers to enable successful authentication
300-208 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
A network administrator must enable which protocol extension to utilize EAP-Chaining?
A. EAP-FAST
B. EAP-TLS
C. MSCHAPv2
D. PEAP
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
In the command ‘aaa authentication default group tacacs local’, how is the word ‘default’ defined?
A. Command set
B. Group name
C. Method list
D. Login type
300-208 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Changes were made to the ISE server while troubleshooting, and now all wireless certificate authentications are failing. Logs indicate an EAP failure. What is the
most likely cause of the problem?
A. EAP-TLS is not checked in the Allowed Protocols list
B. Certificate authentication profile is not configured in the Identity Store
C. MS-CHAPv2-is not checked in the Allowed Protocols list
D. Default rule denies all traffic
E. Client root certificate is not included in the Certificate Store
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
The NAC Agent uses which port and protocol to send discovery packets to an ISE Policy Service Node?
A. tcp/8905
B. udp/8905
C. http/80
D. https/443
300-208 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which two conditions are valid when configuring ISE for posturing? (Choose two.)
A. Dictionary
B. member Of
C. Profile status
D. File
E. Service
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
300-208 dumps

Which three statements about the given configuration are true? (Choose three.)
A. TACACS+ authentication configuration is complete.
B. TACACS+ authentication configuration is incomplete.
C. TACACS+ server hosts are configured correctly.
D. TACACS+ server hosts are misconfigured.
E. The TACACS+ server key is encrypted.
F. The TACACS+ server key is unencrypted.
300-208 exam Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 10
In AAA, what function does authentication perform?
A. It identifies the actions that the user can perform on the device.
B. It identifies the user who is trying to access a device.
C. It identifies the actions that a user has previously taken.
D. It identifies what the user can access.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Which identity store option allows you to modify the directory services that run on TCP/IP?
A. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol
B. RSA SecurID server
C. RADIUS
D. Active Directory
300-208 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Which term describes a software application that seeks connectivity to the network via a network access device?
A. authenticator
B. server
C. supplicant
D. WLC
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Kelly’s organization has posted a new job opening for their organization. This job opening is for a woman
to be the restroom attended, for all women’s restrooms and locker rooms, in their organization. Kelly
believes, however, that the requirement for the applicant to be a female is a violation of the Title VII of the
Civil Rights Act of 1964. Which one of the following is the best answer for this scenario?
A. The sex of applicants is excluded from the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
B. This is an example of a violation of the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
C. This is an example of an exception by bona fide occupational qualification to the Title VII of the Civil
Rights Act of 1964
D. This is not a violation of the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 because there is an equal paying
and titled job for the men’s restroom and locker rooms in the company
300-208 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 14
There is a document the federal government has created that you would like to use in your training class.
You’ll be teaching how the form is designed, its purpose, and what all parts of the form provide. The form
will be included in your overhead presentation, in the course manual, and as a handout in the classroom. Is
this legal?
A. No, the form is protected from copyright infringement.
B. No, the form can be shown in the overhead presentation, but not distributed or photocopied.
C. Yes, the form can be distributed with a fee to the federal government for access to the form.
D. Yes, work created by the federal government is in the public domain.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 15
Validity is an important part of the interview process. All HR Professionals should recognize validity
through the interview process. Which one of the following is not one of the four types of validity?
A. Predictive validity
B. Content validity
C. Professional validity
D. Construct validity
300-208 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 16
As an HR Professional you must be familiar with several different lawsuits and their affect on human
resource practices today. What legal case found that a test that has an adverse impact on a protected
class is still lawful as long as the test can be shown to be valid and job related?
A. Griggs versus Duke Power, 1971
B. McDonnell Douglas Corp. versus Green, 1973
C. Albemarle Paper versus Moody, 1975
D. Washington versus Davis, 1976
Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-734
Exam Name: OEM Preinstallation for Windows 10
Updated: Sep 05, 2017
Q&As: 46

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QUESTION 40:
A residence phone normally uses ____________ for long distance calls.
A. Credit cards
B. Outdial lines
C. Dedicated access
D. Switched access
70-734 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 41:
Call waiting, three-way calling, call return, and auto recall are:
A. Services often used with PBX outdial trunks.
B. Digital PBX features.
C. Not available from the LEC.
D. Not useful on PBX trunks.
Answer: D
QUESTION 42:
Businesses with sales people using cell phones often make use of:
A. SMDR on cell phones.
B. PBX tie lines.
C. Call transfer with disconnect.
D. Identified outward dialing.
70-734 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 43:
If a call first comes into the middle of a hunt group, and stops hunting at the last
line in the group without hunting over all lines, ____________is used.
A. Circular hunt
B. Preferential hunt
C. Sequential hunt
D. Most idle line hunt
Answer: C
QUESTION 44:
An OPX is connected by a:
A. Switched access arrangement.
B. Switched service.
C. Dedicated access arrangement.
D. Dedicated service.
70-734 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 45:
FT1 provides bandwidth in:
A. Digital switches.
B. Internet service providers.
C. Multiples of 1.544 Mbps.
D. Multiples of 64 kbps.
Answer: D
QUESTION 46:
The POP is:
A. Where the connection to the IXC is made.
B. Where the connection to the LEC is made.
C. The boundary of the IXC service area.
D. The location of the IXC switch.
70-734 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 47:
If an RBOC gains permission to provide long distance and enhanced services within
its territory, it will become:
A. A competitive local exchange carrier.
B. An interexchange carrier.
C. An integrated communications provider.
D. An Internet service provider.
Answer: C
QUESTION 48:
A major application for ISDN PRI is for:
A. Small key system networking.
B. Internet service providers.
C. Integrated communication provider lines.
D. LAN to LAN networking.
70-734 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 49:
A service that interconnects PBXs without the use of dedicated trunks is called a:
A. Centrex service.
B. Switched service.
C. Private network.
D. Virtual private network.
Answer: D
QUESTION 50:
Three aspects of service common to analog and digital are switching, signaling, and:
A. Conversion.
B. Billing.
C. Transmission.
D. Multiplexing.
70-734 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 51:
Sound is the ______________movement of air.
A. Electrical.
B. Optical.
C. Longitudinal.
D. Mechanical.
Answer: D
QUESTION 52:
A transducer is a device that:
A. Amplifies voice signals.
B. Changes energy from one form to another.
C. Converts voice from digital to analog.
D. Converts voice from analog to digital.
70-734 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 53:
Hertz is a measurement of:
A. Wavelength.
B. Frequency.
C. Amplitude.
D. Bits/second.
Answer: B
QUESTION 54:
The voice band is commonly called:
A. A 4-kilohertz band.
B. A 32-Mbps band.
C. 1.544 Mbps wide.
D. 8 kilohertz wide.
70-734 vce Answer:
QUESTION 55:
Loss of signal strength over distance is:
A. Distortion.
B. Attenuation.
C. Transfiguration.
D. Transduction
Answer: B
QUESTION 56:
The factor in long loops that causes distortion of female voices is:
A. Low frequencies have more attenuation than high frequencies.
B. Attenuation is higher at high frequencies.
C. Load coils attenuate high frequencies.
D. Amplifiers work less efficiently at high frequencies.
70-734 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 57:
Load coils equalize attenuation by:
A. Attenuating lower frequencies more than higher frequencies.
B. Attenuating higher frequencies more lower frequencies.
C. Attenuating both low and high frequencies.
D. Amplifying central frequencies.
Answer: D
QUESTION 58:
Load coils on long loops are being replaced 70-734 dumps by:
A. Digital amplifiers.
B. Subscriber switches.
C. Digital loop carrier.
D. Digital channel banks.
Answer:
QUESTION 59:
A multiplexer:
A. Switches analog signals.
B. Replaces analog channel banks.
C. Converts signals from digital to analog or vice versa.
D. Combines a number of different signal sources into a single stream.
Answer: D
QUESTION 60:
The most frequently used method of analog multiplexing is called:
A. Frequency division multiplexing.
B. Pulse amplitude modulation.
C. Pulse code modulation.
D. Phase multiplexing.
70-734 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION 61:
In order to provide amplification with lower noise and distortion:
A. The signal is companded.
B. The signal is split into transmit and receive paths.
C. Load coils are eliminated from the transmission system.
D. Full duplex copper loops are used.
Answer: B
QUESTION 62:
Four kHz slices are used in:
A. PAM signaling.
B. Frequency-division multiplexing.
C. SONET/SDH systems.
D. OC1 carrier systems.
70-734 vce Answer: B
QUESTION 63:
Modulating a carrier signal with a voice signal results in a carrier signal and:
A. A broadband signal.
B. An over and under band signal.
C. An upper and lower sideband.
D. A bandpass signal.
Answer: C
QUESTION 64:
Three factors caused digital transmission systems to win out over analog systems.
They are _______, distortion varying by frequency, and cost of linear integrated
circuits.
A. Cost of repeater stations
B. Emergence of optical switching
C. Noise
D. Cost of load coils
70-734 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 65:
A _____________ varies in descrete steps.
A. Digital signal
B. Analog carrier
C. Voice signal
D. Multiplexed signal
Answer: A
QUESTION 66:
A digital signal has a bandwidth expressed in _________ per second.
A. Baud
B. Hertz
C. Cycles
D. Bits
70-734 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 67:
In a digital system, regenerators are placed before the signal drops below the:
A. Analog signal level.
B. Noise level.
C. Noise margin.
D. DS0 level.
Answer: C
QUESTION 68:
As long as interfering signals are kept below the noise margin, digital transmission
systems are immune from:
A. Frequency distortion.
B. Crosstalk.
C. Echo.
D. Delay distortion.
70-734 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 69:
To convert from analog to digital and vice versa, digital transmission systems use:
A. Multiplexers.
B. FDM.
C. Type A channel banks.
D. Codecs.
Answer: D
QUESTION 70:
A codec would be found in:
A. An A type channel bank.
B. An analog phone.
C. A digital phone.
D. A SS7 signal transfer point.
70-734 vce Answer: C
QUESTION 71:
The most common codec uses:
A. Adaptive pulse code modulation.
B. Pulse code modulation.
C. Delta modulation.
D. Frequency modulation.
Answer: B
QUESTION 72:
The three steps in PCM are _______, quantizing, and companding.
A. Compression
B. Expansion
C. Sampling
D. Conversion
70-734 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 73:
Law and Mu law are:
A. European and U.S. standards, respectively.
B. Ways of performing the FDM function.
C. Incompatible systems (calls cannot be made between the two).
D. Optical carrier modulation methods.
Answer: A
QUESTION 74:
A 4 kilohertz signal must be sampled at _________ to be accurately reproduced
after conversion to digital 70-734 dumps.
A. Frequent intervals
B. 64 kilobits/second
C. 8 kilohertz
D. Every 125 milliseconds
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT v2.0)
Updated: Sep 09, 2017
Q&As: 118

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Question Set 1
QUESTION 1
A customer network engineer has made configuration changes that have resulted in some loss of connectivity. You have been called in to evaluate a switch network and suggest resolutions to the 300-135 dumps problems.
PC2 in VLAN 200 is unable to ping the gateway address 172.16.200.1; identify the issue.
A. VTP domain name mismatch on SW4
B. VLAN 200 not configured on SW1
C. VLAN 200 not configured on SW2
D. VLAN 200 not configured on SW4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
By looking at the configuration for SW2, we see that it is missing VLAN 200, and the “switchport access vlan 200” command is missing under interface eth 0/0:
QUESTION 2
A customer network engineer has made configuration changes that have resulted in some loss of connectivity. You have been called in to evaluate a 300-135 tshoot dumps  switch network and suggest resolutions to the problems.
Which of statement is true regarding STP issue identified with switches in the given topology?
A. Loopguard configured on the New_Switch places the ports in loop inconsistent state
B. Rootguard configured on SW1 places the ports in root inconsistent state
C. Bpduguard configured on the New_Switch places the access ports in error-disable
D. Rootguard configured on SW2 places the ports in root inconsistent state
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
On the new switch, we see that loopguard has been configured with the “spanning-tree guard loop” command.
The loop guard feature makes additional checks. If BPDUs are not received on a non-designated port, and loop guard is enabled, that port is moved into the STP
loop-inconsistent blocking state, instead of the listening / learning / forwarding state. Without the loop guard feature, the port assumes the designated port role.
The port moves to the STP forwarding state and creates a loop.
QUESTION 3
Assuming the function <body onload=”DisplayName()”> is called, which script block will display Hello Joe
in the document window after you enter the name Joe?
A. <script type=”text/javascript”>function DisplayName(void){var YourName = window.prompt(“What is
your name?”,”Please enter your name”);document.write(“Hello ” + YourName);}</script>
B. <script type=”text/javascript”>function DisplayName(){var YourName = window.prompt(“What is your
name?”,”Please enter your name”);document.write(“Hello ” + YourName);}</script>
C. <script type=”text/javascript”>function DisplayName(void){var YourName = document.prompt(“What is
your name?”,Please enter your name);document.write(“Hello ” + YourName);}</script>
D. <script type=”text/javascript”>function DisplayName(){var YourName = document.prompt(“What is your
name?”,”Please enter your name”);document.write(“Hello ” + yourname);}</script>
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
Consider the following code fragment, which sets up the retrieval of an XML document named fish.xml and
calls a function named showFish(): var xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.open(“GET”, “fish.xml”,
true); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = showFish(); xmlhttp.send(); Which line of code initializes the
XMLHttpRequest object?
A. xmlhttp.send();
B. var xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest();
C. xmlhttp.open(“GET”, “fish.xml”, true);
D. xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = showFish();
300-135 tshoot Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Which of the following demonstrate the correct syntax for the switch statement?
A. var myName= “Paul”switch (myName){case “Peter”document.write(“My name is Peter.<br />”)
breakcase “Paul”document.write(“My name is Paul.<br />”)break: (default);document.write(“I do not
have a name.<br />”)}
B. var myName= “Paul”switch (myName){case “Peter”document.write(“My name is Peter.<br />”)
breakcase “Paul”document.write(“My name is Paul.<br />”)break: (default);document.write(“I do not
have a name.<br />”)}
C. var myName= “Paul”switch (myName){case (Peter)document.write(“My name is Peter.<br />”)
breakcase (Paul)document.write(“My name is Paul.<br />”)break;case: (default);document.write(“I do
not have a name.<br />”)}
D. var myName= “Paul”switch (myName){case (Peter)document.write(“My name is Peter.<br />”)
breakcase (Paul)document.write(“My name is Paul.<br />”)break;case: (default);document.write(“I do
not have a name.<br />”)}
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Consider the following code: <script type=”text/javascript”> var v1 = “alpha”; function f () { var v2 = “bravo”;
alert (v1 + “, ” + v2); } f(); v1=”charlie”; alert (v1 + “, ” + v2); </script> What is the expected result when you
run this script in the browser?
A. An alert box displaying charlie, bravo
B. An alert box displaying alpha, bravo followed by an error
C. Two alert boxes displaying alpha, bravo and alpha, bravo respectively
D. Two alert boxes displaying alpha, bravo and charlie, bravo respectively, followed by an error
300-135 tshoot pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Which of the following is a valid variable name in JavaScript?
A. this
B. that
C. 2that
D. 2this
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
What basic code is needed to define a function in JavaScript?
A. function myFunction { }
B. define myFunction() { }
C. function myFunction() { }
D. define myFunction { return value; }
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
When using AJAX, what is the purpose of the XMLHttpRequest object?
A. To transfer an XML document to the Web server
B. To request data from the Web server strictly in XML format
C. To read and write to an XML file stored on the local machine
D. To request either XML data or plaintext data from the Web server
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Which statement will correctly call a JavaScript function without error?
A. var myFunction()
B. initiate myFunction()
C. call myFunction()
D. myFunction()
300-135 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Consider only the following code:
Which of the following would properly supply the sum of the two numbers?
A. return sum;
B. mySum (num1+num2);
C. return num1+num2;
D. return sum(num1+num2);
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Which is the best technique to test a script for cross-browser compatibility?
A. Use the W3C site’s code validator to test the script.
B. Test the script in various versions of the same browser.
C. Test the script in various browsers, including various versions of the same browsers.
D. Determine the most frequently used browser for your target audience and then test the script in that
browser.
300-135 tshoot Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
Consider the following code:
What is the expected result when you run this script in the browser?
A. There will be no visible output, but the script will count down to 0.
B. The script will output a countdown from 15 to 0 in the client window.
C. The script will output a countdown from 15 to 1 in the client window.
D. The script will output 15, then 1, because it will only write the first and last values of a while? statement.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Consider the following code:
Which statement could be used to determine the value of the first radio button?
A. document.rdoGroup1.value
B. document.myForm.rdoGroup1[0].value
C. document.getElementById(rdoGroup1).value
D. document.getElementById(“rdoGroup1”).value
300-135 tshoot dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Which choice best defines events and event handlers?
A. An event can be an action initiated by the user, and an event handler specifies how JavaScript will
react to the action.
B. An event is an action initiated by the operating system, and an event handler is a function defined by
the user.
C. An event handler can be an action initiated by the user, and an event specifies how JavaScript will
react to the action.
D. An event is initiated by an error in JavaScript, and an event handler will attempt to bypass the error and
continue.
Correct Answer: A

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