A Brief Guide On How I passed the Citrix 1Y0-201 Exam

Posted by previousublingkey on 13 December 2016, 9:25 am

Skillfully Made Citrix 1Y0-201 PDF

The Citrix 1Y0-201 PDF, 1Y0-201 practice exam and 1Y0-201 inquiries and answers at Pass-4Sure are composed and arranged by Citrix partnered mentors and teachers with many years of involvement in the IT field. This guarantees you are furnished with the most recent and most current data of the Managing Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solutions to give you a superior shot of passing the Citrix 1Y0-201 exam. 1Y0-201 Managing Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solutions is confirmation from Citrix for its experts to propel their expert profession. Citrix 1Y0-201 is a prized ownership in today’s focused world and gives you a chance to pick up information and comprehension of Citrix items.

Minimal effort Yet Effective Citrix 1Y0-201 PDF

At https://www.pass4itsure.com/1y0-201.html, we are sure that our Citrix 1Y0-201 readiness material with inquiries and answers pdf, 1Y0-201 practice exam and 1Y0-201 PDF are the most economical and give most top to bottom answers for people that are planning for the Citrix 1Y0-201 inquiries and answers. Our simple to utilize and comprehend Citrix 1Y0-201 pdf will permit you the chance to know precisely what’s in store on the exam day.Citrix has an extensive variety of affirmation exams for their diverse confirmations in light of their items and administrations. Citrix 1Y0-201 affirmation helps in accepting the aptitudes and experience of an IT proficient or an understudy of the Citrix’s item or administration in concern.

images-5

Why Is Citrix 1Y0-201 Certification Important?

Citrix 1Y0-201 exam helps one to pick up information and catch up on their comprehension of the diverse Citrix items and administrations. The more number of Citrix exams that you show up for, more you add to your aptitude set and involvement with the affirmations that you gain. With 1z0-060 dumps confirmation added to your repertoire, you can conceivable procure your fantasy work. You can likewise climb the step of achievement in your IT profession with the right affirmations chose.With our Citrix 1Y0-201 readiness material with inquiries and answers pdf and 1Y0-201 dumps inquiries and answers, you will have the capacity to pass the Managing Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solutions, in your first endeavor.

Cash Back Guarantee

The best part about learning Citrix 1Y0-201 with Pass-4Sure is that we set you up to exceed expectations. We don’t leave anything shy of guaranteeing that you get the most far reaching set of Citrix 1Y0-201 inquiries and answers arranged by the most splendid personalities from Citrix. We offer simple to-condensation Citrix 1Y0-201 readiness material with inquiries and answers pdf that won’t take you a considerable measure of time to fathom and you can without much of a stretch concealment the whole Citrix 1Y0-201 vce syllabus for your examination. Our principle target is to guarantee that you pass your Citrix 1Y0-201 exam in the primary endeavor with the assistance of our precise and genuine case in the Citrix 1Y0-201 PDF. https://www.pass4itsure.com/1y0-201.html

200-105 exam

Where I can Find The 2016 New Oracle 1Z0-060 Dumps For Free

Posted by previousublingkey on 16 November 2016, 3:00 am

Oracle 1Z0-060 exam is a hot Microsoft certification test. It is the choice of a great number of IT professionals. After using Passcert Latest Oracle 1Z0-060 dumps,you don’t need to make other effort to take any other books or courses.Latest Oracle 1Z0-060 dumps help you in keeping yourself up-to-date with the latest Latest Oracle 1Z0-060 dumps available in the market. Flydumps Latest Oracle 1Z0-060 dumps are designed to make individuals feel confident after your studying about Flydumps products. https://www.pass4itsure.com/1z0-060.html

1Z0-060 dumps

QUESTION 28
In a recent Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report for your database, you notice a high number of buffer busy waits. The database consists of locally managed tablespaces with free list managed segments.
On further investigation, you find that buffer busy waits is caused by contention on data blocks.
Which option would you consider first to decrease the wait event immediately?
A. Decreasing PCTUSED
B. Decreasing PCTFREE
C. Increasing the number of DBWN process
D. Using Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM)
E. Increasing db_buffer_cache based on the V$DB_CACHE_ADVICE recommendation

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Automatic segment space management (ASSM) is a simpler and more efficient way *
of managing space within a segment. It completely eliminates any need to specify and tune the pctused,freelists, and freelist groups storage parameters for
schema objects created in the tablespace. If any of these attributes are specified, they are ignored.
Oracle introduced Automatic Segment Storage Management (ASSM) as a *
replacement for traditional freelists management which used one-way linked-lists to manage free blocks with tables and indexes. ASSM is commonly called
“bitmap freelists” because that is how Oracle implement the internal data structures for free block management.

Note:

*
Buffer busy waits are most commonly associated with segment header contention onside the data buffer pool (db_cache_size, etc.).

*
The most common remedies for high buffer busy waits include database writer (DBWR) contention tuning, adding freelists (or ASSM), and adding missing indexes.
QUESTION 29
Examine this command:
SQL > exec DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS (`SH’, `CUSTOMERS’, `PUBLISH’, `false’); Which three statements are true about the effect of this command?
A. Statistics collection is not done for the CUSTOMERS table when schema stats are gathered.
B. Statistics collection is not done for the CUSTOMERS table when database stats are gathered.
C. Any existing statistics for the CUSTOMERS table are still available to the optimizer at parse time.
D. Statistics gathered on the CUSTOMERS table when schema stats are gathered are stored as pending statistics.
E. Statistics gathered on the CUSTOMERS table when database stats are gathered are stored as pending statistics.

Correct Answer: CDE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
*
SET_TABLE_PREFS Procedure

This procedure is used to set the statistics preferences of the specified table in the specified schema.

*
Example: Using Pending Statistics
Assume many modifications have been made to the employees table since the last time statistics were gathered. To ensure that the cost-based optimizer is still picking the best plan, statistics should be gathered once again; however, the user is concerned that new statistics will cause the optimizer to choose bad plans when the current ones are acceptable. The user can do the following:
EXEC DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS(‘hr’, ’employees’, ‘PUBLISH’, ‘false’);
By setting the employees tables publish preference to FALSE, any statistics gather from now on will not be automatically published. The newly gathered statistics will be marked as pending.
QUESTION 30
Examine the following impdp command to import a database over the network from a pre-12c Oracle database (source):

Which three are prerequisites for successful execution of the command?
A. The import operation must be performed by a user on the target database with the DATAPUMP_IMP_FULL_DATABASE role, and the database link must connect to a user on the source database with the DATAPUMP_EXD_FULL_DATABASE role.
B. All the user-defined tablespaces must be in read-only mode on the source database.
C. The export dump file must be created before starting the import on the target database.
D. The source and target database must be running on the same platform with the same endianness.
E. The path of data files on the target database must be the same as that on the source database.
F. The impdp operation must be performed by the same user that performed the expdp operation.

Correct Answer: ABE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
1.Ensure that the exporting user at the source database has the DAT- APUMP_EXP_FULL_DATABASE role. This user must be specified when you create the data- base link.
2.
Ensure that the importing user at the destination database has the DATAPUMP_IMP_FULL_DATABASE role.

3.
Create and test a database link between the source and destination databases.

4.
Run the following command, where import_user is the username for the importing user, and db_link is the name of the data base link owned by the exporting user: IMPDP import_user NETWORK_LINK=db_link FULL=Y;
QUESTION 31
Which two are true concerning a multitenant container database with three pluggable database?
A. All administration tasks must be done to a specific pluggable database.
B. The pluggable databases increase patching time.
C. The pluggable databases reduce administration effort.
D. The pluggable databases are patched together.
E. Pluggable databases are only used for database consolidation.

Correct Answer: CE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The benefits of Oracle Multitenant are brought by implementing a pure deployment choice. The following list calls out the most compelling examples.
*
High consolidation density. (E)
The many pluggable databases in a single multitenant container database share its memory and background processes, letting you operate many more pluggable
databases on a particular platform than you can single databases that use the old architecture. This is the same benefit that schema-based consolidation brings.
*
Rapid provisioning and cloning using SQL.
*
New paradigms for rapid patching and upgrades. (D, not B)
The investment of time and effort to patch one multitenant container database results in patching all of its many pluggable databases. To patch a single pluggable
database, you simply unplug/plug to a multitenant container database at a different Oracle Database software version.
*
(C, not A) Manage many databases as one.
By consolidating existing databases as pluggable databases, administrators can manage many databases as one. For example, tasks like backup and disaster
recovery are performed at the multitenant container database level.
*
Dynamic between pluggable database resource management. In Oracle Database 12c, Resource Manager is extended with specific functionality to control the
competition for resources between the pluggable databases within a multitenant container database.
Note:
*
Oracle Multitenant is a new option for Oracle Database 12c Enterprise Edition that helps customers reduce IT costs by simplifying consolidation, provisioning,
upgrades, and more. It is supported by a new architecture that allows a multitenant container database to hold many pluggable databases. And it fully
complements other options, including Oracle Real Application Clusters and Oracle Active Data Guard. An existing database can be simply adopted, with no
change, as a pluggable database; and no changes are needed in the other tiers of the application.

Reference: 12c Oracle Multitenant
QUESTION 32
Examine the current value for the following parameters in your database instance:
SGA_MAX_SIZE = 1024M SGA_TARGET = 700M DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE = 124M LOG_BUFFER = 200M
You issue the following command to increase the value of DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE=140M;
Which statement is true?
A. It fails because the DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE parameter cannot be changed dynamically.
B. It succeeds only if memory is available from the autotuned components if SGA.
C. It fails because an increase in DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE cannot be accommodated within SGA_TARGET.
D. It fails because an increase in DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE cannot be accommodated within SGA_MAX_SIZE.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
*
The SGA_TARGET parameter can be dynamically increased up to the value specified for the parameter, and it can also be reduced.
SGA_MAX_SIZE
*
Example:
For example, suppose you have an environment with the following configuration:
SGA_MAX_SIZE = 1024M SGA_TARGET = 512M DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE = 128M In this example, the value of SGA_TARGET can be resized up to 1024M and can also be reduced until one or more of the automatically sized components reaches its minimum size. The exact value depends on environmental factors such as the number of CPUs on the system. However, the value of DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE remains fixed at all times at 128M

*
DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE Size of cache for 8K buffers

*
For example, consider this configuration:
SGA_TARGET = 512M
DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE = 128M
In this example, increasing DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE by 16 M to 144M means that the 16M is taken away from the automatically sized components. Likewise,
reducing DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE by 16M to 112M means that the 16M is given to the automatically sized components.

QUESTION 33
Which three statements are true concerning unplugging a pluggable database (PDB)?
A. The PDB must be open in read only mode.
B. The PDB must be dosed.
C. The unplugged PDB becomes a non-CDB.
D. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into the same multitenant container database (CDB)
E. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into another CDB.
F. The PDB data files are automatically removed from disk.

Correct Answer: BDE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B, not A: The PDB must be closed before unplugging it.
D: An unplugged PDB contains data dictionary tables, and some of the columns in these encode information in an endianness-sensitive way. There is no supported way to handle the conversion of such columns automatically. This means, quite simply, that an unplugged PDB cannot be moved across an endianness difference.
E (not F): To exploit the new unplug/plug paradigm for patching the Oracle version most effectively, the source and destination CDBs should share a filesystem so that the PDB’s datafiles can remain in place.
Reference: Oracle White Paper, Oracle Multitenant
QUESTION 34
Examine the following command:

CREATE TABLE (prod_id number(4),
Prod_name varchar2 (20),
Category_id number(30),
Quantity_on_hand number (3) INVISIBLE);

Which three statements are true about using an invisible column in the PRODUCTS table?

A. The %ROWTYPE attribute declarations in PL/SQL to access a row will not display the invisible column in the output.
B. The DESCRIBE commands in SQL *Plus will not display the invisible column in the output.
C. Referential integrity constraint cannot be set on the invisible column.
D. The invisible column cannot be made visible and can only be marked as unused.
E. A primary key constraint can be added on the invisible column.

Correct Answer: ABE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
AB: You can make individual table columns invisible. Any generic access of a table does not show the invisible columns in the table. For example, the following operations do not display invisible columns in the output:
*
SELECT * FROM statements in SQL

*
DESCRIBE commands in SQL*Plus

*
%ROWTYPE attribute declarations in PL/SQL

*
Describes in Oracle Call Interface (OCI)
Incorrect:
Not D: You can make invisible columns visible.
You can make a column invisible during table creation or when you add a column to a table, and you can later alter the table to make the same column visible.

Reference: Understand Invisible Columns

QUESTION 35
You wish to enable an audit policy for all database users, except SYS, SYSTEM, and SCOTT.
You issue the following statements:
SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER EXCEPT SYS; SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER EXCEPT SYSTEM; SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER EXCEPT SCOTT;
For which database users is the audit policy now active?
A. All users except SYS
B. All users except SCOTT
C. All users except sys and SCOTT
D. All users except sys, system, and SCOTT Correct Answer: B

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
If you run multiple AUDIT statements on the same unified audit policy but specify different EXCEPT users, then Oracle Database uses the last exception user list, not any of the users from the preceding lists. This means the effect of the earlier AUDIT POLICY … EXCEPT statements are overridden by the latest AUDIT POLICY … EXCEPT statement.
Note:
*
The ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER policy audits commonly used Oracle Database parameter settings. By default, this policy is not enabled.

*
You can use the keyword ALL to audit all actions. The following example shows how to audit all actions on the HR.EMPLOYEES table, except actions by user pmulligan.
Example Auditing All Actions on a Table CREATE AUDIT POLICY all_actions_on_hr_emp_pol ACTIONS ALL ON HR.EMPLOYEES;
AUDIT POLICY all_actions_on_hr_emp_pol EXCEPT pmulligan;
Reference: Oracle Database Security Guide 12c, About Enabling Unified Audit Policies

QUESTION 36
On your Oracle 12c database, you invoked SQL *Loader to load data into the EMPLOYEES table in the HR schema by issuing the following command:
$> sqlldr hr/hr@pdb table=employees
Which two statements are true regarding the command?

A. It succeeds with default settings if the EMPLOYEES table belonging to HR is already defined in the database.
B. It fails because no SQL *Loader data file location is specified.
C. It fails if the HR user does not have the CREATE ANY DIRECTORY privilege.
D. It fails because no SQL *Loader control file location is specified.

Correct Answer: AC Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* SQL*Loader is invoked when you specify the sqlldr command and, optionally, parameters that establish session characteristics.
QUESTION 37
After implementing full Oracle Data Redaction, you change the default value for the NUMBER data type as follows:

After changing the value, you notice that FULL redaction continues to redact numeric data with zero.
What must you do to activate the new default value for numeric full redaction?
A. Re-enable redaction policies that use FULL data redaction.
B. Re-create redaction policies that use FULL data redaction.
C. Re-connect the sessions that access objects with redaction policies defined on them.
D. Flush the shared pool.
E. Restart the database instance.

Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
About Altering the Default Full Data Redaction Value You can alter the default displayed values for full Data Redaction polices. By default, 0 is the redacted value when Oracle Database performs full redaction (DBMS_REDACT.FULL) on a column of the NUMBER data type. If you want to change it to another value (for example, 7), then you can run the DBMS_REDACT.UPDATE_FULL_REDACTION_VALUES procedure to modify this value. The modification applies to all of the Data Redaction policies in the current database instance. After you modify a value, you must restart the database for it to take effect.
Note:
*
The DBMS_REDACT package provides an interface to Oracle Data Redaction, which enables you to mask (redact) data that is returned from queries issued by low-privileged users or an application.

*
UPDATE_FULL_REDACTION_VALUES Procedure
This procedure modifies the default displayed values for a Data Redaction policy for full redaction.
*
After you create the Data Redaction policy, it is automatically enabled and ready to redact data.
*
Oracle Data Redaction enables you to mask (redact) data that is returned from queries issued by low-privileged users or applications. You can redact column data by using one of the following methods:
/ Full redaction. / Partial redaction. / Regular expressions. / Random redaction. / No redaction.
Reference: Oracle Database Advanced Security Guide 12c, About Altering the Default Full Data Redaction Value
QUESTION 38
You must track all transactions that modify certain tables in the sales schema for at least three years.
Automatic undo management is enabled for the database with a retention of one day.
Which two must you do to track the transactions?

A. Enable supplemental logging for the database.
B. Specify undo retention guarantee for the database.
C. Create a Flashback Data Archive in the tablespace where the tables are stored.
D. Create a Flashback Data Archive in any suitable tablespace.
E. Enable Flashback Data Archiving for the tables that require tracking. Correct Answer: DE

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
E: By default, flashback archiving is disabled for any table. You can enable flashback archiving for a table if you have the FLASHBACK ARCHIVE object privilege on the Flashback Data Archive that you want to use for that table.
D: Creating a Flashback Data Archive / Create a Flashback Data Archive with the CREATE FLASHBACK ARCHIVE statement, specifying the following: Name of the Flashback Data Archive Name of the first tablespace of the Flashback Data Archive (Optional) Maximum amount of space that the Flashback Data Archive can use in the first tablespace / Create a Flashback Data Archive named fla2 that uses tablespace tbs2, whose data will be retained for two years: CREATE FLASHBACK ARCHIVE fla2 TABLESPACE tbs2 RETENTION 2 YEAR;
QUESTION 39
Your are the DBA supporting an Oracle 11g Release 2 database and wish to move a table containing several DATE, CHAR, VARCHAR2, and NUMBER data
types, and the table’s indexes, to another tablespace.
The table does not have a primary key and is used by an OLTP application.
Which technique will move the table and indexes while maintaining the highest level of availability to the application?

A. Oracle Data Pump.
B. An ALTER TABLE MOVE to move the table and ALTER INDEX REBUILD to move the indexes.
C. An ALTER TABLE MOVE to move the table and ALTER INDEX REBUILD ONLINE to move the indexes.
D. Online Table Redefinition.
E. Edition-Based Table Redefinition. Correct Answer: D

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
*
Oracle Database provides a mechanism to make table structure modifications without significantly affecting the availability of the table. The mechanism is called online table redefinition. Redefining tables online provides a substantial increase in availability compared to traditional methods of redefining tables.

*
To redefine a table online:
Choose the redefinition method: by key or by rowid
*
By key–Select a primary key or pseudo-primary key to use for the redefinition. Pseudo- primary keys are unique keys with all component columns having NOT NULL constraints. For this method, the versions of the tables before and after redefinition should have the same primary key columns. This is the preferred and default method of redefinition.

*
By rowid–Use this method if no key is available. In this method, a hidden column named M_ROW$$ is added to the post-redefined version of the table. It is recommended that this column be dropped or marked as unused after the redefinition is complete. If COMPATIBLE is set to 10.2.0 or higher, the final phase of redefinition automatically sets this column unused. You can then use the ALTER TABLE … DROP UNUSED COLUMNS statement to drop it.

You cannot use this method on index-organized tables. Note:

*
When you rebuild an index, you use an existing index as the data source. Creating an index in this manner enables you to change storage characteristics or move to a new tablespace. Rebuilding an index based on an existing data source removes intra-block fragmentation. Compared to dropping the index and using the CREATE INDEX statement, re-creating an existing index offers better performance.
Incorrect:
Not E: Edition-based redefinition enables you to upgrade the database component of an application while it is in use, thereby minimizing or eliminating down time.

Oracle 1Z0-060 dumps is a challenging Certification Exam. Besides the books, internet is considered to be a treasure house of knowledge. In Flydumps you can find your treasure house of knowledge. This is a site of great help to you. You will encounter the complex questions in the exam, but Passcert can help you to pass the exam easily. Flydumps Latest 352-001 pdf includes all the knowledge that must be mastered for the purpose of passing the Oracle 1Z0-060 exam.

https://www.pass4itsure.com/1z0-060.html

IBM C2020-703 Exam Questions And Answers – 100% Free VCE Files

Posted by previousublingkey on 5 November 2016, 3:54 am

IBM (IBM Cognos TM1 10.1 Administrator) exam are essential due to the fact it distinguishes you from the ordinary job hunting or jobless characters. Every single particular person strives to acquire IBM (IBM Cognos TM1 10.1 Administrator) employed in one way or the other regardless together with the form of employment or within the mode in which he or she is employed. A lot of people are inclined to do IBM Cognos certification courses which imply that they’ll have to sit for the various IBM C2020-703 Exam to acquire employed in reliable organizations even though other people would adore to accomplish odd and manual jobs.

The odd jobs at the lengthy run spend much less as well as are notable for their power tasking. Far better paying jobs inside the other hand are evident using the several details technology organizations. This can only come once you may have decided to enroll for the excellent IBM C2020-703 Exam. This IBM C2020-703 will assist fundamentally within the basic understanding of your courses supplied and to give you an overview of what is going to be expected of you when you’ve registered for the C2020-703 that will be no doubt be life altering .

There are many websites in the net that provide IBM (IBM Cognos TM1 10.1 Administrator) material for the thriving sturdy of those certification courses. The very good factor is the fact that the internet has already created it less difficult sufficient for supplies to be accessible and to be at your disposal. C2020-703 for example this can be crucial for your use in these certification research as well as in getting the IBM Cognos TM1 10.1 Administrator exam. All that you just may have to acquire is actually a computer and an internet server or individual modem and details acquisition might be the easiest on your component. This will then correctly help your clearing with the certification IBM Cognos research within the finest of methods.

c2020703 exam

There are a few businesses that provide their employees or candidates with certification IBM Cognos courses. On the other hand, you’ll find internet tools which you can also utilize for the productive sturdy on the course IBM (IBM Cognos TM1 10.1 Administrator) exam. These may include the enable of audio visual exam, brain dumps and video exam. These coaching kits aid in provision for the IBM IBM Cognos TM1 10.1 Administrator exam in case you could want a speedy training session by oneself and also permit the IBM Cognos exam be gotten inside the simplest manner.

The superior issue with this can be that authorities give the recommendations of how you can do the certification IBM Cognos TM1 10.1 Administrator exam as well as how they may be accomplished quickly. The C2020-703 will likely be essential for the sturdy on the IBM Cognos certification course. Specialists also use it a single their day to day functioning activities. The IBM Cognos aids to downplay a variety of ups and downs within the networking sector while the IBM C2020-703 (IBM Cognos TM1 10.1 Administrator) shows you specific methods of attaining high ranking jobs at the same time as the much better paying ones.

The IBM C2020-703 (IBM Cognos TM1 10.1 Administrator) also states the concepts of infrastructure developments and project enhancements. The IBM Cognos might be important in facilitating the safety integration of corporations at significant. Your reported advancement in life and common of livelihood both in home as well as your company’s might be attributed for the IBM C2020-703 when the IBM Cognos TM1 10.1 Administrator exam will increase on your scope of alertness. The C2020-703 exam will limit unnecessary mistakes if not drive them out.

Be Successful in Your Cisco 700-501 Dumps with Latest Version PDF&VCE

Posted by previousublingkey on 3 November 2016, 1:59 am

How To Prepare Cisco 700-501 Exam

The primary step for preparation is to have a clear understanding of the latest syllabus so as to reduce anxiety during the Cisco 700-501 exam. After that the candidate is required to solve top notch and close to reality practice test questions.
When you surf the internet, you realize that a bulk of websites provide preparation material for Cisco 700-501 dumps. The incumbents, however, are required to be very swift while purchasing preparation material for Cisco 700-501 exam. I would share your trouble and would introduce you to a very reliable and trustworthy preparation source for Cisco 700-501 Proctored Exams for Validating Knowledge/Additional Online Exams for Validating Knowledge exam.

Practice Test Software for Cisco 700-501 Exam

The Cisco professionals have worked in compendium with each other to design the practice test software, which covers all the topics of 700-501 dumps. By going through the practice test software, the candidate becomes aware of the difficulty of the exam.

The Cisco professionals have put in a lot of hard work to make the interface extremely user friendly. Therefore, all the candidates can easily deploy and interact with the interface.

We know you cannot blindly trust our recommendations; hence the Pass4itsure invites you to try the product before you actually purchase it. You can download the demo version of product for cisco 700-501 dumps now and get hands on experience of quality and effectiveness.

Once you have tried the product, do provide us with your valuable feedback. This enables us to enhance the product further and remove all the bottlenecks that hinder its efficiency.

Cisco 200-105 PDF With Quick Learning Exam Samples

Latest Upload Cisco 200-310 Dumps Are The Best Materials

Posted by previousublingkey on 27 October 2016, 3:19 am

Flydumps is ready to provide Cisco 200-310 candidates with Cisco 200-310 training materials which can be very much helpful for getting Cisco 200-310 certification, which means that candidates.Cisco 200-310 can easily get access to the services of Cisco 200-310 dumps for practice exam,which will assure them 100% Cisco 200-310 dumps success rate.Though Cisco 200-310 tests are not easy at all, but they do not make Cisco 200-310 things complicated.

QUESTION 16
A network engineer requires that an OSPF ASBR must only flood external LSAs only within its own area. What OSPF area type should be configured?
A. Backbone Area
B. Totally Stub Area
C. Not So Stubby Area
D. Stub Area

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Which protocol is used to reserve bandwidth for the transport of a particular application data flow across the network?
A. cRTP
B. IEEE 802.1P
C. RSVP
D. LFI
E. Auto QOS

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
An enterprise campus module is typically made up of four submodules, as described by the Cisco Enterprise Architecture Model. Which two submodules are part of this module? (Choose two.)
A. DMZ
B. enterprise branch
C. building distribution
D. server farm/data center

E. MAN

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 19
You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit, to include data time stamping across a large number of interfaces, customized according to interface, with a minimal impact on the network devices themselves. Which tool would you use to meet these requirements?
A. RMON
B. SNMPv3
C. NetFlow
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which design is the recommended geometric design for routed topologies?
A. linear
B. triangular
C. rectangular
D. circular
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
Which statement is true concerning the data center access layer design?
A. The access layer in the data center is typically built at Layer 3, which allows for better sharing of services across multiple servers.
B. With Layer 2 access, the default gateway for the servers can be configured at the access or aggregation layer.
C. A dual-homing NIC requires a VLAN or trunk between the two access switches to support the dual IP addresses on the two server links to two separate switches.
D. The access layer is normally not required, as dual homing is standard from the servers to the aggregation layer.
Correct Answer: B

Whenever Cisco candidates take a tour of sample questions of Cisco 200-310 exam they find their training to be matchless to great extent.Passing the Cisco 200-310 dumps on your own can be a difficult task,but with Cisco 200-310 preparation products,many candidates who appeared online passed Cisco 200-310 easily.

Download Cisco 100-105 Exam PDF Questions Answers

Posted by previousublingkey on 24 October 2016, 9:18 am

This post analyzes the new Cisco 100-105 exam topics in a way that should be helpful for folks who have been working towards the old exam. I may come back in a few months with a post about the exam on the whole, for those who did not care about the old exam. But everything I write here is focused on the changes, and not on what has not changed.

For context, keep in mind that Cisco has provided two paths to CCNA R&S certification since 2003: A two exam path and a one exam path. Using current terminology, to become CCNA R&S certified, you can either take and pass the ICND1 and ICND2 exams or the CCNA exam. Then, from a content perspective:

ICND1 + ICND2 = CCNA

In this post and the Part 2 post, I will focus on the transition to the new exam topics, with the following main points:

Totally New to ICND1: Topics not in the old CCNA R&S exam topics (that is, topics in neither ICND1 nor ICND2), but are now in the exam topics for the Cisco 100-105 exam.
Moved from ICND2: Topics formerly in the old ICND2 200-101 exam topics, but now moved to the new ICND1 100-105 exam.
Troubleshooting Performance Levels: Cisco bumped the performance level of the verbs for several subject areas up to “troubleshoot”; this section details those topics.
Topics Removed from CCNA and ICND1: Topics that were listed in the old Cisco 100-105 exam topics and appear to be completely removed from the new exams.

Acquiring Cisco 100-105 certifications are becoming a huge task in the field of I.T. More over these exams like Cisco 100-105 exam are now continuously updating and accepting this challenge is itself a task.This Cisco 100-105 practice test is an important part of Microsoft certifications and at Cisco 100-105 certification Flydumps we have the resources to prepare you for this.The Cisco 100-105 exam is essential and core part of Cisco 100-105 certifications and once you clear the exam you will be able to solve the real time problems yourself.

The New Cisco 200-101 VCE Free CCNA Study Guide

Posted by previousublingkey on 18 October 2016, 8:43 am

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)

A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 17
What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 16
D. unlimited
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
A. hop count
B. administrative distance
C. link bandwidth
D. link delay
E. link cost
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
C. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 20
Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)
A. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
B. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.
C. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.
D. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
E. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
F. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
G. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.
Correct Answer: BG
QUESTION 21
A router is running three routing processes: RIP, OSPF, and EIGRP, each configured with default characteristics. Each process learns a route to the same remote network. If there are no static routes to the destination and none of the routes were redistributed, which route will be placed in the IP routing table?
A. the route learned through EIGRP
B. the route learned through OSPF
C. the route learned through RIP
D. the route with the lowest metric
E. all three routes with the router load balancing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router?

A. 10.1.1.2
B. 10.154.154.1
C. 172.16.5.1
D. 192.168.5.3
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the graphic. There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance. As part of examining the router resources, the OSPF DRs need to be known. All the router OSPF priorities are at the default and the router IDs are shown with each router. Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two.)

A. Corp-1
B. Corp-2
C. Corp-3
D. Corp-4
E. Branch-1
F. Branch-2
Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 24
What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route to that destination network is in active status?
A. It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in the routing table.
B. It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers.
C. It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths to the destination network.
D. It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit. The network is converged. After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?

A. O 208.149.23.64 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthernet 0/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
B. O 208.149.23.64 [110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
C. O 208.149.23.64 [110/13] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
D. O 208.149.23.64 [110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial 1/0
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
A. show ip ospf link-state
B. show ip ospf lsa database
C. show ip ospf neighbors
D. show ip ospf database
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 120
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit. When running EIGRP, what is required for RouterA to exchange routing updates with RouterC?

A. AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers.
B. Loopback interfaces must be configured so a DR is elected.
C. The no auto-summary command is needed on Router A and Router C.
D. Router B needs to have two network statements, one for each connected network.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit. How will the router handle a packet destined for 192.0.2.156?

A. The router will drop the packet.
B. The router will return the packet to its source.
C. The router will forward the packet via Serial2.
D. The router will forward the packet via either Serial0 or Serial1.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit. The Lakeside Company has the internetwork in the exhibit. The administrator would like to reduce the size of the routing table on the Central router. Which partial routing table entry in the Central router represents a route summary that represents the LANs in Phoenix but no additional subnets?

A. 10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.0.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
B. 10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.2.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
C. 10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.2.2.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
D. 10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.4.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
E. 10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.4.4.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
F. 10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.4.4.4 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.)
A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 32
Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# router ospf 0
B. Router(config)# router ospf 1
C. Router(config)# router ospf area 0
D. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0
E. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
F. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 33
Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?
A. a backup route, stored in the routing table
B. a primary route, stored in the routing table
C. a backup route, stored in the topology table
D. a primary route, stored in the topology table
Correct Answer: C
We provide Cisco 200-101 exam help and information on a wide range of issues. Cisco 200-101 is professional and confidential and your issues will be replied within 12 hous. Cisco 200-101 exam free to send us any questions and we always try our best to keeping our Customers Satisfied.

CompTIA JK0-801 PDF-Answers, First-hand CompTIA JK0-801 Exam Online Shop

Posted by previousublingkey on 27 September 2016, 6:52 am

100% Valid Dumps For CompTIA JK0-801 Exam Pass:Flydumps have been updated the CompTIA JK0-801 exam dumps and added the new exam questions, in the latest version of CompTIA JK0-801 PDF Flydumps or VCE practice test, you will get all the new changed CompTIA https://www.pass4itsure.com/jk0-801.html exam questions, which will help you 100% passing CompTIA JK0-801 exam. Welcome to visit our website Flydumps.com and get your CompTIA JK0-801 exam passed.

QUESTION 31
Which of the following connectors would be found on a twisted pair cable?
A. RJ-45
B. BNC
C. SC
D. ST
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
Which of the following allows for the FARTHEST transmission distance for data?
A. Bluetooth
B. Single-mode fibre
C. RG-6 cable
D. CAT6 cable
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
The helpdesk technician has been tasked to reinstall the OS on a desktop and has already inserted the OS install disk in the CD-ROM. Which of the following would MOST likely need to be configured within the BIOS to continue reinstalling the OS?
A. BIOS password
B. Flash BIOS for firmware upgrade
C. Boot sequence
D. Clock speeds

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
A user is requesting assistance in building a custom made PC for home theater use to connect to their existing large LCD screen. Which of the following components should MOST likely be recommended? (Select TWO).
A. Large IDE hard drive
B. HDMI output
C. Dual monitors
D. RAID array
E. TV tuner

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 35
Which of the following devices might need drivers installed so that it can be recognized by the operating system and function properly?
A. Speakers
B. Monitors
C. Scanners
D. Projectors

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36
Which of the following properties of TCP/IP is used to differentiate the network and the host portions of an IP address?
A. DNS address
B. Default gateway
C. Subnet mask
D. DHCP lease

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 37
A user is trying to setup a small office home office (SOHO) wireless network and does not want any neighbors to be able to discover the network. Which of the following parameters would MOST likely be configured?
A. Configure a proxy server address
B. Enable WEP encryption
C. Disable SSID broadcast
D. Configure DMZ settings

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
Which of the following would provide continuous power to various devices connected to it during a power surge or outage?
A. Line conditioner
B. Power strip
C. Battery backup
D. Surge suppressor

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39
Which of the following network topologies would MOST likely be used to provide redundancy at each network device to support data transmissions?
A. Mesh
B. Ring
C. PBX
D. Bus
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 40
Which of the following memory features allows for the protection against random inconsistencies in the transfer of the data?
A. Low latency
B. Dual channel
C. ECC
D. Single channel
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41
Primary system functions like basic boot priorities, voltage parameters for the processor, and SATA options are configured in which of the following areas of a PC system?
A. MBR
B. CMOS
C. VRAM
D. BIOS
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
Which of the following storage media would be used to build a RAID 5 array?
A. Dual layer DVDs
B. SATA HDDs
C. Flash drives
D. Blu-ray discs
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 43
Which of the following video cable types would be MOST likely to experience gradual, degraded signal quality over a long distance?
A. HDMI
B. DisplayPort

C. VGA
D. DVI
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 44
A DVI-D cable is generally used for which of the following computer functions?
A. Delivering audio only
B. Delivering audio & video
C. Delivering video only
D. Delivering an analog signal

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 45
An IP address of 10.10.1.180 would be considered part of which of the following address classes?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 46
Which of the following 802.11 wireless standards provides the LOWEST maximum theoretical throughput?
A. A
B. B
C. G
D. N
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 47
Basic Internet web traffic generally travels on which of the following ports?
A. 25 and 53
B. 53 and 8080
C. 80 and 443
D. 110 and 53

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 48
Which of the following printer types needs to have toner replaced as part of the normal maintenance cycle?
A. Inkjet
B. Thermal
C. Impact
D. Laser

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 49
Which of the following technologies has the SHORTEST wireless range for printing?
A. 802.11g
B. 802.11a
C. Bluetooth
D. Infrared

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
Which of the following protocols would be MOST important in preserving digital evidence of criminal activity during an investigation?
A. Change control management
B. Chain of custody
C. Channel escalation
D. MSDS documents

Correct Answer: B

At FLYDUMPS CompTIA JK0-801 Certification training, we provide you with CompTIA JK0-801 Certification course, CompTIA JK0-801 Certification exam preparation, CompTIA JK0-801 Certification exam simulator, CompTIA JK0-801 Certification exam and CompTIA JK0-801 Certification training. FLYDUMPS CompTIA JK0-801 Certification study materials are detailed and provide you with a real time environment. Although you may have come across CompTIA https://www.pass4itsure.com/jk0-801.html Certification test questions, only FLYDUMPS offers you CompTIA JK0-801 Certification test which will allow you to quickly grasp the practical experience you will need to successfully launch your career in the IT industry.

CompTIA JK0-022 Exam Dumps, Most Popular CompTIA JK0-022 Exam Q&As UP To 50% Off

Posted by previousublingkey on 27 September 2016, 6:48 am

With Flydumps CompTIA JK0-022 practice tests, you can pass the exam easily and go further on Microsoft career path. CompTIA JK0-022 Flydumps are authenticated by expert and covering all aspect of CompTIA https://www.pass4itsure.com/jk0-022.html exam. Visit www.Flydumps.com to get the CompTIA JK0-022 100% pass ensure!

QUESTION 45
Which of the following best practices makes a wireless network more difficult to find?
A. Implement MAC filtering
B. UseWPA2-PSK
C. Disable SSID broadcast
D. Power down unused WAPs

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Network administrators may choose to disable SSID broadcast to hide their network from unauthorized personnel. However, the SSID is still needed to direct
packets to and from the base station, so it’s a discoverable value using a wireless packet sniffer. Thus, the SSID should be disabled if the network isn’t for public
use.
Incorrect Answers:

A: A MAC filter is a list of authorized wireless client interface MAC addresses that is used by a WAP to block access to all unauthorized devices. It does not, however, increase the difficulty of finding a wireless network.
B: WPA-Personal, also referred to as WPA-PSK (Pre-shared key) mode, is designed for home and small office networks and doesn’t require an authentication server. Each wireless network device authenticates with the access point using the same 256-bit key generated from a password or passphrase. Using this option will not decrease the chances of discovering the wireless network.
D: Using this option will not decrease the chances of discovering the wireless network in use.
References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 61.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wi-Fi_Protected_Access

QUESTION 46
Jane, the security administrator, sets up a new AP but realizes too many outsiders are able to connect to that AP and gain unauthorized access. Which of the following would be the BEST way to mitigate this issue and still provide coverage where needed? (Select TWO).
A. Disable the wired ports
B. Use channels 1, 4 and 7 only
C. Enable MAC filtering
D. Disable SSID broadcast
E. Switch from 802.11a to 802.11b
Correct Answer: CD Explanation Explanation/Reference:

Network administrators may choose to disable SSID broadcast to hide their network from unauthorized personnel. However, the SSID is still needed to direct
packets to and from the base station, so it’s a discoverable value using a wireless packet sniffer. Thus, the SSID should be disabled if the network isn’t for public
use.
A MAC filter is a list of authorized wireless client interface MAC addresses that is used by a WAP to block access to all unauthorized devices.

Incorrect Answers:

A: Disabling the wired ports will not prevent outsiders from connecting to the AP and gaining unauthorized access.

B: Selecting the correct channels will prevent interference, not unauthorized access.

E: Doing this will decrease the bandwidth and increase the risk of interference.
References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 61. https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc783011(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 47
Which of the following wireless security technologies continuously supplies new keys for WEP?
A. TKIP
B. Mac filtering

C. WPA2
D. WPA
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
TKIP is a suite of algorithms that works as a “wrapper” to WEP, which allows users of legacy WLAN equipment to upgrade to TKIP without replacing hardware. TKIP uses the original WEP programming but “wraps” additional code at the beginning and end to encapsulate and modify it.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Networks can use MAC address filtering, only allowing devices with specific MAC addresses to connect to a network. It does not continuously supply new keys
for WEP.

C: WPA2 makes use of Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP) and is a more secure standard that WEP or
WPA.

D: WPA replaces WEP, and also uses TKIP.
References:
http://www.howtogeek.com/192173/how-and-why-to-change-your-mac-address-on-windows- linux-and-mac/ Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA
Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 171, 172, 173.

QUESTION 48
A network administrator has been tasked with securing the WLAN. Which of the following cryptographic products would be used to provide the MOST secure environment for the WLAN?
A. WPA2 CCMP
B. WPA
C. WPA with MAC filtering

D. WPA2 TKIP
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
CCMP is the standard encryption protocol for use with the WPA2 standard and is much more secure than the WEP protocol and TKIP protocol of WPA. CCMP provides the following security services: Data confidentiality; ensures only authorized parties can access the information Authentication; provides proof of genuineness of the user Access control in conjunction with layer management
Because CCMP is a block cipher mode using a 128-bit key, it is secure against attacks to the 264 steps of operation.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The Wi-Fi Alliance intended WPA as an intermediate measure to take the place of WEP pending the availability of the full IEEE 802.11i standard. The WPA protocol implements much of the IEEE 802.11i standard. Specifically, the Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) was adopted for WPA. WEP used a 40-bit or 104-bit encryption key that must be manually entered on wireless access points and devices and does not change. TKIP employs a per-packet key, meaning that it dynamically generates a new 128-bit key for each packet and thus prevents the types of attacks that compromised WEP. WPA also includes a message integrity check. This is designed to prevent an attacker from capturing, altering and/or resending data packets. This replaces the cyclic redundancy check (CRC) that was used by the WEP standard. CRC’s main flaw was that it did not provide a sufficiently strong data integrity guarantee for the packets it handled. Well tested message authentication codes existed to solve these problems, but they required too much computation to be used on old network cards. WPA uses a message integrity check algorithm called Michael to verify the integrity of the packets. Michael is much stronger than a CRC, but not as strong as the algorithm used in WPA2.
C: WPA even with the added security of MAC filtering is still inherently less secure than WPA2.
D: CCMP is the standard encryption protocol for use with the WPA2 standard and is much more secure than the TKIP protocol of WPA.
References: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/CCMP http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wi-Fi_Protected_Access
QUESTION 49
An access point has been configured for AES encryption but a client is unable to connect to it. Which of the following should be configured on the client to fix this issue?
A. WEP
B. CCMP
C. TKIP
D. RC4
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
CCMP is an encryption protocol designed for Wireless LAN products that implement the standards of the IEEE 802.11i amendment to the original IEEE 802.11 standard. CCMP is an enhanced data cryptographic encapsulation mechanism designed for data confidentiality and based upon the Counter Mode with CBC-MAC (CCM) of the AES standard.
Incorrect Answers:
A: WEP is based on RC4, and does not use AES.
C: TKIP is a basis for WPA.
D: RC4 is the basis of WEP.
References:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/CCMP
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 59, 60.

QUESTION 50
A security administrator wishes to increase the security of the wireless network. Which of the following BEST addresses this concern?
A. Change the encryption from TKIP-based to CCMP-based.
B. Set all nearby access points to operate on the same channel.
C. Configure the access point to use WEP instead of WPA2.
D. Enable all access points to broadcast their SSIDs.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
CCMP makes use of 128-bit AES encryption with a 48-bit initialization vector. This initialization vector makes cracking a bit more difficult.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Wireless APs with overlapping signals should use unique channel frequencies to reduce interference between them.
C: WEP is not a secure encryption protocol.
D: This will make the network visible, and open for attacks.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 172, 178.
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc783011(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 51
The security administrator has been tasked to update all the access points to provide a more secure connection. All access points currently use WPA TKIP for encryption. Which of the following would be configured to provide more secure connections?
A. WEP
B. WPA2 CCMP
C. Disable SSID broadcast and increase power levels
D. MAC filtering
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
CCMP makes use of 128-bit AES encryption with a 48-bit initialization vector. This initialization vector makes cracking a bit more difficult.
Incorrect Answers:
A: WEP is not a secure encryption protocol.
C: This will only cloak the network, and increase the signal strength.
D: MAC filtering is vulnerable to spoof attacks.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 172, 178.

QUESTION 52
A system administrator wants to enable WPA2 CCMP. Which of the following is the only encryption used?
A. RC4
B. DES
C. 3DES
D. AES
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP) makes use of 128-bit AES encryption with a 48-bit initialization vector.

Incorrect Answers:
A, B, C: These are not used by CCMP

References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 172, 250.

QUESTION 53
Jane, an administrator, needs to make sure the wireless network is not accessible from the parking area of their office. Which of the following would BEST help Jane when deploying a new access point?
A. Placement of antenna
B. Disabling the SSID
C. Implementing WPA2
D. Enabling the MAC filtering
Correct Answer: A Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
You should try to avoid placing access points near metal (which includes appliances) or near the ground. Placing them in the center of the area to be served and high enough to get around most obstacles is recommended. On the chance that the signal is actually traveling too far, some access points include power level controls, which allow you to reduce the amount of output provided.
Incorrect Answers:
B: This option would “cloak” the network, not limit its signal strength.

C: This deals with authentication and would not make sure that the network is inaccessible from the parking area.

D: This would require clients to furnish the security administrator with their device’s MAC address.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 172, 177, 178, 183.

QUESTION 54
A security team has identified that the wireless signal is broadcasting into the parking lot. To reduce the risk of an attack against the wireless network from the parking lot, which of the following controls should be used? (Select TWO).
A. Antenna placement
B. Interference
C. Use WEP
D. Single Sign on
E. Disable the SSID
F. Power levels

Correct Answer: AF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Placing the antenna in the correct position is crucial. You can then adjust the power levels to exclude the parking lot. Incorrect Answers:
B: Interference could disrupt the signal in the building as well.
C: WEP is not a secure encryption protocol.
D: This allows users access to all the applications and systems they need when they log on.
E: This option would “cloak” the network, not limit its signal strength.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 149, 171, 177, 183.

QUESTION 55
Which of the following would Pete, a security administrator, do to limit a wireless signal from penetrating the exterior walls?
A. Implement TKIP encryption
B. Consider antenna placement
C. Disable the SSID broadcast
D. Disable WPA

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cinderblock walls, metal cabinets, and other barriers can reduce signal strength significantly. Therefore, antenna placement is critical.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This option deals with encryption, not signal strength.
C: This option would “cloak” the network, not limit its signal strength.
D: This option deals with authentication, not signal strength.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 172, 173, 177, 183.

QUESTION 56
Ann, a security administrator, has concerns regarding her company’s wireless network. The network is open and available for visiting prospective clients in the conference room, but she notices that many more devices are connecting to the network than should be.
Which of the following would BEST alleviate Ann’s concerns with minimum disturbance of current functionality for clients?
A. Enable MAC filtering on the wireless access point.
B. Configure WPA2 encryption on the wireless access point.
C. Lower the antenna’s broadcasting power.
D. Disable SSID broadcasting.
Correct Answer: C Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Some access points include power level controls that allow you to reduce the amount of output provided if the signal is traveling too far.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This would require clients to furnish the security administrator with their device’s MAC address.
B: This would require clients to ask for Wi-Fi access.
D: Clients would not be able to detect the Wi-Fi network.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 172, 177, 178, 183.

QUESTION 57
After reviewing the firewall logs of her organization’s wireless APs, Ann discovers an unusually high amount of failed authentication attempts in a particular segment of the building. She remembers that a new business moved into the office space across the street. Which of the following would be the BEST option to begin addressing the issue?
A. Reduce the power level of the AP on the network segment
B. Implement MAC filtering on the AP of the affected segment
C. Perform a site survey to see what has changed on the segment
D. Change the WPA2 encryption key of the AP in the affected segment

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Some access points include power level controls that allow you to reduce the amount of output provided if the signal is traveling too far.
Incorrect Answers:
B: MAC filtering is an option further down the line. If reducing the amount of output resolves the issue, the administrative effort will be much less that have to compile a list of the MAC addresses associated with users’ computers and then entering those addresses.
C: A site survey is recommended when laying out a network.
D: The fact that Ann has found failed authentication attempts shows that the WPA2 encryption is not the real issue.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 177, 178.

QUESTION 58
An administrator wants to establish a WiFi network using a high gain directional antenna with a narrow radiation pattern to connect two buildings separated by a very long distance. Which of the following antennas would be BEST for this situation?
A. Dipole
B. Yagi
C. Sector
D. Omni

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A Yagi-Uda antenna, commonly known simply as a Yagi antenna, is a directional antenna consisting of multiple parallel dipole elements in a line, usually made of metal rods. It consists of a single driven element connected to the transmitter or receiver with a transmission line, and additional parasitic elements: a so-called reflector and one or more directors. The reflector element is slightly longer than the driven dipole, whereas the directors are a little shorter. This design achieves a very substantial increase in the antenna’s directionality and gain compared to a simple dipole.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The 15 cm long vertical element you see on most Wi-Fi equipment is actually a dipole antenna. It consists of two elements and is popular because of its omnidirectional radiation pattern.
C: A sector antenna is a type of directional microwave antenna with a sector-shaped radiation pattern. The word “sector” is used in the geometric sense; some portion of the circumference of a circle measured in degrees of arc. 60? 90?and 120?designs are typical, often with a few degrees ‘extra’ to ensure overlap and mounted in multiples when wider or full-circle coverage is required.
D: An omnidirectional antenna is designed to provide a 360-degree pattern and an even signal in all directions
References:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Yagi-Uda_antenna
http://www.techrepublic.com/blog/data-center/80211-time-to-clear-up-some-antenna- misconceptions/ http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sector_antenna#See_also
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 178.

QUESTION 59
A company has recently implemented a high density wireless system by having a junior technician install two new access points for every access point already deployed. Users are now reporting random wireless disconnections and slow network connectivity. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A. The old APs use 802.11a
B. Users did not enter the MAC of the new APs
C. The new APs use MIMO
D. A site survey was not conducted

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
To test the wireless AP placement, a site survey should be performed.
Incorrect Answers:
A: 802.11a operates in the 5 GHz frequency spectrum, and is therefore less likely to have disconnections and slow network connectivity.
B: Entering the MAC address will not prevent disconnections, or speed up network connectivity.
C: This cannot be the cause because MIMO would increase network availability.
References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd348467(v=ws.10).aspx http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/MIMO http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IEEE_802.11a-1999

QUESTION 60
Three of the primary security control types that can be implemented are.
A. Supervisory, subordinate, and peer.
B. Personal, procedural, and legal.
C. Operational, technical, and management.
D. Mandatory, discretionary, and permanent.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) places controls into various types. The control types fall into three categories: Management, Operational, and Technical.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Supervisory, subordinate and peer are not primary security control types.
B: Personal, procedural and legal controls are subsections of managerial control types.
D: Mandatory, discretionary and permanent control types are methods of access control that can be implemented.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 26-27 http://www.professormesser.com/
security-plus/sy0-401/control-types-2/

QUESTION 61
Which of the following technical controls is BEST used to define which applications a user can install and run on a company issued mobile device?
A. Authentication
B. Blacklisting
C. Whitelisting
D. Acceptable use policy

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
White lists are closely related to ACLs and essentially, a white list is a list of items that are allowed. Incorrect Answers:
A: Authentication is always required when applications are installed and uninstalled and to log in to an application.
B: Black lists are exactly the opposite of white lists in that it is essentially a list of items that are not allowed.
D: Acceptable use policy describe how the employees in an organization can use company systems and resources, both software and hardware.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 24, 221 http://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/
definition/application-whitelisting

QUESTION 62
To help prevent unauthorized access to PCs, a security administrator implements screen savers that lock the PC after five minutes of inactivity. Which of the following controls is being described in this situation?
A. Management
B. Administrative
C. Technical
D. Operational

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
controls such as preventing unauthorized access to PC’s and applying screensavers that lock the PC after five minutes of inactivity is a technical control type, the same as Identification and Authentication, Access Control, Audit and Accountability as well as System and Communication Protection.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Management control types include risk assessment, planning, systems and Services Acquisition as well as Certification, Accreditation and Security
Assessment.

B: Administrative tools are used when applying technical control types.

D: Operational control types include Personnel Security, Physical and Environmental Protection, Contingency planning, Configuration Management, Maintenance,
System and Information Integrity, Media Protection, Incident Response and Awareness and Training.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 27

QUESTION 63
Which of the following is a management control?
A. Logon banners
B. Written security policy
C. SYN attack prevention
D. Access Control List (ACL)

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Management control types include risk assessment, planning, systems and Services Acquisition as well as Certification, Accreditation and Security Assessment; and written security policy falls in this category.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Logon banners are configuration management which is an operational control type.
C: SYN attack prevention is done by exercising technical control measures.
D: ACLs are technical control measures.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 27

QUESTION 64
Which of the following can result in significant administrative overhead from incorrect reporting?
A. Job rotation
B. Acceptable usage policies
C. False positives
D. Mandatory vacations
Correct Answer: C Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
False positives are essentially events that are mistakenly flagged and are not really events to be concerned about. This causes a significant administrative

We are sure that you will pass your CompTIA https://www.pass4itsure.com/jk0-022.html exam after using CompTIA JK0-022 study materials. With FLYDUMPS CompTIA JK0-022 practice exam, you can be rest assured that you will be fully prepared to take on your CompTIA JK0-022 exam.

CompTIA JK0-019 Exam, Valid and updated CompTIA JK0-019 Study Guides 100% Pass With A High Score

Posted by previousublingkey on 27 September 2016, 6:41 am

How To Pass CompTIA https://www.pass4itsure.com/jk0-019.html Exam Easily? The 100% valid Flydumps latest CompTIA JK0-019 question answers ensure you 100% pass! Free download more CompTIA JK0-019 new PDF format updated exam questions on Flydumps.com.

Question No : 41 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following protocols resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses?
A. DNS
B. ARP
C. RARP
D. NTP
Answer: B
Explanation:
ARP is used to convert an IP address to a physical address such as an Ethernet address. ARP has been implemented with many combinations of network and data link layer technologies, such as IPv4, Chaosnet, DECnet and Xerox PARC Universal Packet (PUP) using IEEE 802 standards, FDDI, X.25, Frame Relay and Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM). IPv4 over IEEE 802.3 and IEEE 802.11 is the most common case.

Question No : 42 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following port numbers is used for SNMP?
A. 61
B. 151
C. 161
D. 1611
Answer: C

Explanation:
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is an “Internet-standard protocol for managing devices on IP networks”. Devices that typically support SNMP include routers, switches, servers, workstations, printers, modem racks, UPSes and more. It is used mostly in network management systems to monitor network-attached devices for conditions that warrant administrative attention.

Question No : 43 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following is the definition of a DNS server?
A. Hosts proprietary business applications
B. Translates FQDN’s to IP addresses
C. Provides network IDS/IPS security
D. Assigns IP addresses to network devices
Answer: B

Explanation:
Domain Name System (DNS) is the name resolution protocol for TCP/IP networks, such as the Internet. Client computers query a DNS server to resolve memorable, alphanumeric DNS names to the IP addresses that computers use to communicate with each other.

Question No : 44 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following features can BEST be used to facilitate authorized remote access to a network?
A. VPN concentrator
B. Proxy server
C. Content filter
D. Load balancer
Answer: A

Explanation:
The VPN Concentrator is used for Remote Access VPN’s. In typical use, a Remote Access VPN allows users to use an encrypted tunnel to securely access a corporate or other network via the Internet.

Question No : 45 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following is a Class A IP address?
A. 10.4.0.1
B. 169.254.0.1
C. 192.168.0.1
D. 254.200.0.1
Answer: A
Explanation:
Class A ip address ranges from 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255

Question No : 46 – (Topic 1)
A network where all traffic feeds through a centralized gateway uses which of the following topologies?
A. Peer-to-peer
B. Ring
C. Bus
D. Star
Answer: D

Explanation:
A bus topology is a type of network setup where each computer and network device is connected to a single cable or backbone.

Question No : 47 – (Topic 1)
In order to limit the number of dynamic addresses of hosts on a network, which of the following can be implemented?
A. Scope options
B. Leases
C. Reservations
D. DNS suffixes

Answer: A
Question No : 48 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following IP address/subnet mask combinations represent a broadcast address? (Select TWO).
A. 200.200.100.0/28
B. 200.200.100.32/27
C. 200.200.100.63/27
D. 200.200.100.79/27
E. 200.200.100.95/27
F. 200.200.100.254/30
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
A broadcast address is a logical address at which all devices connected to a multiple-access communications network are enabled to receive datagrams. A message sent to a broadcast address is typically received by all network-attached hosts, rather than by a specific host. ReferencE. http://www.wikihow.com/Calculate-Network-and-Broadcast-Address

Question No : 49 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following networking devices can exist at several layers of the OSI model at the same time? (Select TWO).
A. Switch
B. Cable
C. Repeater
D. Router
E. Bridge
F. Hub
Answer: A,D

Explanation:
A Multilayer Switch and Router work from OSI layer 2, 3 or 4 to IP DSCP (if IP packet) and/or VLAN IEEE 802.1p.

Question No : 50 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following is a path vector routing protocol?
A. RIP
B. EIGRP
C. ISIS
D. OSPF
E. BGP
Answer: E
Explanation:
Because BGP involves a table of IP networks or “prefixes” which designate network reachability among autonomous systems (AS).

Question No : 51 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following routing protocols utilizes the DUAL algorithm for determining best path?
A. EIGRP
B. RIPv2

C. OSPF
D. RIP
Answer: A
Explanation: Diffusing Update Algorithm guarantees loop-free operation and provides a mechanism for fast convergence.

Question No : 52 – (Topic 1)
The network interface layer of the TCP/IP model corresponds with which of the following layers of the OSI model? (Select TWO).
A. Transport layer
B. Network layer
C. Session layer
D. Physical layer
E. Presentation layer
F. Data link layer
Answer: D,F

Explanation:
The lowest layer of the OSI Reference Model is the physical layer, which is responsible for the “nitty gritty” details of transmitting information from one place to another on a network. The layer just above the physical layer is the data link layer, called the network interface layer or just the link layer in the TCP/IP architectural model. Its primary job is to implement networks at the local level, and to interface between the hardware-oriented physical layer, and the more abstract, software-oriented functions of the network layer and those above it.

Question No : 53 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following BEST describes the definition of DHCP?
A. DHCP is utilized to dynamically lease IP addresses to hosts.
B. DHCP is utilized to statically lease IP address to hosts.
C. DHCP is utilized to permanently lease IP address dynamically to hosts.
D. DHCP is utilized to permanently lease IP address statically to hosts.

Answer: A
Explanation: Because DHCP server maintains a database of available IP addresses and configuration information. When the server receives a request from a client, the DHCP server determines the network to which the DHCP client is connected, and then allocates an IP address or prefix that is appropriate for the client, and sends configuration information appropriate for that client

Question No : 54 – (Topic 1)
Multiple servers’ IP addresses fall within the DHCP scope assigned by the administrator. Which of the following should be implemented to ensure these static IP addresses are not assigned to workstations?
A. The administrator should create exclusions for the workstations IP addresses.
B. The administrator should change the servers to utilize DHCP to obtain IP addresses.
C. The administrator should change the workstations to utilize static IP addresses.
D. The administrator should create exclusions for the servers IP addresses.
Answer: D

Explanation:
Whenever you define the ip pool from which IP addresses are to be dynamically assigned to the users then in order to avoid assignment of static ip address we can creat exclusion for the static ip addresses so that they are not assigned to any other host and this is how we can avoid ip address conflict on the network.
Question No : 55 – (Topic 1)
The APIPA address 169.254.10.123 falls into which of the following class of addresses?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: B
Explanation:
As the range for class B is from 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255

Question No : 56 – (Topic 1)
A technician replaces a failed router in an office with the same model unit using the default settings. After the installation, the technician reboots all of the PCs and servers. Upon reboot some of the PCs are receiving IP addresses on the same subnet as the new router; other PCs are receiving addresses on the same subnet as the servers. Which of the following most likely describes the issue?
A. The DHCP lease pool was not large enough
B. DHCP lease times were set too low
C. The router is not the only DHCP server
D. DHCP was not enabled on the replacement router
Answer: C

Explanation:
This happens when there are multiple DHCP servers in the same LAN subnet. Here some machines are getting ip address from the router while some are getting ip address from another DHCP server present in the same domain.

Question No : 57 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following is the OSI layer that handles file compression such as LZMA or DEFLATE?
A. Layer 3
B. Layer 5
C. Layer 6
D. Layer 7
Answer: C

Explanation:
The presentation level is translator between the application and network format. Unlike the lower layers, its concern is with the syntax and semantics of the information transmitted. Most user programs do not exchange random binary bit strings. They exchange data such as names, addresses, dates, etc. Different computers store the data in a different way. In order to allow these computers to transmit the data to each other the presentation layer translates the data into a standard form to be used on the network. Another function is data compression which can be used to reduce the number of bits needed to send the packet of information. Security is also added at this layer by using data encryption and decryption. This prevents others from intercepting the data and being able to decipher the meaning of the bits.

Through CompTIA JK0-019 study materials, you can expect to learn to know how your test-writers imagine seeing the manner in which questions are generally enquired. Traveling to That certification message boards have been become a very good to your CompTIA https://www.pass4itsure.com/jk0-019.html exam test. FLYDUMPS CompTIA JK0-019, Mobile Application Development Certification Exam is good for all the CompTIA JK0-019 candidates. FLYDUMPS offer you model CompTIA JK0-019 study materials for that lifetime of your current device’s license, and we promise your current CompTIA JK0-019 after utilizing own CompTIA JK0-019 Test.

Real IT Certification Training: Pass Exam & Get Certified – WORK2YOU

Prepare for your next IT certification exam and succeed with a high passing score, guaranteed! High quality training materilas from WORK2YOU.ORG