[2017 New Microsoft Version] Latest Upload Microsoft MCSA 70-734 Dumps Practice Test, Microsoft 70-734 Dumps Real Exam Video Questions And Answers OEM Preinstallation for Windows 10 (From Google Drive)

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Exam Code: 70-734
Exam Name: OEM Preinstallation for Windows 10
Updated: Sep 05, 2017
Q&As: 46

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70-734 dumps

 

QUESTION 40:
A residence phone normally uses ____________ for long distance calls.
A. Credit cards
B. Outdial lines
C. Dedicated access
D. Switched access
70-734 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 41:
Call waiting, three-way calling, call return, and auto recall are:
A. Services often used with PBX outdial trunks.
B. Digital PBX features.
C. Not available from the LEC.
D. Not useful on PBX trunks.
Answer: D
QUESTION 42:
Businesses with sales people using cell phones often make use of:
A. SMDR on cell phones.
B. PBX tie lines.
C. Call transfer with disconnect.
D. Identified outward dialing.
70-734 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 43:
If a call first comes into the middle of a hunt group, and stops hunting at the last
line in the group without hunting over all lines, ____________is used.
A. Circular hunt
B. Preferential hunt
C. Sequential hunt
D. Most idle line hunt
Answer: C
QUESTION 44:
An OPX is connected by a:
A. Switched access arrangement.
B. Switched service.
C. Dedicated access arrangement.
D. Dedicated service.
70-734 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 45:
FT1 provides bandwidth in:
A. Digital switches.
B. Internet service providers.
C. Multiples of 1.544 Mbps.
D. Multiples of 64 kbps.
Answer: D
QUESTION 46:
The POP is:
A. Where the connection to the IXC is made.
B. Where the connection to the LEC is made.
C. The boundary of the IXC service area.
D. The location of the IXC switch.
70-734 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 47:
If an RBOC gains permission to provide long distance and enhanced services within
its territory, it will become:
A. A competitive local exchange carrier.
B. An interexchange carrier.
C. An integrated communications provider.
D. An Internet service provider.
Answer: C
QUESTION 48:
A major application for ISDN PRI is for:
A. Small key system networking.
B. Internet service providers.
C. Integrated communication provider lines.
D. LAN to LAN networking.
70-734 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 49:
A service that interconnects PBXs without the use of dedicated trunks is called a:
A. Centrex service.
B. Switched service.
C. Private network.
D. Virtual private network.
Answer: D
QUESTION 50:
Three aspects of service common to analog and digital are switching, signaling, and:
A. Conversion.
B. Billing.
C. Transmission.
D. Multiplexing.
70-734 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 51:
Sound is the ______________movement of air.
A. Electrical.
B. Optical.
C. Longitudinal.
D. Mechanical.
Answer: D
QUESTION 52:
A transducer is a device that:
A. Amplifies voice signals.
B. Changes energy from one form to another.
C. Converts voice from digital to analog.
D. Converts voice from analog to digital.
70-734 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 53:
Hertz is a measurement of:
A. Wavelength.
B. Frequency.
C. Amplitude.
D. Bits/second.
Answer: B
QUESTION 54:
The voice band is commonly called:
A. A 4-kilohertz band.
B. A 32-Mbps band.
C. 1.544 Mbps wide.
D. 8 kilohertz wide.
70-734 vce Answer:
QUESTION 55:
Loss of signal strength over distance is:
A. Distortion.
B. Attenuation.
C. Transfiguration.
D. Transduction
Answer: B
QUESTION 56:
The factor in long loops that causes distortion of female voices is:
A. Low frequencies have more attenuation than high frequencies.
B. Attenuation is higher at high frequencies.
C. Load coils attenuate high frequencies.
D. Amplifiers work less efficiently at high frequencies.
70-734 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 57:
Load coils equalize attenuation by:
A. Attenuating lower frequencies more than higher frequencies.
B. Attenuating higher frequencies more lower frequencies.
C. Attenuating both low and high frequencies.
D. Amplifying central frequencies.
Answer: D
QUESTION 58:
Load coils on long loops are being replaced 70-734 dumps by:
A. Digital amplifiers.
B. Subscriber switches.
C. Digital loop carrier.
D. Digital channel banks.
Answer:
QUESTION 59:
A multiplexer:
A. Switches analog signals.
B. Replaces analog channel banks.
C. Converts signals from digital to analog or vice versa.
D. Combines a number of different signal sources into a single stream.
Answer: D
QUESTION 60:
The most frequently used method of analog multiplexing is called:
A. Frequency division multiplexing.
B. Pulse amplitude modulation.
C. Pulse code modulation.
D. Phase multiplexing.
70-734 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION 61:
In order to provide amplification with lower noise and distortion:
A. The signal is companded.
B. The signal is split into transmit and receive paths.
C. Load coils are eliminated from the transmission system.
D. Full duplex copper loops are used.
Answer: B
QUESTION 62:
Four kHz slices are used in:
A. PAM signaling.
B. Frequency-division multiplexing.
C. SONET/SDH systems.
D. OC1 carrier systems.
70-734 vce Answer: B
QUESTION 63:
Modulating a carrier signal with a voice signal results in a carrier signal and:
A. A broadband signal.
B. An over and under band signal.
C. An upper and lower sideband.
D. A bandpass signal.
Answer: C
QUESTION 64:
Three factors caused digital transmission systems to win out over analog systems.
They are _______, distortion varying by frequency, and cost of linear integrated
circuits.
A. Cost of repeater stations
B. Emergence of optical switching
C. Noise
D. Cost of load coils
70-734 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 65:
A _____________ varies in descrete steps.
A. Digital signal
B. Analog carrier
C. Voice signal
D. Multiplexed signal
Answer: A
QUESTION 66:
A digital signal has a bandwidth expressed in _________ per second.
A. Baud
B. Hertz
C. Cycles
D. Bits
70-734 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 67:
In a digital system, regenerators are placed before the signal drops below the:
A. Analog signal level.
B. Noise level.
C. Noise margin.
D. DS0 level.
Answer: C
QUESTION 68:
As long as interfering signals are kept below the noise margin, digital transmission
systems are immune from:
A. Frequency distortion.
B. Crosstalk.
C. Echo.
D. Delay distortion.
70-734 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 69:
To convert from analog to digital and vice versa, digital transmission systems use:
A. Multiplexers.
B. FDM.
C. Type A channel banks.
D. Codecs.
Answer: D
QUESTION 70:
A codec would be found in:
A. An A type channel bank.
B. An analog phone.
C. A digital phone.
D. A SS7 signal transfer point.
70-734 vce Answer: C
QUESTION 71:
The most common codec uses:
A. Adaptive pulse code modulation.
B. Pulse code modulation.
C. Delta modulation.
D. Frequency modulation.
Answer: B
QUESTION 72:
The three steps in PCM are _______, quantizing, and companding.
A. Compression
B. Expansion
C. Sampling
D. Conversion
70-734 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 73:
Law and Mu law are:
A. European and U.S. standards, respectively.
B. Ways of performing the FDM function.
C. Incompatible systems (calls cannot be made between the two).
D. Optical carrier modulation methods.
Answer: A
QUESTION 74:
A 4 kilohertz signal must be sampled at _________ to be accurately reproduced
after conversion to digital 70-734 dumps.
A. Frequent intervals
B. 64 kilobits/second
C. 8 kilohertz
D. Every 125 milliseconds
Answer: C

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[2017 New Cisco Version] 100% Pass Cisco CCNP 300-135 Dumps TSHOOT PDF Certification With New Discount Youtube Study (From Google Drive)

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT v2.0)
Updated: Sep 09, 2017
Q&As: 118

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300-135 dumps

Question Set 1
QUESTION 1
A customer network engineer has made configuration changes that have resulted in some loss of connectivity. You have been called in to evaluate a switch network and suggest resolutions to the 300-135 dumps problems.
PC2 in VLAN 200 is unable to ping the gateway address 172.16.200.1; identify the issue.
A. VTP domain name mismatch on SW4
B. VLAN 200 not configured on SW1
C. VLAN 200 not configured on SW2
D. VLAN 200 not configured on SW4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
By looking at the configuration for SW2, we see that it is missing VLAN 200, and the “switchport access vlan 200” command is missing under interface eth 0/0:
QUESTION 2
A customer network engineer has made configuration changes that have resulted in some loss of connectivity. You have been called in to evaluate a 300-135 tshoot dumps  switch network and suggest resolutions to the problems.
Which of statement is true regarding STP issue identified with switches in the given topology?
A. Loopguard configured on the New_Switch places the ports in loop inconsistent state
B. Rootguard configured on SW1 places the ports in root inconsistent state
C. Bpduguard configured on the New_Switch places the access ports in error-disable
D. Rootguard configured on SW2 places the ports in root inconsistent state
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
On the new switch, we see that loopguard has been configured with the “spanning-tree guard loop” command.
The loop guard feature makes additional checks. If BPDUs are not received on a non-designated port, and loop guard is enabled, that port is moved into the STP
loop-inconsistent blocking state, instead of the listening / learning / forwarding state. Without the loop guard feature, the port assumes the designated port role.
The port moves to the STP forwarding state and creates a loop.
QUESTION 3
Assuming the function <body onload=”DisplayName()”> is called, which script block will display Hello Joe
in the document window after you enter the name Joe?
A. <script type=”text/javascript”>function DisplayName(void){var YourName = window.prompt(“What is
your name?”,”Please enter your name”);document.write(“Hello ” + YourName);}</script>
B. <script type=”text/javascript”>function DisplayName(){var YourName = window.prompt(“What is your
name?”,”Please enter your name”);document.write(“Hello ” + YourName);}</script>
C. <script type=”text/javascript”>function DisplayName(void){var YourName = document.prompt(“What is
your name?”,Please enter your name);document.write(“Hello ” + YourName);}</script>
D. <script type=”text/javascript”>function DisplayName(){var YourName = document.prompt(“What is your
name?”,”Please enter your name”);document.write(“Hello ” + yourname);}</script>
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
Consider the following code fragment, which sets up the retrieval of an XML document named fish.xml and
calls a function named showFish(): var xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.open(“GET”, “fish.xml”,
true); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = showFish(); xmlhttp.send(); Which line of code initializes the
XMLHttpRequest object?
A. xmlhttp.send();
B. var xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest();
C. xmlhttp.open(“GET”, “fish.xml”, true);
D. xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = showFish();
300-135 tshoot Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Which of the following demonstrate the correct syntax for the switch statement?
A. var myName= “Paul”switch (myName){case “Peter”document.write(“My name is Peter.<br />”)
breakcase “Paul”document.write(“My name is Paul.<br />”)break: (default);document.write(“I do not
have a name.<br />”)}
B. var myName= “Paul”switch (myName){case “Peter”document.write(“My name is Peter.<br />”)
breakcase “Paul”document.write(“My name is Paul.<br />”)break: (default);document.write(“I do not
have a name.<br />”)}
C. var myName= “Paul”switch (myName){case (Peter)document.write(“My name is Peter.<br />”)
breakcase (Paul)document.write(“My name is Paul.<br />”)break;case: (default);document.write(“I do
not have a name.<br />”)}
D. var myName= “Paul”switch (myName){case (Peter)document.write(“My name is Peter.<br />”)
breakcase (Paul)document.write(“My name is Paul.<br />”)break;case: (default);document.write(“I do
not have a name.<br />”)}
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Consider the following code: <script type=”text/javascript”> var v1 = “alpha”; function f () { var v2 = “bravo”;
alert (v1 + “, ” + v2); } f(); v1=”charlie”; alert (v1 + “, ” + v2); </script> What is the expected result when you
run this script in the browser?
A. An alert box displaying charlie, bravo
B. An alert box displaying alpha, bravo followed by an error
C. Two alert boxes displaying alpha, bravo and alpha, bravo respectively
D. Two alert boxes displaying alpha, bravo and charlie, bravo respectively, followed by an error
300-135 tshoot pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Which of the following is a valid variable name in JavaScript?
A. this
B. that
C. 2that
D. 2this
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
What basic code is needed to define a function in JavaScript?
A. function myFunction { }
B. define myFunction() { }
C. function myFunction() { }
D. define myFunction { return value; }
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
When using AJAX, what is the purpose of the XMLHttpRequest object?
A. To transfer an XML document to the Web server
B. To request data from the Web server strictly in XML format
C. To read and write to an XML file stored on the local machine
D. To request either XML data or plaintext data from the Web server
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Which statement will correctly call a JavaScript function without error?
A. var myFunction()
B. initiate myFunction()
C. call myFunction()
D. myFunction()
300-135 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Consider only the following code:
Which of the following would properly supply the sum of the two numbers?
A. return sum;
B. mySum (num1+num2);
C. return num1+num2;
D. return sum(num1+num2);
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Which is the best technique to test a script for cross-browser compatibility?
A. Use the W3C site’s code validator to test the script.
B. Test the script in various versions of the same browser.
C. Test the script in various browsers, including various versions of the same browsers.
D. Determine the most frequently used browser for your target audience and then test the script in that
browser.
300-135 tshoot Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
Consider the following code:
What is the expected result when you run this script in the browser?
A. There will be no visible output, but the script will count down to 0.
B. The script will output a countdown from 15 to 0 in the client window.
C. The script will output a countdown from 15 to 1 in the client window.
D. The script will output 15, then 1, because it will only write the first and last values of a while? statement.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Consider the following code:
Which statement could be used to determine the value of the first radio button?
A. document.rdoGroup1.value
B. document.myForm.rdoGroup1[0].value
C. document.getElementById(rdoGroup1).value
D. document.getElementById(“rdoGroup1”).value
300-135 tshoot dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Which choice best defines events and event handlers?
A. An event can be an action initiated by the user, and an event handler specifies how JavaScript will
react to the action.
B. An event is an action initiated by the operating system, and an event handler is a function defined by
the user.
C. An event handler can be an action initiated by the user, and an event specifies how JavaScript will
react to the action.
D. An event is initiated by an error in JavaScript, and an event handler will attempt to bypass the error and
continue.
Correct Answer: A

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[2017 New Cisco Version] Prepare for New CCNA Cyber Ops 210-250 Dumps SECFND PDF Questions And Answers for Cisco CCNA Video Series Will Be More Popular (From Google Drive)

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Exam Code: 210-250
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Updated: Sep 04, 2017
Q&As: 80

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  • Networking Concepts
  • Security Concepts
  • Cryptography
  • Host-Based Analysis
  • Security Monitoring
  • Attack Methods
  • Endpoint Threat Analysis and Computer Forensics
  • Network Intrusion Analysis
  • Incident Response
  • Data and Event Analysis
  • Incident Handling

210-250 dumps

QUESTION 1
Which technology supports the stateless assignment of IPv6 210-250 dumps addresses?
A. DNS
B. DHCPv6
C. DHCP
D. autoconfiguration
210-250 exam Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
QUESTION 2
What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)
A. exactly one active router
B. one or more standby routers
C. one or more backup virtual routers
D. exactly one standby active router
E. exactly one backup virtual router
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 3
After you configure the Loopback0 interface, which command can you enter to verify the status of the
interface and determine whether fast switching is enabled?
A. Router#show ip interface loopback 0
B. Router#show run
C. Router#show interface loopback 0
D. Router#show ip interface brief
210-250 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 4
Which command sequence can you enter to create VLAN 20 and assign it to an interface on a switch?
A. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y
Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20
B. Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y
Switch(config-if)#vlan 20
Switch(config-vlan)#switchport access vlan 20
C. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 20
D. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20
E. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 20
Exam A
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 5
Which three commands can you use to set a router boot image? (Choose three.)
A. Router(config)# boot system flash c4500-p-mz.121-20.bin
B. Router(config)# boot system tftp c7300-js-mz.122-33.SB8a.bin
C. Router(config)#boot system rom c7301-advipservicesk9-mz.124-24.T4.bin
D. Router> boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin
E. Router(config)#boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin
F. Router(config)#boot bootldr bootflash:c4500-jk9s-mz.122-23f.bin
210-250 pdf Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation
QUESTION 6
Which two statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)
A. Link-local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
B. OSPFv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
C. EIGRP, OSPF, and BGP are the only routing protocols that support IPv6.
D. Loopback addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
E. EIGRPv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 7
If primary and secondary root switches with priority 16384 both experience catastrophic losses, which
tertiary switch can take over?
A. a switch with priority 20480
B. a switch with priority 8192
C. a switch with priority 4096
D. a switch with priority 12288
210-250 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 8
Which two statements about late collisions are true? (Choose two.)
A. They may indicate a duplex mismatch.
B. By definition, they occur after the 512th bit of the frame has been transmitted.
C. They indicate received frames that did not pass the FCS match.
D. They are frames that exceed 1518 bytes.
E. They occur when CRC errors and interference occur on the cable.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 9
Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an interface?
A. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
B. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 GigabitEthernet0/1
C. router(config-router)#default-information originate
D. router(config-router)#default-information originate always
210-250 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 10
Which two spanning-tree port states does RSTP combine to allow faster 210-250 dumps convergence? (Choose two.)
A. blocking
B. listening
C. learning
D. forwarding
E. discarding
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 11
If a router has four interfaces and each interface is connected to four switches, how many broadcast
domains are present on the router?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 12
Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?
A. ipv6 local
B. ipv6 host
C. ipv6 unicast-routing
D. ipv6 neighbor
210-250 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?

A. 10.0.0.0 /21
B. 10.0.0.0 /22
C. 10.0.0.0 /23
D. 10.0.0.0 /24
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 14
Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?
A. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
B. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
C. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
D. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
210-250 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 15
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is
from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782.
The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing
table?
A. the OSPF route
B. the EIGRP route
C. the RIPv2 route
D. all three routes
E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 16
Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected via their serial interfaces as illustrated, but they are
unable to communicate. The Atlanta router is known to have the correct configuration.

Given the partial configurations, identify the fault on the Brevard router that is causing the lack of
connectivity
A. incompatible IP address
B. insufficient bandwidth
C. incorrect subnet mask
D. incompatible encapsulation
E. link reliability too low
F. IPCP closed
210-250 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 17
A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The
router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network administrator configure the serial
interface of the main office router to make the connection?
A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# no shut
B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
Main(config-if)# no shut
C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay
Main(config-if)# authentication chap
Main(config-if)# no shut
D. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf
Main(config-if)# no shut
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 18
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has built
in security mechanisms? 210-250 dumps Given the partial configurations, identify the fault on the Brevard router that is causing the lack of
connectivity
A. incompatible IP address
B. insufficient bandwidth
C. incorrect subnet mask
D. incompatible encapsulation
E. link reliability too low
F. IPCP closed
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be
the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)

A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Correct Answer: BDF
Explanation
QUESTION 20
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers
cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link.

The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on
the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?
A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.
B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.
C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.
D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.
F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.
210-250 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 21
What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?
A. Addresses in a private range will be not be routed on the Internet backbone.
B. Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network.
C. The NAT process will be used to translate this address to a valid IP address.
D. A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

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[2017 New Version From Google Drive] Cisco Introduction to Latest Release WIFUND 200-355 Dumps PDF Questions Answers Video Is What You Need To Take

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Preparation of any exam is not easy, especially when a person wants to pass it with a good score, same is the case with Cisco 200-355 dumps as it not only requires hard work, but also the practice questions which will assist in the preparation of the Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals exam. Pass4itsure Cisco introduction to latest release WIFUND https://www.pass4itsure.com/200-355.html dumps pdf questions answers video is what you need to take.

Exam Code: 200-355
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals
Updated: Aug 10, 2017
Q&As: 378

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200-355 dumps

QUESTION 1. Which of the following commands is used to add a device to the route?
A. EXDRI
B. EXDAI
C. EXDRP
D. EXDRE
200-355 exam Answer:A
QUESTION 2. Which of the following is the correct command sequence for a CP Fault?
A. REPRI,REMRI,RECRI
B. REPCI,REMCI,RECCI
C. RECCI,REPCI,REMCI
D. GSTEI,NTTEI,TCTDI
Answer:B
QUESTION 3. Which of the following commands is used to make a copy of backup file RELFSW1 to the oldest file in
the SFR group?
A. SYTUC
B. SYNIC
C. SYSFT
D. SYFSC
200-355 dumps Answer:C
QUESTION 4. A rolling database of active and previous hardware alarms can be viewed using ?
A. ATR
B. ALB
C. ALV
D. ASM
Answer:B
QUESTION 5. Which file is used for automatic data dumps and automatic system reloads?
A. RELFSW0
B. RELFSW1
C. .RELFSW2
D. RELFSW100
200-355 pdf Answer:A
QUESTION 6. What MOs can be tested with a command-ordered equipment test?
A. TG,TRXC,TX,RX and TS
B. CF,IS,TF,TRXC,TX,RX and TS
C. TG,CF,IS,TF,TRXC,RX,TX and TS
D. TG,TS,RX and TX
Answer:B
QUESTION 7. Which of the following commands is used to define a channel group for a cell?
A. RLDEI
B. RLDGI
C. RLDEC
D. RLDSI
200-355 vce Answer:B
QUESTION 8. Which of the following commands is used to print the process control in service performance log data?
A. PRINTPROCESS
B. ALIST
C. ISPPRINT
D. ALOGLIST
Answer:C
QUESTION 9. Which of the following pairs of commands is used to replace the software version for the Managed
Objects?
A. RXEST and RXPLI B.
RXMOI and RXMSC C.
RXMSC and RXPLE D.
RXMSC and RXPLI
200-355 exam Answer:D
QUESTION 10. Software Error Information can be retrieved by command ?
A. PTRIP
B. SYRIP
C. SYDIP
D. SYRSP
Answer:B
QUESTION 11. When SAE individuals are increased or decreased,Program Store(PS) is affected?
A. True
B. False
200-355 dumps Answer:B
QUESTION 12. OMS and STS measurement jobs for use by the NWS are created with?
A. SDM
B. SGW
C. PMR
D. SMIA
Answer:D
QUESTION 13. Which of the following commands is used to specify Routing Cases?
A. ANRSI
B. SUSR
C. SUPRI
D. None of the above
200-355 pdf Answer:A
QUESTION 14. Which of the following commands is used to print out the TRH Event Log?
A. RAHEP
B. RAHHP
C. RAHLP
D. RAHTP
Answer:A
QUESTION 15. How many DCP2 are assigned to a GPRS and EDGE radio respectively?
A. 2 and 6
B. 3 and 6
C. 3 and 4
D. 2 and 8
200-355 vce Answer:D
QUESTION 16. The device type for the time slots on the Abis interface is a/an ?
A. RALT
B. MALT
C. RBLT
D. RTLTT
Answer:C
QUESTION 17. SS7 is made up of a Message Transfer Part(MTP) and a number of User/Application parts.What User
or Application part is used for signaling between BSC and MSC in the GSM network?
A. BSSMAP
B. MAP
C. OMAP
D. INAP
200-355 exam Answer:A
QUESTION 18. A real-time ???scoreboard??¨¤ of current active hardware alarms cn be viewed using ?
A. ATR
B. ALB
C. ALV
D. ASM
Answer:D
QUESTION 19. Which of the following commands is used to activate an SS7 signaling link?
A. S7RSI
B. S7SLI C.
S7LAI D.
S7OPI
200-355 dumps Answer:C
QUESTION 20. Which of the following commands is used to print the CP EVENT RECORD data?
A. DICRP
B. DIRCP
C. DICEP
D. DIECP
Answer:B
QUESTION 21
Which of the following services does not require a database connection as part of its configuration?
A. The Powercenter Repository service.
B. The Powercenter Integration Service.
C. The PowerCenter Designer Service.
D. The Reporting Service.
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Where does Informatica 9.1 store encrypted passwords?
A. Domain Configuration database
B. PowerCenter Repository database
C. Domain Security database
D. Service Manager Repository
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
Which object below can be imported into a domain from LDAP?
A. Permissions
B. Privileges
C. Groups
D. Roles
200-355 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
What may be gained when registering more than one Integration Service to a single Repository Service?
A. Performance
B. Reliability
C. Redundancy to facilitate automatic failover
D. Ability to partition the sessions, assuming the partition license option has been purchased
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Which method would you use to migrate objects (such as a workflow) from a development repository to a
production repository, if both repositories cannot be accessed from the same Repository Manager?
A. XML export-import
B. Object copy
C. Folder copy
D. Deployment group copy
200-355 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
Which operations can be done with an incremental key?
A. Add functionality, delete functionality.
B. Add functionality, delete functionality, extend expiration date.
C. Add functionality, delete functionality, enable additional services.
D. Add functionality, delete functionality, enable additional services, extend expiration date.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Which PowerCenter application(s) can be used to start a workflow?
A. The Workflow Manager.
B. The Workflow Monitor.
C. The Workflow Manager or the Workflow Monitor.
D. The Workflow Manager, the Workflow Monitor, or the Informatica Administrator.
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
What factors must be considered to import an object stored as XML into a repository?
A. The user who created the original object.
B. The privileges and permissions on the original object.
C. The PowerCenter version or dot-version of the original object.
D. The PowerCenter version or dot-version of the original object, and the privileges and permissions on
the original object.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
Which of the following can be configured as the security protocol used for Domain Management?
A. SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) or SSL (Secure Sockets Layer)
B. TCP/IP (Internet Protocol Suite) or TLS (Transport Layer Security)
C. SSH (Secure Shell) or SSL (Secure Sockets Layer)
D. SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) or TLS (Transport Layer Security)
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Which of the following is true about PowerCenter Repositories and Integration Services?
A. An Integration Service may be connected to more than one Repository Service.
B. An Integration Service may be connected to only one Repository Service.
C. Repository Service is a client of an Integration Service.
D. A Repository Service may be connected to more than one Integration Service and an Integration
Service may be connected to more than one Repository Service.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
If a user is denied read permission on a folder, which of the following is true?
A. The folder is not visible in the Navigator window in any PowerCenter client.
B. The folder becomes a shared folder.
C. The folder has a red “X” over it.
D. The folder is grayed out in the Navigator window for any PowerCenter client.
200-355 vce Correct Answer: D

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Question No : 1
A cloud administrator for an enterprise organization must create and deploy a web application in the private cloud of the organization. The environment consists of two web servers: one application server and one database server. The application stack should be available only to Internet traffic while keeping the database and application server completely secure.
Which Cisco UCS Director component should the administrator use to simplify this task?
A. fenced application containers
B. vApp containers
C. VM containers
D. application containers
Correct Answer: C

Question No : 2
Which option lists the orchestration types that can be selected when a user orders an application stack in Cisco Prime Service Catalog? 210-260 pdf
A. full, partial, none
B. automatic, semi-automatic, limited, none
C. standard service, VIX deployment, puppet, none
D. standard service, special service, automatic service
Correct Answer: C

Question No : 3
Which three components make up the Heat Orchestration piece of Cisco Prime Service Catalog? (Choose three)
A. Orchestration service with embedded Heat engine
B. Swift
C. Glance
D. Keystone
E. RabbitMQ server
F. Stack Designer
Correct Answer: A,D,E
210-260 dumps
Question No : 4
An engineer is configuring a template in CloudSense Report Builder. 210-260 dumps Which three reports are available? (Choose three.)
A. Virtual Data Center
B. Global Account
C. Cloud
D. Physical Account
E. Global User
F. Virtual Account
Correct Answer: A,B,D

Question No : 5
Which objects are exposed when integrating with Cisco UCS Director?
A. catalogs
B. tasks
C. public clouds
D. hybrid clouds
Correct Answer: A

Question No : 6
Where are the main fault logs for root cause analysis located? 210-260 pdf
A. on your local computer via an SSH session
B. on the server where the application is installed
C. on the database server
D. on the switch that connects the database and application server
Correct Answer: B

Question No : 7
An engineer wants to back up the Cisco UCS Director database. Which interface should be used?
A. Cisco UCS Manager
B. SSH
C. PuTTY
D. Shell Menu
Correct Answer: D

Question No : 8
Which option describes what end user portal access allows?
A. ordering of server and / or application environments based on preconfigured resources available to users access
B. deployment of templates and OVA files
C. sharing files with other portal users
D. registering Physical Compute resources to the environment
Correct Answer: A

Question No : 9
Which two features are available in the Cisco UCS Director chargeback module? (Choose two.)
A. Reusable Cost Models
B. Top 10 Reports
C. Dashboard
D. Quotas and Limits
E. Universal Compatibility
Correct Answer: A,C

Question No : 10
Which option lists the different container types available in Cisco UCS Director under Menu Bar > Solutions > VACS Container? 210-260 dumps
A. Cisco VACS 3 Tier (Internal), Cisco VACS 3 Tier (External), Cisco VACS Custom Container
B. Cisco VACS 3 Tier (Inbound), Cisco VACS 2 Tier (Outbound), Cisco VACS Dual Container
C. Cisco VACS 4 Tier (Internal), Cisco VACS 4 Tier (External), Cisco VACS Custom Container
D. Cisco VACS 4 Tier (Inbound), Cisco VACS 4 Tier (Outbound), Cisco VACS Dual Container
Correct Answer: A

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Question No : 1
A new Contract template has been assigned an incorrect Allocation Type.
You need to ensure that the correct Allocation Type is assigned to the template.
Which action will achieve the goal?
A. Unpublish the template and then make the required changes.
B. Use the Copy Template menu item to create a new Contract template. Edit the new template to use the correct Allocation Type. Delete the original template.
C. Deactivate the Contract template and then create a new Contract template that uses the correct Allocation Type.
D. Create a new Contract template that uses the correct Allocation Type.
Answer: D

Question No : 2
Which two statements about queues are true?(Choose TWO) MB2-717 pdf
A. Queues allow users to remove themselves from responsibility for an item by using the Remove button.
B. Queues allow users to process items that they do not own.
C. You can delete a queue item without deleting the record for which the queue item was created.
D. Queues allow users to see multiple record types that require action in one list.
Answer: B,C
MB2-717 dumps
Question No : 3     MB2-717 dumps
User1 is the owner of the Specialists team. User2 adds a case that she owns to the Specialists team’s queue. Who now owns the case?
A. The Specialists team
B. The owner of the Specialist team’s queue
C. User1
D. User2
Answer: D

Question No : 4
You create a sales order by using the latest currency exchange rate.
Which three changes to a sales order will force a recalculation of the sales order money?(Choose Three)
A. The record is created.
B. The state of the record is changed.
C. A money field is updated.
D. The shipping address is changed.
E. The order name is changed.
Answer: B,C,D

Question No : 5
What are three valid ways to create cases? (Choose Three)
A. Convert a Custom Activity record to a case.
B. Import cases by using a .csv file.
C. Use the Quick Create form.
D. Convert an Opportunity record to a case.
E. Convert a lead to a case.
Answer: A,B,C

Question No : 6
You have a Microsoft Dynamics CRM instance that has sample data installed. MB2-717 dumps
Which three items are default areas of the subject tree? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.(Choose Three)
A. default subject
B. service
C. case
D. issue
E. query
Answer: A,B,E

Question No : 7
You are modifying a customer service Case record by using the full form. Which activity type can you add to the service Case record from within the form?
A. Letter
B. Service activity
C. Custom activity type
D. Phone call
Answer: D

Question No : 8
You are creating a discount list. MB2-717 pdf
Which two types of discounts can you create?(Choose TWO)
A. Unit
B. Base
C. Formula
D. Amount
E. Percentage
Answer: D,E

Question No : 9
You are creating a case in Microsoft Dynamics CRM.
Which two entity types are valid for the Customer field?(Choose TWO)
A. Products
B. Leads
C. Contacts
D. Accounts
Answer: C,D

Question No : 10
You are creating a case from an email message by using the Microsoft Dynamics CRM Outlook client.You need to complete the task by using the least number of steps. MB2-717 dumps
What should you do?
A. Create a new case from the Outlook email message by using the Track and Convert To Case features.
Set the Customer field of the case to the account of the person who sent the email message.
B. Track the email message from Outlook in Microsoft Dynamics CRM.
Create a case in Microsoft Dynamics CRM and set the Customer field of the case to the account of the person who sent the email message.
Change the Set Regarding field on the email message to the case.
C. Track the email message from Outlook in Microsoft Dynamics CRM by using the Track feature.
Use the View in CRM feature to open the Microsoft Dynamics CRM email record.
Convert the Microsoft Dynamics CRM email message to a case after the Microsoft Dynamics CRM email record opens.
D. Create a new case from the Outlook email message by using the Set Regarding feature.
Set the Customer field of the case to the account of the person who sent the email message.
Answer: A

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[2017 New Version] Free Latest Cisco 200-155 Dumps PDF Training Materials And Youtube Online Demo

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QUESTION 1
An engineer is configuring a new MDS switch. The switch is powered on, the customer connects to the console, and the initial setup script is started.
Which two items can be configured during this setup process?
A. default port-channel mode
B. default port VSAN membership
C. default switch port interface state
D. default zone mode
E. default storage VDC
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
An engineer created three VSANs on the Cisco MDS switch. VSAN 100 is allocated to the marketing department, VSAN 110 is allocated to the research department, and VSAN 120 is allocated to the business department. The engineer wants to verify that the interfaces for the research department are allocated accordingly. Which command should the engineer use?
A. mdsswitch# show vsan 110
B. mdsswitch# show vsan membership
C. mdsswitch# show vsan
D. mdsswitch# show vsan usage
Correct Answer: C
200-155
QUESTION 3             200-155
Which two terms can take the place of the wildcard mask in an ACL?
A. eq
B. deny
C. host
D. all
E. any
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Which two port types are needed to build out an FCoE pass-through switch in NPV mode while maintaining Fiber Channel packet visibility? (Choose two.)
A. VN Port
B. VE Port
C. VF Port
D. Edge Port
E. N Port
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Which two options are valid VTP commands? {Choose two)
A. feature vtp
B. vtp client mode
C. vtp VLAN
D. vtp version
E. vtp static
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
Which two options are multicast addresses? (Choose two.)
A. FD00::2
B. 192.168.2.2
C. FF05::2
D. 226.10.10.10
E. 240.1.0.1
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 7
What is the maximum of fabric modules that can be installed in a Cisco Nexus 7000 chassis?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 4
D. 7
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which option describes what a switch does after it items that a host has connected to a switch port?
A. Flood the frame only on all of its trunk ports.
B. Create a MAC to port mapping entry in MAC table.
C. Flood the frame only on all of its access ports.
D. Discard the frame.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
What is the maximum working distance of a 1000BASE-ZE SFP transceiver when ordinary single mode fiber? 200-155
A. up to 70 kilometers
B. up to 40 kilometers
C. up to 550 meters
D. up to 10 kilometers
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which command set creates an access control list on a Cisco Nexus switch to deny only FTP traffic from any source to destination host 10.10.10.10?
A. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny judp any host 10.10.1.110. eq 21 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any
B. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny judp any host 10.10.1.110. eq ftp
C. N5K-A(config)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110. eq ftp N5K-A(config)# access-list 101deny Ip any any
D. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110. eq 21 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit Ip any any
Correct Answer: D

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Success Secret to Pass 2017 Free Cisco 400-351 Dumps | 400-351 Exam | 400-351 Questions

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCIE Wireless
Exam Name: CCIE Wireless
Exam Code: 400-351
Total Questions: 161 Q&As
Last Updated: Apr 19, 2017
Exam Information: http://www.leads4pass.com/400-351.html
Exam Description:

The 400-351 dumps Cisco CCIE Wireless Written Exam is a 2-hour test that will validate that a wireless engineer has the expertise to plan, design, implement, operate, and troubleshoot complex enterprise WLAN networks.

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QUESTION 22
When performing a backup of the BlackBerry device using the backup and restore tool in BlackBerry Desktop Manager, what is the file extension of the backup file that is created? (Choose one.)
A. .bak
B. .sav
C. .ipd
D. .fil
E. .tmp

Correct Answer: C

 
QUESTION 23
A user BlackBerry device powered down spontaneously, and is now displaying the following error:
Error Code 507
Which two of the following steps should a system administrator use to troubleshoot this error? (Choose
two)

A. Connect the BlackBerry device to BlackBerry Desktop Manager and perform a fresh synchronization
B. Perform a hard reset fo the BlackBerry device and see if the error code persists C. Obtain a replacement SIM card and see if the BlackBerry device will start up
D. Connect the BlackBerry Desktop Manager and run the application loader tool to reload the BlackBerry Device Software
E. Attempt a Bluetooth connection to the BlackBerry Desktop Manager and then synchronize the way

Correct Answer: BD

 

 

QUESTION 24
A BlackBerry device user synchronizes the Calendar application wirelessly on the BlacBerry Enterprise Server and then synchronizes the Calendar application using a wired connection with BlackBerry Desktop Manager for a public work calendar. Recently, the user has begun to see numerous duplicate entries in the Calendar application on the BlackBerry device. Which of the following troubleshooting steps might resolve the issue? (Choose one.)
A. Have the user perfomr a clean uninstall of theBlackBerry Desktop Manager and replace it with the previous version
B. Have the user delete the calendar database on the BlackBerry device using BlackBerry Desktop Manager and perform a one-way synchronization from the computer
C. Have the user delete the Calendar database ont he comput er and perfomr a one-way synchronizationfrom the BlackBerry device
D. Delete and the undelete the Desktop [CICAL] service book on the BlackBerry device
E. Have the user update the BlackBerry Device Software on the BlackBerry device

Correct Answer: B

 

 

400-351 dumps  QUESTION 25
A BlackBerry device user filtered message count in the BlackBerry Administration Service is increasing and not email messages are being forwarded to the BlackBerry device. Which of the following may be the cause of this? (Choose one)
A. The user doesn not have sufficient wireless coverage
B. The BlackBerry device setting for if no filters apply, send email to hadnheld is se to No, The BlackBerry device settings for if no filters apply, send email to handheld is set to No.
C. The user has not been provisioned for Enterprise services
D. The user mail client rules/policies are interfering with message delivery The user mail client rules/ policies are interfering with message delivery
E. The service books on the BlackBerry device are corrupt

Correct Answer: B

 

 

QUESTION 26
A BlackBerry device user sends an email message using the BlackBerry device but receives the following
error:
Desktop email program was unable to submit message
At which point in the data flow process is the email message failing to be sent?(Choose one.)

A. When the BlackBerry Enterprise Server submits the email message to the messaging server
B. When the BlackBerry device submits the email message to the wireless network
C. When the BlackBerry Enterprise Server receives the email message from the BlackBerry Infastructure
D. When the BlackBerry Infastructure receives the email message from the wireless network
E. When the intended recipient messaging server receives the email message

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 27
After the initial insatllation of BlackBerry Desktop Manager, what is the first setting that has to be configured to ensure the detection of the BlackBerry device? (Choose one)
A. BlackBerry Device Software must be installed on the computer
B. Ensure Email Settings have been verified and are correct
C. Ensure option item Profile Options is set to use the correct MAPI profile
D. Ensure option item Connection Options is set to use a USB port
E. Ensure option item Data Folder Options is set to use the recommended default value

Correct Answer: D

 

 

QUESTION 28
Which of the following components must be selected during a custom insatll of BlackBerry Desktop Software of S/MIME and Wi-Fi support? (Choose one)
A. S/MIME Support Package
B. BlackBerry device software
C. BlackBerr Security support package
D. Certificate Synchronization
E. BlackBerry advanced networking support

Correct Answer: D

 

 

QUESTION 29
Which of the following indicates the best signal on a BlackBerry device Located under Options>Status>Signal? (Choose one)
A. -85mhz
B. -200dbm
C. EDGE
D. +104
E. -85dbm

Correct Answer: E

 

 

QUESTION 30
A BlackBerry device user calls in, asking for the best resources to self-educate on why the Send As permissions gets revoked. Which two of the following options are the best resources? (Choose two)
A. BlackBerry Permissions Library
B. http://www.blackberry.com/sendas
C. Blackberry User Administration Guide
D. Search the BTSC for Send As Revoked or specific errors encountered
E. IT Policy reference Guide

Correct Answer: BD

 

 

QUESTION 31
When inquiring about a fairly recent version of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server, how can a support representative most effectively limit the results of a search in the BTSC? (Choose two)
A. Search Top Results since any search yielding so many results must be a top issue
B. Try an Advanced Search and limit the published dates
C. Try an Advanced Search and reduce the number of results returned
D. Use more specific search terms, including full versions numbers
E. Use mor egeneral terms and avoid specific versions
Correct Answer: BD

 

 

QUESTION 32
In a low memory situation, which of the following will Low Memory Manager do to make more memory available on the BlackBerry device? (Choose one)
A. Copy all media from the BlacBerry device memory to a microSD card
B. Close all currently running applications
C. Delete the least used third party applications
D. Advise that there is not enough memory to perform any operations
E. Other applications will remove low priority data

Correct Answer: E

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QUESTION 1
You need to recommend a server deployment strategy for the main office that meets the server deployment requirements.
What should you recommend installing in the main office?
A. Windows Deployment Services (WDS)
B. The Windows Automated Installation Kit (Windows AIK)
C. The Express Deployment Tool (EDT)
D. The Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK)
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
WDS is a server role that enables you to remotely deploy Windows operating systems. You can use it to set up new computers by using a network-based installation. This means that you do not have to install each operating system directly from a CD, USB drive, or DVD.
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QUESTION 2
You need to recommend changes to the 70-413 pdf Active Directory site topology to support on the company’s planned changes.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. A new site
B. A new site link bridge
C. A new site link
D. A new subnet
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
* Scenario:
The forest contains a child domain for each office. An Active Directory site exists for each office.
* Sites overview
Sites in AD DS represent the physical structure, or topology, of your network. AD DS uses network topology information, which is stored in the directory as site, subnet, and site link objects, to build the most efficient replication topology. The replication topology itself consists of the set of connection objects that enable inbound replication from a source domain controller to the destination domain controller that stores the connection object. The Knowledge Consistency Checker (KCC) creates these connection objects automatically on each domain controller.

QUESTION 3
You need to recommend changes to the Active Directory environment to support the virtualization requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Raise the functional level of the domain and the forest.
B. Upgrade the domain controller that has the domain naming master role to Windows Server 2012.
C. Implement Administrator Role Separation.
D. Upgrade the domain controllers that have the PDC emulator master role to Windows Server 2012.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
From case study:
* Ensure that the additional domain controllers for the 70-413 vce branch offices can be deployed by using domain controller cloning.

QUESTION 4
You need to recommend a change to the Active Directory environment to support the company’s planned changes.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Raise the functional level of the domain and the forest.
B. Implement Administrator Role Separation.
C. Upgrade the domain controllers that have the PDC emulator master role to Windows Server 2012.
D. Upgrade the domain controller that has the domain naming master role to Windows Server 2012.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
* Scenario:
The functional level of the domain and the forest is Windows Server 2008.
Implement the Active Directory Recycle Bin.

QUESTION 5
You need to recommend an IPAM management solution for the Operators groups. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Run the Invoke-IpamGpoProvisioningcmdlet in all three domains. Add the computers used by the members of the Operators group to the IPAM server.
B. Modify the membership of the IPAM Administrators group and the WinRMRemoteWMIUsers_ group on the IPAM server.
C. Run the Set-IpamConfigurationcmdlet and modify the membership of the WinRMRemoteWMRJsers_ group on the IPAM server.
D. Run the Set-IpamConfigurationcmdlet on the IPAM server. Run the Invoke- IpamGpoProvisioningcmdlet in all three domains.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Scenario: Ensure that the 70-413 dumps members of the Operators groups in all three domains can manage the IPAM server from their client computer.

QUESTION 6
You are planning the implementation of two new servers that will be configured as RADIUS servers.
You need to recommend which configuration must be performed on the VPN servers. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you do on each VPN server?
A. Add a RADIUS client.
B. Install the Health Registration Authority role service.
C. Enable DirectAccess.
D. Modify the authentication provider.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
* Implement RADIUS authentication for VPN connections.
* The new sales.contoso.com domain will contain a web application that will access data from a Microsoft SQL Server located in the contoso.com domain. The web application must use integrated Windows authentication. Users’ credentials must be passed from the web applications to the SQL Server.

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2017 Latest Updated Download Free Cisco 300-135 Dumps

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The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a ‘proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address. Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions. The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-list 10 command.
B. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-map vlan 10 command.
C. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan access-map test1 10 command.
D. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan filter test1 vlan-list 10 command.
Answer: C  1y0-201 exam

The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a ‘proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address. Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions. What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Disable auto summary on the EIGRP process
B. Enable EIGRP on the FastEthernet0/0 and FastEthernet0/1 interface using the no passive-interface command.
C. Change the AS number on the EIGRP routing process from 1 to 10 to much the AS number used on DSW1 and DSW2.
D. Under the EIGRP process, delete the network 10.1.4.0 0.0.0.255 command and enter the network 10.1.4.4 0.0.0.252 and 10.1.4.8 0.0.0.252 commands.
Answer: C

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