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QUESTION 16
A network engineer requires that an OSPF ASBR must only flood external LSAs only within its own area. What OSPF area type should be configured?
A. Backbone Area
B. Totally Stub Area
C. Not So Stubby Area
D. Stub Area

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Which protocol is used to reserve bandwidth for the transport of a particular application data flow across the network?
A. cRTP
B. IEEE 802.1P
C. RSVP
D. LFI
E. Auto QOS

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
An enterprise campus module is typically made up of four submodules, as described by the Cisco Enterprise Architecture Model. Which two submodules are part of this module? (Choose two.)
A. DMZ
B. enterprise branch
C. building distribution
D. server farm/data center

E. MAN

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Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 19
You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit, to include data time stamping across a large number of interfaces, customized according to interface, with a minimal impact on the network devices themselves. Which tool would you use to meet these requirements?
A. RMON
B. SNMPv3
C. NetFlow
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which design is the recommended geometric design for routed topologies?
A. linear
B. triangular
C. rectangular
D. circular
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
Which statement is true concerning the data center access layer design?
A. The access layer in the data center is typically built at Layer 3, which allows for better sharing of services across multiple servers.
B. With Layer 2 access, the default gateway for the servers can be configured at the access or aggregation layer.
C. A dual-homing NIC requires a VLAN or trunk between the two access switches to support the dual IP addresses on the two server links to two separate switches.
D. The access layer is normally not required, as dual homing is standard from the servers to the aggregation layer.
Correct Answer: B

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This post analyzes the new Cisco 100-105 exam topics in a way that should be helpful for folks who have been working towards the old exam. I may come back in a few months with a post about the exam on the whole, for those who did not care about the old exam. But everything I write here is focused on the changes, and not on what has not changed.

For context, keep in mind that Cisco has provided two paths to CCNA R&S certification since 2003: A two exam path and a one exam path. Using current terminology, to become CCNA R&S certified, you can either take and pass the ICND1 and ICND2 exams or the CCNA exam. Then, from a content perspective:

ICND1 + ICND2 = CCNA

In this post and the Part 2 post, I will focus on the transition to the new exam topics, with the following main points:

  • Totally New to ICND1: Topics not in the old CCNA R&S exam topics (that is, topics in neither ICND1 nor ICND2), but are now in the exam topics for the Cisco 100-105 exam.
  • Moved from ICND2: Topics formerly in the old ICND2 200-101 exam topics, but now moved to the new ICND1 100-105 exam.
  • Troubleshooting Performance Levels: Cisco bumped the performance level of the verbs for several subject areas up to “troubleshoot”; this section details those topics.
  • Topics Removed from CCNA and ICND1: Topics that were listed in the old Cisco 100-105 exam topics and appear to be completely removed from the new exams.

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QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)

A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 17
What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 16
D. unlimited
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
A. hop count
B. administrative distance
C. link bandwidth
D. link delay
E. link cost
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 19
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
C. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 20
Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)
A. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
B. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.
C. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.
D. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
E. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
F. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
G. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.
Correct Answer: BG
QUESTION 21
A router is running three routing processes: RIP, OSPF, and EIGRP, each configured with default characteristics. Each process learns a route to the same remote network. If there are no static routes to the destination and none of the routes were redistributed, which route will be placed in the IP routing table?
A. the route learned through EIGRP
B. the route learned through OSPF
C. the route learned through RIP
D. the route with the lowest metric
E. all three routes with the router load balancing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router?

A. 10.1.1.2
B. 10.154.154.1
C. 172.16.5.1
D. 192.168.5.3
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the graphic. There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance. As part of examining the router resources, the OSPF DRs need to be known. All the router OSPF priorities are at the default and the router IDs are shown with each router. Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two.)

A. Corp-1
B. Corp-2
C. Corp-3
D. Corp-4
E. Branch-1
F. Branch-2
Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 24
What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route to that destination network is in active status?
A. It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in the routing table.
B. It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers.
C. It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths to the destination network.
D. It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit. The network is converged. After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?

A. O 208.149.23.64 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthernet 0/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
B. O 208.149.23.64 [110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
C. O 208.149.23.64 [110/13] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
D. O 208.149.23.64 [110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial 1/0
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
A. show ip ospf link-state
B. show ip ospf lsa database
C. show ip ospf neighbors
D. show ip ospf database
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 120
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit. When running EIGRP, what is required for RouterA to exchange routing updates with RouterC?

A. AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers.
B. Loopback interfaces must be configured so a DR is elected.
C. The no auto-summary command is needed on Router A and Router C.
D. Router B needs to have two network statements, one for each connected network.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit. How will the router handle a packet destined for 192.0.2.156?

A. The router will drop the packet.
B. The router will return the packet to its source.
C. The router will forward the packet via Serial2.
D. The router will forward the packet via either Serial0 or Serial1.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit. The Lakeside Company has the internetwork in the exhibit. The administrator would like to reduce the size of the routing table on the Central router. Which partial routing table entry in the Central router represents a route summary that represents the LANs in Phoenix but no additional subnets?

A. 10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.0.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
B. 10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.2.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
C. 10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.2.2.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
D. 10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.4.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
E. 10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.4.4.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
F. 10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.4.4.4 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.)
A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 32
Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# router ospf 0
B. Router(config)# router ospf 1
C. Router(config)# router ospf area 0
D. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0
E. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
F. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 33
Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?
A. a backup route, stored in the routing table
B. a primary route, stored in the routing table
C. a backup route, stored in the topology table
D. a primary route, stored in the topology table
Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 31
Which of the following connectors would be found on a twisted pair cable?
A. RJ-45
B. BNC
C. SC
D. ST
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
Which of the following allows for the FARTHEST transmission distance for data?
A. Bluetooth
B. Single-mode fibre
C. RG-6 cable
D. CAT6 cable
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
The helpdesk technician has been tasked to reinstall the OS on a desktop and has already inserted the OS install disk in the CD-ROM. Which of the following would MOST likely need to be configured within the BIOS to continue reinstalling the OS?
A. BIOS password
B. Flash BIOS for firmware upgrade
C. Boot sequence
D. Clock speeds

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
A user is requesting assistance in building a custom made PC for home theater use to connect to their existing large LCD screen. Which of the following components should MOST likely be recommended? (Select TWO).
A. Large IDE hard drive
B. HDMI output
C. Dual monitors
D. RAID array
E. TV tuner

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 35
Which of the following devices might need drivers installed so that it can be recognized by the operating system and function properly?
A. Speakers
B. Monitors
C. Scanners
D. Projectors

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36
Which of the following properties of TCP/IP is used to differentiate the network and the host portions of an IP address?
A. DNS address
B. Default gateway
C. Subnet mask
D. DHCP lease

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 37
A user is trying to setup a small office home office (SOHO) wireless network and does not want any neighbors to be able to discover the network. Which of the following parameters would MOST likely be configured?
A. Configure a proxy server address
B. Enable WEP encryption
C. Disable SSID broadcast
D. Configure DMZ settings

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
Which of the following would provide continuous power to various devices connected to it during a power surge or outage?
A. Line conditioner
B. Power strip
C. Battery backup
D. Surge suppressor

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39
Which of the following network topologies would MOST likely be used to provide redundancy at each network device to support data transmissions?
A. Mesh
B. Ring
C. PBX
D. Bus
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 40
Which of the following memory features allows for the protection against random inconsistencies in the transfer of the data?
A. Low latency
B. Dual channel
C. ECC
D. Single channel
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41
Primary system functions like basic boot priorities, voltage parameters for the processor, and SATA options are configured in which of the following areas of a PC system?
A. MBR
B. CMOS
C. VRAM
D. BIOS
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
Which of the following storage media would be used to build a RAID 5 array?
A. Dual layer DVDs
B. SATA HDDs
C. Flash drives
D. Blu-ray discs
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 43
Which of the following video cable types would be MOST likely to experience gradual, degraded signal quality over a long distance?
A. HDMI
B. DisplayPort

C. VGA
D. DVI
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 44
A DVI-D cable is generally used for which of the following computer functions?
A. Delivering audio only
B. Delivering audio & video
C. Delivering video only
D. Delivering an analog signal

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 45
An IP address of 10.10.1.180 would be considered part of which of the following address classes?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 46
Which of the following 802.11 wireless standards provides the LOWEST maximum theoretical throughput?
A. A
B. B
C. G
D. N
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 47
Basic Internet web traffic generally travels on which of the following ports?
A. 25 and 53
B. 53 and 8080
C. 80 and 443
D. 110 and 53

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 48
Which of the following printer types needs to have toner replaced as part of the normal maintenance cycle?
A. Inkjet
B. Thermal
C. Impact
D. Laser

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 49
Which of the following technologies has the SHORTEST wireless range for printing?
A. 802.11g
B. 802.11a
C. Bluetooth
D. Infrared

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
Which of the following protocols would be MOST important in preserving digital evidence of criminal activity during an investigation?
A. Change control management
B. Chain of custody
C. Channel escalation
D. MSDS documents

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 45
Which of the following best practices makes a wireless network more difficult to find?
A. Implement MAC filtering
B. UseWPA2-PSK
C. Disable SSID broadcast
D. Power down unused WAPs

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Network administrators may choose to disable SSID broadcast to hide their network from unauthorized personnel. However, the SSID is still needed to direct
packets to and from the base station, so it’s a discoverable value using a wireless packet sniffer. Thus, the SSID should be disabled if the network isn’t for public
use.
Incorrect Answers:

A: A MAC filter is a list of authorized wireless client interface MAC addresses that is used by a WAP to block access to all unauthorized devices. It does not, however, increase the difficulty of finding a wireless network.
B: WPA-Personal, also referred to as WPA-PSK (Pre-shared key) mode, is designed for home and small office networks and doesn’t require an authentication server. Each wireless network device authenticates with the access point using the same 256-bit key generated from a password or passphrase. Using this option will not decrease the chances of discovering the wireless network.
D: Using this option will not decrease the chances of discovering the wireless network in use.
References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 61.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wi-Fi_Protected_Access

QUESTION 46
Jane, the security administrator, sets up a new AP but realizes too many outsiders are able to connect to that AP and gain unauthorized access. Which of the following would be the BEST way to mitigate this issue and still provide coverage where needed? (Select TWO).
A. Disable the wired ports
B. Use channels 1, 4 and 7 only
C. Enable MAC filtering
D. Disable SSID broadcast
E. Switch from 802.11a to 802.11b
Correct Answer: CD Explanation Explanation/Reference:

Network administrators may choose to disable SSID broadcast to hide their network from unauthorized personnel. However, the SSID is still needed to direct
packets to and from the base station, so it’s a discoverable value using a wireless packet sniffer. Thus, the SSID should be disabled if the network isn’t for public
use.
A MAC filter is a list of authorized wireless client interface MAC addresses that is used by a WAP to block access to all unauthorized devices.

Incorrect Answers:

A: Disabling the wired ports will not prevent outsiders from connecting to the AP and gaining unauthorized access.

B: Selecting the correct channels will prevent interference, not unauthorized access.

E: Doing this will decrease the bandwidth and increase the risk of interference.
References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 61. https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc783011(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 47
Which of the following wireless security technologies continuously supplies new keys for WEP?
A. TKIP
B. Mac filtering

C. WPA2
D. WPA
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
TKIP is a suite of algorithms that works as a “wrapper” to WEP, which allows users of legacy WLAN equipment to upgrade to TKIP without replacing hardware. TKIP uses the original WEP programming but “wraps” additional code at the beginning and end to encapsulate and modify it.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Networks can use MAC address filtering, only allowing devices with specific MAC addresses to connect to a network. It does not continuously supply new keys
for WEP.

C: WPA2 makes use of Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP) and is a more secure standard that WEP or
WPA.

D: WPA replaces WEP, and also uses TKIP.
References:
http://www.howtogeek.com/192173/how-and-why-to-change-your-mac-address-on-windows- linux-and-mac/ Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA
Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 171, 172, 173.

QUESTION 48
A network administrator has been tasked with securing the WLAN. Which of the following cryptographic products would be used to provide the MOST secure environment for the WLAN?
A. WPA2 CCMP
B. WPA
C. WPA with MAC filtering

D. WPA2 TKIP
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
CCMP is the standard encryption protocol for use with the WPA2 standard and is much more secure than the WEP protocol and TKIP protocol of WPA. CCMP provides the following security services: Data confidentiality; ensures only authorized parties can access the information Authentication; provides proof of genuineness of the user Access control in conjunction with layer management
Because CCMP is a block cipher mode using a 128-bit key, it is secure against attacks to the 264 steps of operation.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The Wi-Fi Alliance intended WPA as an intermediate measure to take the place of WEP pending the availability of the full IEEE 802.11i standard. The WPA protocol implements much of the IEEE 802.11i standard. Specifically, the Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) was adopted for WPA. WEP used a 40-bit or 104-bit encryption key that must be manually entered on wireless access points and devices and does not change. TKIP employs a per-packet key, meaning that it dynamically generates a new 128-bit key for each packet and thus prevents the types of attacks that compromised WEP. WPA also includes a message integrity check. This is designed to prevent an attacker from capturing, altering and/or resending data packets. This replaces the cyclic redundancy check (CRC) that was used by the WEP standard. CRC’s main flaw was that it did not provide a sufficiently strong data integrity guarantee for the packets it handled. Well tested message authentication codes existed to solve these problems, but they required too much computation to be used on old network cards. WPA uses a message integrity check algorithm called Michael to verify the integrity of the packets. Michael is much stronger than a CRC, but not as strong as the algorithm used in WPA2.
C: WPA even with the added security of MAC filtering is still inherently less secure than WPA2.
D: CCMP is the standard encryption protocol for use with the WPA2 standard and is much more secure than the TKIP protocol of WPA.
References: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/CCMP http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wi-Fi_Protected_Access
QUESTION 49
An access point has been configured for AES encryption but a client is unable to connect to it. Which of the following should be configured on the client to fix this issue?
A. WEP
B. CCMP
C. TKIP
D. RC4
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
CCMP is an encryption protocol designed for Wireless LAN products that implement the standards of the IEEE 802.11i amendment to the original IEEE 802.11 standard. CCMP is an enhanced data cryptographic encapsulation mechanism designed for data confidentiality and based upon the Counter Mode with CBC-MAC (CCM) of the AES standard.
Incorrect Answers:
A: WEP is based on RC4, and does not use AES.
C: TKIP is a basis for WPA.
D: RC4 is the basis of WEP.
References:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/CCMP
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 59, 60.

QUESTION 50
A security administrator wishes to increase the security of the wireless network. Which of the following BEST addresses this concern?
A. Change the encryption from TKIP-based to CCMP-based.
B. Set all nearby access points to operate on the same channel.
C. Configure the access point to use WEP instead of WPA2.
D. Enable all access points to broadcast their SSIDs.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
CCMP makes use of 128-bit AES encryption with a 48-bit initialization vector. This initialization vector makes cracking a bit more difficult.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Wireless APs with overlapping signals should use unique channel frequencies to reduce interference between them.
C: WEP is not a secure encryption protocol.
D: This will make the network visible, and open for attacks.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 172, 178.
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc783011(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 51
The security administrator has been tasked to update all the access points to provide a more secure connection. All access points currently use WPA TKIP for encryption. Which of the following would be configured to provide more secure connections?
A. WEP
B. WPA2 CCMP
C. Disable SSID broadcast and increase power levels
D. MAC filtering
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
CCMP makes use of 128-bit AES encryption with a 48-bit initialization vector. This initialization vector makes cracking a bit more difficult.
Incorrect Answers:
A: WEP is not a secure encryption protocol.
C: This will only cloak the network, and increase the signal strength.
D: MAC filtering is vulnerable to spoof attacks.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 172, 178.

QUESTION 52
A system administrator wants to enable WPA2 CCMP. Which of the following is the only encryption used?
A. RC4
B. DES
C. 3DES
D. AES
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP) makes use of 128-bit AES encryption with a 48-bit initialization vector.

Incorrect Answers:
A, B, C: These are not used by CCMP

References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 172, 250.

QUESTION 53
Jane, an administrator, needs to make sure the wireless network is not accessible from the parking area of their office. Which of the following would BEST help Jane when deploying a new access point?
A. Placement of antenna
B. Disabling the SSID
C. Implementing WPA2
D. Enabling the MAC filtering
Correct Answer: A Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
You should try to avoid placing access points near metal (which includes appliances) or near the ground. Placing them in the center of the area to be served and high enough to get around most obstacles is recommended. On the chance that the signal is actually traveling too far, some access points include power level controls, which allow you to reduce the amount of output provided.
Incorrect Answers:
B: This option would “cloak” the network, not limit its signal strength.

C: This deals with authentication and would not make sure that the network is inaccessible from the parking area.

D: This would require clients to furnish the security administrator with their device’s MAC address.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 172, 177, 178, 183.

QUESTION 54
A security team has identified that the wireless signal is broadcasting into the parking lot. To reduce the risk of an attack against the wireless network from the parking lot, which of the following controls should be used? (Select TWO).
A. Antenna placement
B. Interference
C. Use WEP
D. Single Sign on
E. Disable the SSID
F. Power levels

Correct Answer: AF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Placing the antenna in the correct position is crucial. You can then adjust the power levels to exclude the parking lot. Incorrect Answers:
B: Interference could disrupt the signal in the building as well.
C: WEP is not a secure encryption protocol.
D: This allows users access to all the applications and systems they need when they log on.
E: This option would “cloak” the network, not limit its signal strength.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 149, 171, 177, 183.

QUESTION 55
Which of the following would Pete, a security administrator, do to limit a wireless signal from penetrating the exterior walls?
A. Implement TKIP encryption
B. Consider antenna placement
C. Disable the SSID broadcast
D. Disable WPA

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cinderblock walls, metal cabinets, and other barriers can reduce signal strength significantly. Therefore, antenna placement is critical.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This option deals with encryption, not signal strength.
C: This option would “cloak” the network, not limit its signal strength.
D: This option deals with authentication, not signal strength.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 172, 173, 177, 183.

QUESTION 56
Ann, a security administrator, has concerns regarding her company’s wireless network. The network is open and available for visiting prospective clients in the conference room, but she notices that many more devices are connecting to the network than should be.
Which of the following would BEST alleviate Ann’s concerns with minimum disturbance of current functionality for clients?
A. Enable MAC filtering on the wireless access point.
B. Configure WPA2 encryption on the wireless access point.
C. Lower the antenna’s broadcasting power.
D. Disable SSID broadcasting.
Correct Answer: C Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Some access points include power level controls that allow you to reduce the amount of output provided if the signal is traveling too far.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This would require clients to furnish the security administrator with their device’s MAC address.
B: This would require clients to ask for Wi-Fi access.
D: Clients would not be able to detect the Wi-Fi network.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 172, 177, 178, 183.

QUESTION 57
After reviewing the firewall logs of her organization’s wireless APs, Ann discovers an unusually high amount of failed authentication attempts in a particular segment of the building. She remembers that a new business moved into the office space across the street. Which of the following would be the BEST option to begin addressing the issue?
A. Reduce the power level of the AP on the network segment
B. Implement MAC filtering on the AP of the affected segment
C. Perform a site survey to see what has changed on the segment
D. Change the WPA2 encryption key of the AP in the affected segment

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Some access points include power level controls that allow you to reduce the amount of output provided if the signal is traveling too far.
Incorrect Answers:
B: MAC filtering is an option further down the line. If reducing the amount of output resolves the issue, the administrative effort will be much less that have to compile a list of the MAC addresses associated with users’ computers and then entering those addresses.
C: A site survey is recommended when laying out a network.
D: The fact that Ann has found failed authentication attempts shows that the WPA2 encryption is not the real issue.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 177, 178.

QUESTION 58
An administrator wants to establish a WiFi network using a high gain directional antenna with a narrow radiation pattern to connect two buildings separated by a very long distance. Which of the following antennas would be BEST for this situation?
A. Dipole
B. Yagi
C. Sector
D. Omni

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A Yagi-Uda antenna, commonly known simply as a Yagi antenna, is a directional antenna consisting of multiple parallel dipole elements in a line, usually made of metal rods. It consists of a single driven element connected to the transmitter or receiver with a transmission line, and additional parasitic elements: a so-called reflector and one or more directors. The reflector element is slightly longer than the driven dipole, whereas the directors are a little shorter. This design achieves a very substantial increase in the antenna’s directionality and gain compared to a simple dipole.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The 15 cm long vertical element you see on most Wi-Fi equipment is actually a dipole antenna. It consists of two elements and is popular because of its omnidirectional radiation pattern.
C: A sector antenna is a type of directional microwave antenna with a sector-shaped radiation pattern. The word “sector” is used in the geometric sense; some portion of the circumference of a circle measured in degrees of arc. 60? 90?and 120?designs are typical, often with a few degrees ‘extra’ to ensure overlap and mounted in multiples when wider or full-circle coverage is required.
D: An omnidirectional antenna is designed to provide a 360-degree pattern and an even signal in all directions
References:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Yagi-Uda_antenna
http://www.techrepublic.com/blog/data-center/80211-time-to-clear-up-some-antenna- misconceptions/ http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sector_antenna#See_also
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 178.

QUESTION 59
A company has recently implemented a high density wireless system by having a junior technician install two new access points for every access point already deployed. Users are now reporting random wireless disconnections and slow network connectivity. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A. The old APs use 802.11a
B. Users did not enter the MAC of the new APs
C. The new APs use MIMO
D. A site survey was not conducted

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
To test the wireless AP placement, a site survey should be performed.
Incorrect Answers:
A: 802.11a operates in the 5 GHz frequency spectrum, and is therefore less likely to have disconnections and slow network connectivity.
B: Entering the MAC address will not prevent disconnections, or speed up network connectivity.
C: This cannot be the cause because MIMO would increase network availability.
References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd348467(v=ws.10).aspx http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/MIMO http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IEEE_802.11a-1999

QUESTION 60
Three of the primary security control types that can be implemented are.
A. Supervisory, subordinate, and peer.
B. Personal, procedural, and legal.
C. Operational, technical, and management.
D. Mandatory, discretionary, and permanent.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) places controls into various types. The control types fall into three categories: Management, Operational, and Technical.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Supervisory, subordinate and peer are not primary security control types.
B: Personal, procedural and legal controls are subsections of managerial control types.
D: Mandatory, discretionary and permanent control types are methods of access control that can be implemented.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 26-27 http://www.professormesser.com/
security-plus/sy0-401/control-types-2/

QUESTION 61
Which of the following technical controls is BEST used to define which applications a user can install and run on a company issued mobile device?
A. Authentication
B. Blacklisting
C. Whitelisting
D. Acceptable use policy

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
White lists are closely related to ACLs and essentially, a white list is a list of items that are allowed. Incorrect Answers:
A: Authentication is always required when applications are installed and uninstalled and to log in to an application.
B: Black lists are exactly the opposite of white lists in that it is essentially a list of items that are not allowed.
D: Acceptable use policy describe how the employees in an organization can use company systems and resources, both software and hardware.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 24, 221 http://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/
definition/application-whitelisting

QUESTION 62
To help prevent unauthorized access to PCs, a security administrator implements screen savers that lock the PC after five minutes of inactivity. Which of the following controls is being described in this situation?
A. Management
B. Administrative
C. Technical
D. Operational

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
controls such as preventing unauthorized access to PC’s and applying screensavers that lock the PC after five minutes of inactivity is a technical control type, the same as Identification and Authentication, Access Control, Audit and Accountability as well as System and Communication Protection.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Management control types include risk assessment, planning, systems and Services Acquisition as well as Certification, Accreditation and Security
Assessment.

B: Administrative tools are used when applying technical control types.

D: Operational control types include Personnel Security, Physical and Environmental Protection, Contingency planning, Configuration Management, Maintenance,
System and Information Integrity, Media Protection, Incident Response and Awareness and Training.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 27

QUESTION 63
Which of the following is a management control?
A. Logon banners
B. Written security policy
C. SYN attack prevention
D. Access Control List (ACL)

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Management control types include risk assessment, planning, systems and Services Acquisition as well as Certification, Accreditation and Security Assessment; and written security policy falls in this category.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Logon banners are configuration management which is an operational control type.
C: SYN attack prevention is done by exercising technical control measures.
D: ACLs are technical control measures.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 27

QUESTION 64
Which of the following can result in significant administrative overhead from incorrect reporting?
A. Job rotation
B. Acceptable usage policies
C. False positives
D. Mandatory vacations
Correct Answer: C Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
False positives are essentially events that are mistakenly flagged and are not really events to be concerned about. This causes a significant administrative

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Question No : 41 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following protocols resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses?
A. DNS
B. ARP
C. RARP
D. NTP
Answer: B
Explanation:
ARP is used to convert an IP address to a physical address such as an Ethernet address. ARP has been implemented with many combinations of network and data link layer technologies, such as IPv4, Chaosnet, DECnet and Xerox PARC Universal Packet (PUP) using IEEE 802 standards, FDDI, X.25, Frame Relay and Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM). IPv4 over IEEE 802.3 and IEEE 802.11 is the most common case.

Question No : 42 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following port numbers is used for SNMP?
A. 61
B. 151
C. 161
D. 1611
Answer: C

Explanation:
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is an “Internet-standard protocol for managing devices on IP networks”. Devices that typically support SNMP include routers, switches, servers, workstations, printers, modem racks, UPSes and more. It is used mostly in network management systems to monitor network-attached devices for conditions that warrant administrative attention.

Question No : 43 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following is the definition of a DNS server?
A. Hosts proprietary business applications
B. Translates FQDN’s to IP addresses
C. Provides network IDS/IPS security
D. Assigns IP addresses to network devices
Answer: B

Explanation:
Domain Name System (DNS) is the name resolution protocol for TCP/IP networks, such as the Internet. Client computers query a DNS server to resolve memorable, alphanumeric DNS names to the IP addresses that computers use to communicate with each other.

Question No : 44 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following features can BEST be used to facilitate authorized remote access to a network?
A. VPN concentrator
B. Proxy server
C. Content filter
D. Load balancer
Answer: A

Explanation:
The VPN Concentrator is used for Remote Access VPN’s. In typical use, a Remote Access VPN allows users to use an encrypted tunnel to securely access a corporate or other network via the Internet.

Question No : 45 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following is a Class A IP address?
A. 10.4.0.1
B. 169.254.0.1
C. 192.168.0.1
D. 254.200.0.1
Answer: A
Explanation:
Class A ip address ranges from 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255

Question No : 46 – (Topic 1)
A network where all traffic feeds through a centralized gateway uses which of the following topologies?
A. Peer-to-peer
B. Ring
C. Bus
D. Star
Answer: D

Explanation:
A bus topology is a type of network setup where each computer and network device is connected to a single cable or backbone.

Question No : 47 – (Topic 1)
In order to limit the number of dynamic addresses of hosts on a network, which of the following can be implemented?
A. Scope options
B. Leases
C. Reservations
D. DNS suffixes

Answer: A
Question No : 48 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following IP address/subnet mask combinations represent a broadcast address? (Select TWO).
A. 200.200.100.0/28
B. 200.200.100.32/27
C. 200.200.100.63/27
D. 200.200.100.79/27
E. 200.200.100.95/27
F. 200.200.100.254/30
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
A broadcast address is a logical address at which all devices connected to a multiple-access communications network are enabled to receive datagrams. A message sent to a broadcast address is typically received by all network-attached hosts, rather than by a specific host. ReferencE. http://www.wikihow.com/Calculate-Network-and-Broadcast-Address

Question No : 49 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following networking devices can exist at several layers of the OSI model at the same time? (Select TWO).
A. Switch
B. Cable
C. Repeater
D. Router
E. Bridge
F. Hub
Answer: A,D

Explanation:
A Multilayer Switch and Router work from OSI layer 2, 3 or 4 to IP DSCP (if IP packet) and/or VLAN IEEE 802.1p.

Question No : 50 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following is a path vector routing protocol?
A. RIP
B. EIGRP
C. ISIS
D. OSPF
E. BGP
Answer: E
Explanation:
Because BGP involves a table of IP networks or “prefixes” which designate network reachability among autonomous systems (AS).

Question No : 51 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following routing protocols utilizes the DUAL algorithm for determining best path?
A. EIGRP
B. RIPv2

C. OSPF
D. RIP
Answer: A
Explanation: Diffusing Update Algorithm guarantees loop-free operation and provides a mechanism for fast convergence.

Question No : 52 – (Topic 1)
The network interface layer of the TCP/IP model corresponds with which of the following layers of the OSI model? (Select TWO).
A. Transport layer
B. Network layer
C. Session layer
D. Physical layer
E. Presentation layer
F. Data link layer
Answer: D,F

Explanation:
The lowest layer of the OSI Reference Model is the physical layer, which is responsible for the “nitty gritty” details of transmitting information from one place to another on a network. The layer just above the physical layer is the data link layer, called the network interface layer or just the link layer in the TCP/IP architectural model. Its primary job is to implement networks at the local level, and to interface between the hardware-oriented physical layer, and the more abstract, software-oriented functions of the network layer and those above it.

Question No : 53 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following BEST describes the definition of DHCP?
A. DHCP is utilized to dynamically lease IP addresses to hosts.
B. DHCP is utilized to statically lease IP address to hosts.
C. DHCP is utilized to permanently lease IP address dynamically to hosts.
D. DHCP is utilized to permanently lease IP address statically to hosts.

Answer: A
Explanation: Because DHCP server maintains a database of available IP addresses and configuration information. When the server receives a request from a client, the DHCP server determines the network to which the DHCP client is connected, and then allocates an IP address or prefix that is appropriate for the client, and sends configuration information appropriate for that client

Question No : 54 – (Topic 1)
Multiple servers’ IP addresses fall within the DHCP scope assigned by the administrator. Which of the following should be implemented to ensure these static IP addresses are not assigned to workstations?
A. The administrator should create exclusions for the workstations IP addresses.
B. The administrator should change the servers to utilize DHCP to obtain IP addresses.
C. The administrator should change the workstations to utilize static IP addresses.
D. The administrator should create exclusions for the servers IP addresses.
Answer: D

Explanation:
Whenever you define the ip pool from which IP addresses are to be dynamically assigned to the users then in order to avoid assignment of static ip address we can creat exclusion for the static ip addresses so that they are not assigned to any other host and this is how we can avoid ip address conflict on the network.
Question No : 55 – (Topic 1)
The APIPA address 169.254.10.123 falls into which of the following class of addresses?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: B
Explanation:
As the range for class B is from 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255

Question No : 56 – (Topic 1)
A technician replaces a failed router in an office with the same model unit using the default settings. After the installation, the technician reboots all of the PCs and servers. Upon reboot some of the PCs are receiving IP addresses on the same subnet as the new router; other PCs are receiving addresses on the same subnet as the servers. Which of the following most likely describes the issue?
A. The DHCP lease pool was not large enough
B. DHCP lease times were set too low
C. The router is not the only DHCP server
D. DHCP was not enabled on the replacement router
Answer: C

Explanation:
This happens when there are multiple DHCP servers in the same LAN subnet. Here some machines are getting ip address from the router while some are getting ip address from another DHCP server present in the same domain.

Question No : 57 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following is the OSI layer that handles file compression such as LZMA or DEFLATE?
A. Layer 3
B. Layer 5
C. Layer 6
D. Layer 7
Answer: C

Explanation:
The presentation level is translator between the application and network format. Unlike the lower layers, its concern is with the syntax and semantics of the information transmitted. Most user programs do not exchange random binary bit strings. They exchange data such as names, addresses, dates, etc. Different computers store the data in a different way. In order to allow these computers to transmit the data to each other the presentation layer translates the data into a standard form to be used on the network. Another function is data compression which can be used to reduce the number of bits needed to send the packet of information. Security is also added at this layer by using data encryption and decryption. This prevents others from intercepting the data and being able to decipher the meaning of the bits.

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QUESTION 30
The security team has determined that the default setting for the connection ticket is too long and wants to shorten the period that the ticket is valid for authentication.
Which GPO needs to be configured and applied to the View environment?
A. vdm_common.adm
B. vdm_client.adm
C. vdm_server.adm
D. vdm_agent.adm Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 31
Which two View user management policies are handled by Active Directory? (Choose two.)
A. Manually disconnecting user sessions
B. Restricting access to specific Connection Servers
C. Restricting permitted hours to log in
D. Setting password expiration dates
Correct Answer: CD Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
What is the default port number that View Composer uses to communicate with other View components?
A. 4001
B. 4100
C. 443
D. 18443 Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 33
What is the maximum supported number of linked clone virtual machines View Composer can provision per pool?
A. 512
B. 1024
C. 128
D. 256 Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 34
What is the default number of linked clone virtual machines that View Composer will recompose at one time?
A. 2
B. 8
C. 64
D. 128
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 35
What is the maximum number of ESXi hosts in a vSphere cluster used by View Composer if using VMFS datastores?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 32
D. 16
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
From http://myvirtualcloud.net/?p=3245
8 Hosts per Cluster when used with VMFS did not change This limit is hard-coded in View Composer;
however it comes from a VMFS limitation on the number of hosts that can simultaneously read from a
single VMDK. This VMDK in a VMware View environment with View Composer would be the Replica disk.

QUESTION 36
Which setting in View Composer can be used to reduce the storage footprint of a pool of virtual desktops?
A. redirect disposable files to a non-persistent disk
B. redirect temporary files to a non-persistent disk
C. redirect user profile data to a non-persistent disk
D. store Windows profile on a disposable disk
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 37
An administrator is creating a new account for use with View Composer. What is the minimum security group to which the account must belong?
A. Domain Administrators
B. Domain Computers
C. Domain Users
D. Forest Administrators Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 38
An administrator is attempting to add a vCenter Server to View Administrator in order to add View Composer.
Which three prerequisites are necessary prior to adding the vCenter Server to View? (Choose three.)
A. Configure the View Pairing Password.
B. Install an SSL certificate on vCenter Server.
C. Install the View Connection Server product key.
D. Configure a vCenter Server user with correct permissions.
E. Configure a View Composer user with correct permissions.
Correct Answer: BCD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A. Is necessary for Security Server, not for Composer C. There is no View Connection Server product key, View is licensed by concurrent
QUESTION 39
An administrator is receiving an error when trying to connect to View Composer from the View Administrator. The environment has been upgraded from 4.0.x. Why can the connection not be made?
A. The network port is no longer valid.
B. The View Composer service must be restarted.
C. An incorrect certificate was chosen during installation.
D. Security certificates cannot be migrated between versions. Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
An administrator is creating a new user for use with View Composer and needs to add the appropriate permissions.
Which three non-default permissions are required for the new account? (Choose three.)
A. Write All Properties
B. Read All Properties
C. Create All Child Objects
D. Delete Computer Objects
E. Create Computer Objects Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 41
An IT company requires its field employees to use their View desktops in local mode only. The View administrator sets the Local Mode policy for the Field Employee pool to Allow, but notices that some users are not exclusively using local mode.
Which additional step should the administrator perform to ensure that field agents use local mode only?
A. set the Remote Mode View policy for the Field Agent pool to Deny
B. set the Local Mode policy for the Field Agent pool to Local Only
C. set the View Transfer Server to Local Only
D. ensure the users perform a rollback of the local View desktop to reset its state Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 42
A View administrator needs to reduce the size of local mode desktop downloads. Which connection server setting should be enabled?
A. use linked clones for local mode operations
B. use network optimization for local mode operations
C. use deduplication for local mode operations
D. use compression for local mode operations Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 43
A newly created View Composer base image is unavailable for checkout in a local mode-enabled linked clone desktop pool.
Which task must be performed on the base image so that it is available for checkout?
A. convert the View Composer base image to a template in vCenter Server
B. publish the View Composer base image as a package in the Transfer Server repository
C. copy the View Composer base image to a Transfer Server via vCenter Server
D. publish the View Composer base image as a full virtual machine Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 44
An administrator creates a kiosk mode desktop. The client device is unable to connect to the desktop. Which action should the administrator take to resolve this issue?
A. activate kiosk mode for each View Connection Server
B. add the cm- or Custom- prefix to the AD account for the client device
C. enable kiosk mode on the desktop through View Administrator
D. create AD accounts for all users authorized to use the desktop
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 45
A View environment requires a thin client to automatically connect to a kiosk mode desktop without a password.
How can the administrator accomplish this?
A. configure the assigned desktop in Unsecured mode
B. add the thin client MAC address to the Kiosk folder on the View Connection Server
C. disable password checking from the View Administrator
D. set an automatically-generated password for the client account Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46
A View administrator has received a request for a View desktop configured for kiosk mode. Which three steps must a View administrator perform to accomplish this task? (Choose three.)
A. enable kiosk mode authentication from the Kiosk Mode tab under the View Administration Console
B. configure Active Directory to accept the kiosk mode accounts
C. enable authentication of clients in kiosk mode from the View desktops
D. configure kiosk mode service on the View desktop
E. configure the View Accounts to be used with kiosk mode from the View Administration Console Correct Answer: BCE
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 47
What are two requirements for creating a Kiosk Mode user in Active Directory? (Choose two.)
A. The name must be less than 21 characters long.
B. The name must match a local user on the Connection Server.
C. The name must reference the MAC address of the client device.
D. The name must start with a recognized prefix string. Correct Answer: AD
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 48
Which View feature is used to authenticate a Kiosk Mode connection by client device rather than end user?
A. Device Verification
B. Flexible Authentication
C. Kiosk Security
D. vShield Endpoint Security
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: View Manager uses the Flexible Authentication feature in VMware View 4.5 and later to authenticate a client device in kiosk mode rather than the end user. You can configure a View Connection Server instance to authenticate clients that identify themselves by their MAC address or by a user name that starts with the characters “custom-” or with an alternate prefix string that you have defined in ADAM. If you configure a client to have an automatically generated password, you can run View Client on the device without specifying a password. If you Configure an explicit password, you must specify this password to View Client. As you would usually run View Client from a script, and the password would appear in clear text, you should take precautions to make the script unreadable by unprivileged users.
QUESTION 49
A system administrator needs to create an application repository for ThinApp deployments from View Administrator.
Which two items are required in order to complete this task? (Choose two.)
A. Windows network share
B. ThinApp Distribution point
C. NFS datastore
D. ThinApp MSI files
Correct Answer: AD Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
A system administrator has an existing ThinApp package that needs to be integrated with View for deployment.
When rebuilding the corresponding ThinApp package, which line does the system administrator need to add to the package.ini file to enable application streaming?
A. ThinAppStreaming=0
B. MSIStreaming=1
C. MSIStreaming=0
D. ThinAppStreaming=1
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 51
A system administrator has an existing ThinApp package that needs to be integrated with View 5.0 for deployment.
When rebuilding the corresponding ThinApp package, which line does the system administrator need to add to the package.ini file to enable full deployment of the application to view users?
A. MSIStreaming=1
B. ThinAppStreaming=1
C. MSIStreaming=0
D. ThinAppStreaming=0 Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Streaming means no Installation on Desktop, Application will be streamed. So a Full Installation is without Streaming
QUESTION 52
A ThinApp administrator needs to capture an application that leverages ODBC connections.
Which step should the administrator take during the ThinApp capture and build process to enable this functionality inside the ThinApp package?
A. configure the ODBC connections before starting the capture process
B. configure the ODBC connections during the capture process
C. configure the ODBC connections as an upgrade patch to a completed ThinApp application
D. configure the ODBC connections outside the capture process on the client workstations Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
A ThinApp administrator needs to capture an application that leverages .NET 2.0 as a prerequisite. The enterprise has standardized on .NET 2.0 on the corporate desktop image.
Which step should the administrator take during the ThinApp capture and build process to enable the ThinApp package to leverage the .NET 2.0 instance installed on the corporate desktop images?
A. Install .NET 2.0 as part of the ThinApp capture process
B. Install .NET 2.0 as an upgrade patch to a completed ThinApp application
C. Install .NET 2.0 as part of the capture workstation before starting the ThinApp capture process
D. Install .NET 2.0 outside the capture process on the client workstations Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
A View administrator needs to distribute ThinApp packages from a newly created ThinApp Repository. The corresponding ThinApp package has been set with the streaming option.
Which three ThinApp specific items will be stored inside the corresponding application repository? (Choose three.)
A. the ThinApp sandbox for the corresponding ThinApp package
B. the .EXE file for the corresponding ThinApp package
C. the .DAT file for the corresponding ThinApp package
D. the .MSI file containing the shortcut
E. a shortcut to the ThinApp package on the network share Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 55
Which steps must a View administrator perform to configure View Persona Management with View desktops?
A. Install the View Agent with the View Persona Management setup option on the replica.
B. Install the View Agent with the View Persona Management setup option on the vCenter Server systems.
C. Install the View Agent with the View Persona Management setup option on the virtual machine that is used as a parent or template.
D. Install the View Agent on the virtual machine and enable the View Persona Management option on first boot.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 56
In a View environment, users access both View and physical desktops. Users access their View desktops with View Persona Management and their standard desktops with Windows roaming profiles.
What is the recommended configuration?
A. Disable profile sharing in the persona management folder.
B. Enable profile sharing in the persona management folder.
C. Use different profiles for the two desktop types.
D. Use the same profile for the two desktop types. Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 57
View Persona Management has been installed and enabled on your virtual machines in your environment. What is recommended for Persona Management backup?
A. Snapshot the Desktop and then backup the profile.
B. Set the Persona Management software to enable before backing up.
C. Enable the Persona Management plugin in the vStorage APIs for Data Protection.
D. Do not use backup software products like MozyPro or Windows Volume backup services. Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 58
A View deployment consists of ThinApp applications as well as other types of applications. The administrator wants to configure the user profiles to include the ThinApp sandbox folders.
Which action will meet this requirement?
A. Enable the Folders to background download group policy settings and add the user’s files.
B. Enable the Folders to background download group policy settings and add the ThinApp sandbox folders.
C. Enable the Files and folders to preload group policy settings and add the ThinApp sandbox folders during the login.
D. Enable the Roam Local Settings folders to preload group policy settings and add the ThinApp sandbox folders
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 59
What can an administrator specify within a user’s persona that are managed by Windows roaming profiles functionality instead of View Persona Management?
A. ADM Template
B. Files and Folders
C. Network Share
D. Persona Repository
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 60
Which two approaches can an administrator use to configure View Persona Management for one desktop pool? (Choose two.)
A. Add the View Persona Management Administrative (ADM) Template file to each desktop in the pool.
B. Add the View Persona Management Administrative (ADM) Template file to the virtual machine that is used to create the pool.
C. Add the View Persona Management Administrative (ADM) Template file to Active Directory and apply the group policy settings to the OU that contains the users in the pool.
D. Add the View Persona Management Administrative (ADM) Template file to Active Directory and apply the group policy settings to the OU that contains the desktops in the pool.
Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 61
A View administrator is instructed to use a network share to store the user profile repository for a View Persona Management deployment.
What are the two recommended locations for this network share? (Choose two.)
A. A shared folder on a local drive
B. A shared folder on a network server
C. A shared folder on an Active Directory server
D. A shared folder on a network-attached storage (NAS) device Correct Answer: BD
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
View Persona Management has been installed on the virtual machines in a View environment. How often are changes in the local profile copied to the remote repository by default?
A. Every 5 minutes
B. Every 10 minutes
C. During login and every 10 minutes after login
D. An interval must be specified by the administrator
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 63
View Persona Management has been installed and enabled on your virtual machines. The administrator wants to manage the View user personas.
Which statement is true?
A. The administrator can manage View user personas by logging into the remote repository.
B. The administrator can manage View user personas within the Folder view of the View Administrator.
C. The administrator cannot manage View user personas by adding the ADM Template file to Active Directory.
D. The administrator cannot manage View user personas by using the Windows roaming profiles functions.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
A View administrator is configuring the events database.
Which two data repository configurations will allow users to monitor events in View Administrator? (Choose two.)
A. Oracle with SQL authentication
B. Microsoft SQL Server with Integrated Windows authentication
C. Microsoft SQL Server with SQL authentication
D. Oracle with Integrated Windows authentication
Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
SQL-Server Auth. is used, not Windows Auth.!

QUESTION 65
What is a prerequisite for configuring an events database?
A. The events database certificate must be created
B. An ODBC data source for the events database must exist
C. A prefix for the tables in the events database has been defined
D. The username and password of an administrator on View Administrator
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

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QUESTION 32
To what does an internal structure of a class refer?

A. the decomposition of that class in terms of interconnected parts
B. the set of structural features of that class
C. the inheritance structure of that class
D. the set of nested classifiers of that class
E. class and associations owned by that class
Answer: A
QUESTION 33
When an object invokes a ReadSelfAction, what will it retrieve?

A. attribute values for the invoking object
B. invoking object
C. attribute values and links for the invoking object
D. class name of the invoking object
E. name of the invoking activity
Answer: D
QUESTION 34
What is the semantic difference between the two figures in the exhibit?
Exhibit:

A. One is a white-box view, while the other is a black-box view.
B. One is a deployment diagram, while the other is a class diagram.
C. There is no semantic difference.
D. One is a UML 2.0 diagram, while other is a UML 1.5 diagram.
Answer: C
QUESTION 35
What kind of relationship is an extension in UML 2.0?

A. generalization
B. dependency
C. association
D. reification
Answer: C
QUESTION 36
What is true about guards on interaction operands?

A. should not refer to any dynamic variables, i.e., to attributes of the lifelines
B. must only cover one lifeline, namely the one lifeline having the first event occurrence of the interaction operand
C. must always cover all lifelines covered by the operand
D. must cover the same lifelines on all interaction operands within one combined fragment
Answer: B
QUESTION 37
What does via foo in the exhibit designate?
Exhibit:

A. an action foo associated with the transition
B. transient pseudostate named foo
C. a transition terminating on the foo entry point
D. a Boolean guard equal to the logical value of foo
E. the sending of a foo message on the transition
Answer: C
QUESTION 38
Why are profiles NOT a first class extension mechanism?

A. They do not allow for modifying existing metamodels.
B. They do not permit customizing for domains, platforms, and methods.
C. They permit removing constraints that apply to existing metamodels.
D. They do not allow for modifying existing stereotypes.
Answer: A
QUESTION 39 What must be true for a connector to be well formed if a delegation connector delegates to more than one target port?
A. The interfaces of the target ports must have no features in common.
B. The interface of at least one of the target ports must be signature compatible with the interface that is the type of the source port.
C. The interface of each of the target ports must be signature compatible with the interface that is the type of the source port.
D. The union of the interfaces of the target ports must be signature compatible with the interface that is the type of the source port.
Answer: D

QUESTION 40
A component may legally participate in which relationship(s)?

A. associations and generalizations
B. dependencies, associations, and generalizations
C. dependencies and generalizations
D. dependencies
Answer: B
QUESTION 41
Which must be true in order to use a delegation connector to connect two components?

A. The components must be related to each other via a dependency.
B. One component must be part of the internal realization of the other component.
C. The components must have complex ports.
D. One component must be a subtype of the other.
Answer: B
QUESTION 42
In the exhibit, if the incoming arrow provides a value, how many of the outgoing arrows
will be given values?
Exhibit:
A. three
B. one
C. two
D. none
Answer: A
QUESTION 43 What will be deleted when performing a DestroyObjectAction on an object that participates in a composition association with many components?
A. component objects
B. object, all its links, and all linked objects

C. object and all its links
D. object and all its component objects
E. object
Answer: E
QUESTION 44
How can the internals of a component be presented?

A. using a complex component connector
B. in a compartment of the component box or via boxes nested within the component box
C. in a compartment of the component box or a component requires port
D. component provides port or a component requires port
Answer: B
QUESTION 45
How many bar shapes can appear in a well-defined activity diagram?

A. exactly two
B. an odd number
C. an even number
D. any number
Answer: D
QUESTION 46
What is true when deferrable triggers of a state specify triggering events?

A. are of lower priority
B. will be consumed after the state is exited
C. are ignored in that state
D. will be consumed when a state in which they are no longer deferred is reached
Answer: D
QUESTION 47
For what does an interaction operator define semantics?

A. a particular message
B. a particular combined fragment
C. a particular interaction fragment
D. a particular interaction
Answer: B QUESTION 48 What relationships are used to wire (i.e., fully interconnect) components together so that they are interoperable?

A. realization relationships and associations
B. associations and connectors
C. dependencies and connectors
D. dependencies, connectors, and realization relationships
Answer: C
QUESTION 49
What may a profile NOT own?

A. metaclasses
B. stereotypes
C. new associations
D. associations that redefine existing associations
Answer: C
QUESTION 50
What does a circle with an X in it (as depicted in the exhibit) represent inside UML 2.0
activity diagrams?
Exhibit:
A. flow final nodes
B. merges
C. decisions
D. activity final nodes
E. forks
F. initial nodes
G. joins
Answer: A

QUESTION 51
Assume !p denotes sending of p, ?p the reception of p. In the exhibit, what traces are
valid? (Choose three)
Exhibit:
A. <!p, ?p, !q, ?q>
B. <!p, ?p, !r, !r, ?r, ?r, !q, ?q>
C. <!p, !r, ?p, ?r, !r, !q, ?r, ?q>
D. <!p, !r, ?p, ?r, !r, ?r, !r, ?r, !q, ?q>
E. <!p, ?p, !r, ?r, !r, !q, ?r, ?q>
F. <!p, !r, ?p, ?r, !r, ?r, !r, ?q, !r, ?q>
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION 52
What kind of class is the Device class?

A. Hardware
B. ExecutionEnvironment
C. Association
D. Installation
E. Node
Answer: E
QUESTION 53
In the exhibit, how many of the arrows must provide values for the outgoing arrow to be
given a value?
Exhibit:

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