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QUESTION 30
The security team has determined that the default setting for the connection ticket is too long and wants to shorten the period that the ticket is valid for authentication.
Which GPO needs to be configured and applied to the View environment?
A. vdm_common.adm
B. vdm_client.adm
C. vdm_server.adm
D. vdm_agent.adm Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 31
Which two View user management policies are handled by Active Directory? (Choose two.)
A. Manually disconnecting user sessions
B. Restricting access to specific Connection Servers
C. Restricting permitted hours to log in
D. Setting password expiration dates
Correct Answer: CD Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
What is the default port number that View Composer uses to communicate with other View components?
A. 4001
B. 4100
C. 443
D. 18443 Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 33
What is the maximum supported number of linked clone virtual machines View Composer can provision per pool?
A. 512
B. 1024
C. 128
D. 256 Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 34
What is the default number of linked clone virtual machines that View Composer will recompose at one time?
A. 2
B. 8
C. 64
D. 128
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 35
What is the maximum number of ESXi hosts in a vSphere cluster used by View Composer if using VMFS datastores?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 32
D. 16
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
From http://myvirtualcloud.net/?p=3245
8 Hosts per Cluster when used with VMFS did not change This limit is hard-coded in View Composer;
however it comes from a VMFS limitation on the number of hosts that can simultaneously read from a
single VMDK. This VMDK in a VMware View environment with View Composer would be the Replica disk.

QUESTION 36
Which setting in View Composer can be used to reduce the storage footprint of a pool of virtual desktops?
A. redirect disposable files to a non-persistent disk
B. redirect temporary files to a non-persistent disk
C. redirect user profile data to a non-persistent disk
D. store Windows profile on a disposable disk
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 37
An administrator is creating a new account for use with View Composer. What is the minimum security group to which the account must belong?
A. Domain Administrators
B. Domain Computers
C. Domain Users
D. Forest Administrators Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 38
An administrator is attempting to add a vCenter Server to View Administrator in order to add View Composer.
Which three prerequisites are necessary prior to adding the vCenter Server to View? (Choose three.)
A. Configure the View Pairing Password.
B. Install an SSL certificate on vCenter Server.
C. Install the View Connection Server product key.
D. Configure a vCenter Server user with correct permissions.
E. Configure a View Composer user with correct permissions.
Correct Answer: BCD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A. Is necessary for Security Server, not for Composer C. There is no View Connection Server product key, View is licensed by concurrent
QUESTION 39
An administrator is receiving an error when trying to connect to View Composer from the View Administrator. The environment has been upgraded from 4.0.x. Why can the connection not be made?
A. The network port is no longer valid.
B. The View Composer service must be restarted.
C. An incorrect certificate was chosen during installation.
D. Security certificates cannot be migrated between versions. Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
An administrator is creating a new user for use with View Composer and needs to add the appropriate permissions.
Which three non-default permissions are required for the new account? (Choose three.)
A. Write All Properties
B. Read All Properties
C. Create All Child Objects
D. Delete Computer Objects
E. Create Computer Objects Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 41
An IT company requires its field employees to use their View desktops in local mode only. The View administrator sets the Local Mode policy for the Field Employee pool to Allow, but notices that some users are not exclusively using local mode.
Which additional step should the administrator perform to ensure that field agents use local mode only?
A. set the Remote Mode View policy for the Field Agent pool to Deny
B. set the Local Mode policy for the Field Agent pool to Local Only
C. set the View Transfer Server to Local Only
D. ensure the users perform a rollback of the local View desktop to reset its state Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 42
A View administrator needs to reduce the size of local mode desktop downloads. Which connection server setting should be enabled?
A. use linked clones for local mode operations
B. use network optimization for local mode operations
C. use deduplication for local mode operations
D. use compression for local mode operations Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 43
A newly created View Composer base image is unavailable for checkout in a local mode-enabled linked clone desktop pool.
Which task must be performed on the base image so that it is available for checkout?
A. convert the View Composer base image to a template in vCenter Server
B. publish the View Composer base image as a package in the Transfer Server repository
C. copy the View Composer base image to a Transfer Server via vCenter Server
D. publish the View Composer base image as a full virtual machine Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 44
An administrator creates a kiosk mode desktop. The client device is unable to connect to the desktop. Which action should the administrator take to resolve this issue?
A. activate kiosk mode for each View Connection Server
B. add the cm- or Custom- prefix to the AD account for the client device
C. enable kiosk mode on the desktop through View Administrator
D. create AD accounts for all users authorized to use the desktop
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 45
A View environment requires a thin client to automatically connect to a kiosk mode desktop without a password.
How can the administrator accomplish this?
A. configure the assigned desktop in Unsecured mode
B. add the thin client MAC address to the Kiosk folder on the View Connection Server
C. disable password checking from the View Administrator
D. set an automatically-generated password for the client account Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46
A View administrator has received a request for a View desktop configured for kiosk mode. Which three steps must a View administrator perform to accomplish this task? (Choose three.)
A. enable kiosk mode authentication from the Kiosk Mode tab under the View Administration Console
B. configure Active Directory to accept the kiosk mode accounts
C. enable authentication of clients in kiosk mode from the View desktops
D. configure kiosk mode service on the View desktop
E. configure the View Accounts to be used with kiosk mode from the View Administration Console Correct Answer: BCE
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 47
What are two requirements for creating a Kiosk Mode user in Active Directory? (Choose two.)
A. The name must be less than 21 characters long.
B. The name must match a local user on the Connection Server.
C. The name must reference the MAC address of the client device.
D. The name must start with a recognized prefix string. Correct Answer: AD
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 48
Which View feature is used to authenticate a Kiosk Mode connection by client device rather than end user?
A. Device Verification
B. Flexible Authentication
C. Kiosk Security
D. vShield Endpoint Security
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: View Manager uses the Flexible Authentication feature in VMware View 4.5 and later to authenticate a client device in kiosk mode rather than the end user. You can configure a View Connection Server instance to authenticate clients that identify themselves by their MAC address or by a user name that starts with the characters “custom-” or with an alternate prefix string that you have defined in ADAM. If you configure a client to have an automatically generated password, you can run View Client on the device without specifying a password. If you Configure an explicit password, you must specify this password to View Client. As you would usually run View Client from a script, and the password would appear in clear text, you should take precautions to make the script unreadable by unprivileged users.
QUESTION 49
A system administrator needs to create an application repository for ThinApp deployments from View Administrator.
Which two items are required in order to complete this task? (Choose two.)
A. Windows network share
B. ThinApp Distribution point
C. NFS datastore
D. ThinApp MSI files
Correct Answer: AD Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
A system administrator has an existing ThinApp package that needs to be integrated with View for deployment.
When rebuilding the corresponding ThinApp package, which line does the system administrator need to add to the package.ini file to enable application streaming?
A. ThinAppStreaming=0
B. MSIStreaming=1
C. MSIStreaming=0
D. ThinAppStreaming=1
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 51
A system administrator has an existing ThinApp package that needs to be integrated with View 5.0 for deployment.
When rebuilding the corresponding ThinApp package, which line does the system administrator need to add to the package.ini file to enable full deployment of the application to view users?
A. MSIStreaming=1
B. ThinAppStreaming=1
C. MSIStreaming=0
D. ThinAppStreaming=0 Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Streaming means no Installation on Desktop, Application will be streamed. So a Full Installation is without Streaming
QUESTION 52
A ThinApp administrator needs to capture an application that leverages ODBC connections.
Which step should the administrator take during the ThinApp capture and build process to enable this functionality inside the ThinApp package?
A. configure the ODBC connections before starting the capture process
B. configure the ODBC connections during the capture process
C. configure the ODBC connections as an upgrade patch to a completed ThinApp application
D. configure the ODBC connections outside the capture process on the client workstations Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
A ThinApp administrator needs to capture an application that leverages .NET 2.0 as a prerequisite. The enterprise has standardized on .NET 2.0 on the corporate desktop image.
Which step should the administrator take during the ThinApp capture and build process to enable the ThinApp package to leverage the .NET 2.0 instance installed on the corporate desktop images?
A. Install .NET 2.0 as part of the ThinApp capture process
B. Install .NET 2.0 as an upgrade patch to a completed ThinApp application
C. Install .NET 2.0 as part of the capture workstation before starting the ThinApp capture process
D. Install .NET 2.0 outside the capture process on the client workstations Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
A View administrator needs to distribute ThinApp packages from a newly created ThinApp Repository. The corresponding ThinApp package has been set with the streaming option.
Which three ThinApp specific items will be stored inside the corresponding application repository? (Choose three.)
A. the ThinApp sandbox for the corresponding ThinApp package
B. the .EXE file for the corresponding ThinApp package
C. the .DAT file for the corresponding ThinApp package
D. the .MSI file containing the shortcut
E. a shortcut to the ThinApp package on the network share Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 55
Which steps must a View administrator perform to configure View Persona Management with View desktops?
A. Install the View Agent with the View Persona Management setup option on the replica.
B. Install the View Agent with the View Persona Management setup option on the vCenter Server systems.
C. Install the View Agent with the View Persona Management setup option on the virtual machine that is used as a parent or template.
D. Install the View Agent on the virtual machine and enable the View Persona Management option on first boot.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 56
In a View environment, users access both View and physical desktops. Users access their View desktops with View Persona Management and their standard desktops with Windows roaming profiles.
What is the recommended configuration?
A. Disable profile sharing in the persona management folder.
B. Enable profile sharing in the persona management folder.
C. Use different profiles for the two desktop types.
D. Use the same profile for the two desktop types. Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 57
View Persona Management has been installed and enabled on your virtual machines in your environment. What is recommended for Persona Management backup?
A. Snapshot the Desktop and then backup the profile.
B. Set the Persona Management software to enable before backing up.
C. Enable the Persona Management plugin in the vStorage APIs for Data Protection.
D. Do not use backup software products like MozyPro or Windows Volume backup services. Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 58
A View deployment consists of ThinApp applications as well as other types of applications. The administrator wants to configure the user profiles to include the ThinApp sandbox folders.
Which action will meet this requirement?
A. Enable the Folders to background download group policy settings and add the user’s files.
B. Enable the Folders to background download group policy settings and add the ThinApp sandbox folders.
C. Enable the Files and folders to preload group policy settings and add the ThinApp sandbox folders during the login.
D. Enable the Roam Local Settings folders to preload group policy settings and add the ThinApp sandbox folders
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 59
What can an administrator specify within a user’s persona that are managed by Windows roaming profiles functionality instead of View Persona Management?
A. ADM Template
B. Files and Folders
C. Network Share
D. Persona Repository
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 60
Which two approaches can an administrator use to configure View Persona Management for one desktop pool? (Choose two.)
A. Add the View Persona Management Administrative (ADM) Template file to each desktop in the pool.
B. Add the View Persona Management Administrative (ADM) Template file to the virtual machine that is used to create the pool.
C. Add the View Persona Management Administrative (ADM) Template file to Active Directory and apply the group policy settings to the OU that contains the users in the pool.
D. Add the View Persona Management Administrative (ADM) Template file to Active Directory and apply the group policy settings to the OU that contains the desktops in the pool.
Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 61
A View administrator is instructed to use a network share to store the user profile repository for a View Persona Management deployment.
What are the two recommended locations for this network share? (Choose two.)
A. A shared folder on a local drive
B. A shared folder on a network server
C. A shared folder on an Active Directory server
D. A shared folder on a network-attached storage (NAS) device Correct Answer: BD
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
View Persona Management has been installed on the virtual machines in a View environment. How often are changes in the local profile copied to the remote repository by default?
A. Every 5 minutes
B. Every 10 minutes
C. During login and every 10 minutes after login
D. An interval must be specified by the administrator
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 63
View Persona Management has been installed and enabled on your virtual machines. The administrator wants to manage the View user personas.
Which statement is true?
A. The administrator can manage View user personas by logging into the remote repository.
B. The administrator can manage View user personas within the Folder view of the View Administrator.
C. The administrator cannot manage View user personas by adding the ADM Template file to Active Directory.
D. The administrator cannot manage View user personas by using the Windows roaming profiles functions.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
A View administrator is configuring the events database.
Which two data repository configurations will allow users to monitor events in View Administrator? (Choose two.)
A. Oracle with SQL authentication
B. Microsoft SQL Server with Integrated Windows authentication
C. Microsoft SQL Server with SQL authentication
D. Oracle with Integrated Windows authentication
Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
SQL-Server Auth. is used, not Windows Auth.!

QUESTION 65
What is a prerequisite for configuring an events database?
A. The events database certificate must be created
B. An ODBC data source for the events database must exist
C. A prefix for the tables in the events database has been defined
D. The username and password of an administrator on View Administrator
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

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QUESTION 32
To what does an internal structure of a class refer?

A. the decomposition of that class in terms of interconnected parts
B. the set of structural features of that class
C. the inheritance structure of that class
D. the set of nested classifiers of that class
E. class and associations owned by that class
Answer: A
QUESTION 33
When an object invokes a ReadSelfAction, what will it retrieve?

A. attribute values for the invoking object
B. invoking object
C. attribute values and links for the invoking object
D. class name of the invoking object
E. name of the invoking activity
Answer: D
QUESTION 34
What is the semantic difference between the two figures in the exhibit?
Exhibit:

A. One is a white-box view, while the other is a black-box view.
B. One is a deployment diagram, while the other is a class diagram.
C. There is no semantic difference.
D. One is a UML 2.0 diagram, while other is a UML 1.5 diagram.
Answer: C
QUESTION 35
What kind of relationship is an extension in UML 2.0?

A. generalization
B. dependency
C. association
D. reification
Answer: C
QUESTION 36
What is true about guards on interaction operands?

A. should not refer to any dynamic variables, i.e., to attributes of the lifelines
B. must only cover one lifeline, namely the one lifeline having the first event occurrence of the interaction operand
C. must always cover all lifelines covered by the operand
D. must cover the same lifelines on all interaction operands within one combined fragment
Answer: B
QUESTION 37
What does via foo in the exhibit designate?
Exhibit:

A. an action foo associated with the transition
B. transient pseudostate named foo
C. a transition terminating on the foo entry point
D. a Boolean guard equal to the logical value of foo
E. the sending of a foo message on the transition
Answer: C
QUESTION 38
Why are profiles NOT a first class extension mechanism?

A. They do not allow for modifying existing metamodels.
B. They do not permit customizing for domains, platforms, and methods.
C. They permit removing constraints that apply to existing metamodels.
D. They do not allow for modifying existing stereotypes.
Answer: A
QUESTION 39 What must be true for a connector to be well formed if a delegation connector delegates to more than one target port?
A. The interfaces of the target ports must have no features in common.
B. The interface of at least one of the target ports must be signature compatible with the interface that is the type of the source port.
C. The interface of each of the target ports must be signature compatible with the interface that is the type of the source port.
D. The union of the interfaces of the target ports must be signature compatible with the interface that is the type of the source port.
Answer: D

QUESTION 40
A component may legally participate in which relationship(s)?

A. associations and generalizations
B. dependencies, associations, and generalizations
C. dependencies and generalizations
D. dependencies
Answer: B
QUESTION 41
Which must be true in order to use a delegation connector to connect two components?

A. The components must be related to each other via a dependency.
B. One component must be part of the internal realization of the other component.
C. The components must have complex ports.
D. One component must be a subtype of the other.
Answer: B
QUESTION 42
In the exhibit, if the incoming arrow provides a value, how many of the outgoing arrows
will be given values?
Exhibit:
A. three
B. one
C. two
D. none
Answer: A
QUESTION 43 What will be deleted when performing a DestroyObjectAction on an object that participates in a composition association with many components?
A. component objects
B. object, all its links, and all linked objects

C. object and all its links
D. object and all its component objects
E. object
Answer: E
QUESTION 44
How can the internals of a component be presented?

A. using a complex component connector
B. in a compartment of the component box or via boxes nested within the component box
C. in a compartment of the component box or a component requires port
D. component provides port or a component requires port
Answer: B
QUESTION 45
How many bar shapes can appear in a well-defined activity diagram?

A. exactly two
B. an odd number
C. an even number
D. any number
Answer: D
QUESTION 46
What is true when deferrable triggers of a state specify triggering events?

A. are of lower priority
B. will be consumed after the state is exited
C. are ignored in that state
D. will be consumed when a state in which they are no longer deferred is reached
Answer: D
QUESTION 47
For what does an interaction operator define semantics?

A. a particular message
B. a particular combined fragment
C. a particular interaction fragment
D. a particular interaction
Answer: B QUESTION 48 What relationships are used to wire (i.e., fully interconnect) components together so that they are interoperable?

A. realization relationships and associations
B. associations and connectors
C. dependencies and connectors
D. dependencies, connectors, and realization relationships
Answer: C
QUESTION 49
What may a profile NOT own?

A. metaclasses
B. stereotypes
C. new associations
D. associations that redefine existing associations
Answer: C
QUESTION 50
What does a circle with an X in it (as depicted in the exhibit) represent inside UML 2.0
activity diagrams?
Exhibit:
A. flow final nodes
B. merges
C. decisions
D. activity final nodes
E. forks
F. initial nodes
G. joins
Answer: A

QUESTION 51
Assume !p denotes sending of p, ?p the reception of p. In the exhibit, what traces are
valid? (Choose three)
Exhibit:
A. <!p, ?p, !q, ?q>
B. <!p, ?p, !r, !r, ?r, ?r, !q, ?q>
C. <!p, !r, ?p, ?r, !r, !q, ?r, ?q>
D. <!p, !r, ?p, ?r, !r, ?r, !r, ?r, !q, ?q>
E. <!p, ?p, !r, ?r, !r, !q, ?r, ?q>
F. <!p, !r, ?p, ?r, !r, ?r, !r, ?q, !r, ?q>
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION 52
What kind of class is the Device class?

A. Hardware
B. ExecutionEnvironment
C. Association
D. Installation
E. Node
Answer: E
QUESTION 53
In the exhibit, how many of the arrows must provide values for the outgoing arrow to be
given a value?
Exhibit:

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QUESTION 26:
What is true concerning the UML model depicted in the exhibit?

A. The communication diagram on the left forms the base for the sequence diagram on the right.
B. M is not a behavior of C since p and q are not defined within C.
C. If M is a behavior in C, then a in C is the property represented by lifeline a in M.
D. a and b are lifelines within C, as well as being the same entities as those referenced in M.
Answer:C
QUESTION 27:
What do the initials UML stand for?
A. Unified Methodology Language
B. Unified Modeling Language
C. UML Modeling Language
D. Unified Method Language
E. Universal Modeling Language
Answer: B
QUESTION 28:
In the exhibit, which relationship may have extension points attached to it?
A. between Use Case B and Actor Y
B. between Use Case E and Actor Z
C. between Use Case A and Use Case D
D. between Use Case C and Use Case A
E. between Use Case A and Actor X
Answer: D
QUESTION 29:
What is meant when a lifeline is named by the keyword self?
A. may send messages to itself
B. represents a user external to the owner of this interaction
C. represents a property of the enclosing composite structure named “self”
D. represents the behavior of the object owning this interaction Answer: D
QUESTION 30:
Which elements in an activity diagram can be redefined by which other elements? (Choose two)
A. nodes by nodes
B. edges by nodes
C. nodes by edges
D. edges by edges
E. states by states
F. transitions by transitions
Answer: A,D

QUESTION 31:
What is true of the import example in the exhibit?

A. Auxiliary and Types are imported into ShoppingCart, but neither can be further imported into WebShop.
B. Webshop is imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into Auxiliary and Types.
C. Public members of Types and Auxiliary are imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into WebShop.
D. Public members of WebShop are imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into Auxiliary or Types.
E. Public members of Types and Auxiliary are imported into ShoppingCart and those from Types are further imported into WebShop.
Answer: E
QUESTION 32:
What term describes a customer ordering books via the web?
A. external system
B. subject
C. client
D. user-case
E. user
F. actor
Answer: F
QUESTION 33:
In the exhibit, which use case does NOT need to be available to meet the goals of an actor using Use Case D?
A. Use Case B
B. Use Case E
C. Use Case D
D. Use Case A
E. Use Case C
Answer: E

QUESTION 34:
In the exhibit, to which may it be attached?
A. the actor who initiated an extension use case
B. the association from an extension use case to its target
C. the association from an extension use case to its included use cases
D. the use case that has extension points
E. the subject that owns the extension
Answer: B
QUESTION 35:
What does an activity contain? (Choose two)
A. messages
B. classes

C. edges
D. lifelines
E. nodes
F. states
Answer: C,E
QUESTION 36:
What is the meaning of a <<realize>> dependency between two model elements?
A. a specialized abstraction relationship between two model elements, where the supplier represents the specification and the client represents the implementation
B. a generalized abstraction relationship between two model elements, where the client represents the specification and the supplier represents the implementation
C. a generalized usage relationship between two model elements, where the supplier represents the using element and the client represents the element being used
D. a specialized permission relationship between two model elements, where the supplier represents the element accessing and the client represents the element being accessed
E. a specialized usage relationship between two model elements, where the supplier represents the using element and the client represents the element being used
Answer: A
QUESTION 37:
What do bstraction?dependencies represent? (Choose two)
A. different levels of abstraction or different viewpoints
B. same level of abstract or different viewpoints
C. different concepts
D. same concept
E. same level of abstraction or the same viewpoint
Answer: A,D
QUESTION 38:
What do arrows in activity diagrams represent? (Choose two)
A. message passing
B. unidirectional associations
C. state transitions
D. object flows
E. dependencies
F. control flows Answer: D,F

QUESTION 39:
What provides input values to a behavior on a decision node?
A. actions
B. output parameter nodes
C. output pins
D. exit states E.object flows
Answer: E
QUESTION 40:
What are the components of diagram frames? (Choose three)
A. heading
B. content area
C. author designation
D. round-cornered frame
E. square-cornered frame
F. date
Answer: A,B,E
QUESTION 41:
In the exhibit, which relationship may have a condition attached to it?
A. between Actor X and Use Case B
B. between Use Case A and Use Case B
C. between Use Case A and Use Case D
D. between Use Case A and Use Case C
E. between Use Case D and Use Case E
Answer: D
QUESTION 42:
What is the notation for a required interface?
Answer: C

QUESTION 43:
In the exhibit, when Actor X initiates Use Case A, how many other actors must be involved?
A. 3
B. 1
C. 2
D. 0
Answer: B
QUESTION 44:
In the exhibit, which best describes the relationship between the two use cases: Use Case A and Use Case B?

A. Use Case B extends Use Case A.
B. Use Case B generalizes Use Case A.
C. Use Case A extends Use Case B.
D. Use Case B includes Use Case A.
E. Use Case A includes Use Case B.
F. Use Case A generalizes Use Case B.
Answer: A
QUESTION 45:
What notation may be added to the line connecting a use case with an actor to indicate

that the actor can participate in several instances of the use case at the same time?
A. near the use case oval*
B. near the actor <<many>>
C. near the actor {many}
D. near the use case oval{*}
E. near the actor 0..*
Answer: A
QUESTION 46:
What does it mean when a classifier rectangle is labeled as an <<enumeration>>?
A.The list of all public and private features is provided.
B. The classifier is a data type whose values are possibly listed in the bottom compartment.
C. The classifier is an iterator for traversing a collection.
D. The list of all public and private structural features is suppressed.
Answer: B
QUESTION 47:
What does the execution occurrence in the exhibit convey?

A. the return of the reply from having performed the operation v
B. the execution of the behavior associated with the operation v on b
C. that the operation v is called
D. the sending of r
Answer: B

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QUESTION 31
What kind of relationship is an information flow in UML 2.0?

A. association
B. dependency
C. connector
D. transition Answer: B

QUESTION 32
Which statements are true about OCL? (Choose three)

A. OCL is a typed language.
B. OCL is a programming language.
C. OCL is a programming and procedural language.
D. OCL is a query language.
E. OCL is a procedural language.
F. OCL is a specification language.
Answer: A,D,F
QUESTION 33
What does a collaboration occurrence describe?

A. a collaboration that contains a set of actual instances (as opposed to roles)
B. an object that is an instance of a collaboration
C. the instantiation of the pattern specified by the corresponding collaboration
D. a particular aspect of a collaboration
Answer: C
QUESTION 34 An employee inadvertently removed all of the ownedMembers of the new BoosterMotor component from his company’s development repository. The next day, the manager was unable to find some pieces of the BoosterMotor component’s specification. What pieces could the manager no longer find? (Choose two)
A. test scripts for the rocket sled simulation
B. failure mode use cases
C. the component’s isIndirectlyInstantiated attribute
D. the launch assembly housing the BoosterMotor
E. the component repository
Answer: A,B
QUESTION 35
In the exhibit, at which levels are the DeploymentSpecifications?
Exhibit:

A. DeployA = instance level, DeployB = instance level
B. DeployA = spec level, DeployB = spec level
C. DeployA = instance level, DeployB = spec level
D. DeployA = spec level, DeployB = instance level
Answer: D
QUESTION 36 If an action has a behavior with three sets of parameters, how many of the sets can provide output for a single execution of the behavior?
A. any number
B. two
C. one
D. three
Answer: C
QUESTION 37
The exhibit depicts the UML superstructure packages for behavioral models. What is the
correct identity for packages Foo and Bar?
Exhibit:

A. Foo = Activities; Bar = Collaborations
B. Foo = CommonBehaviors; Bar = Activities
C. Foo = CoreBehavior; Bar = Communications
D. Foo = Collaborations; Bar = Sequences
E. Foo = Collaborations; Bar = Activities
Answer: C
QUESTION 38
What boundary do lightning bolt arrows cross to have an effect?

A. structured node
B. interruptible region
C. activity
D. exception region
E. expansion region
Answer: B
QUESTION 39
In the exhibit, what is the minimum number of incoming arrows that must provide values
for the outgoing arrow to be given a value?
Exhibit:

A. one
B. two
C. none
D. three
Answer: A
QUESTION 40
What are the ways that the UML metamodel reuses the InfrastructureLibrary package?
(Choose two)

A. specializes meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
B. exports and generalizes metaclasses in the InfrastructureLibrary
C. imports and specializes metaclasses in the InfrastructureLibrary
D. stereotypes meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
E. is instantiated from meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
Answer: C,E
QUESTION 41
An information flow may NOT occur between which elements?

A. classes
B. instance specifications
C. use cases
D. packages
E. associations
Answer: E
QUESTION 42
Which stereotype is NOT expected to see decorating an ExecutionEnvironment instance?

A. <<database subsystem>>
B. <<stream file>>
C. <<workflow engine>>
D. <<CRM System>>

E. <<OS>>

Answer: B
QUESTION 43
What is an abstract type in OCL?

A. Bag
B. Sequence
C. Integer
D. Set
E. Collection
Answer: E
QUESTION 44 Which stereotype CANNOT be used to elaborate the semantic intent of an Artifact instance?
A. <<library>>
B. <<source>>
C. <<executable>>
D. <<script>>
E. <<specification>>
Answer: E
QUESTION 45
What characteristic of an object node can prevent it from receiving a value?

A. selection
B. effect
C. ordering
D. upper bound
E. transformation
F. weight
Answer: D
QUESTION 46
What does the protocol conformance between two protocol state machines mean?

A. all triggers in the two protocol state machines must be the same
B. the specific state machine must abide by the behavior of the general state machine
C. the general state machine must abide by the behavior of the specific state machine
D. the two protocol state machines must be the same E. the specific state machine must have the same number of states and transitions as the general machine

Answer: B
QUESTION 47
How can UML be extended? (Choose two)

A. reusing part of the UML infrastructure library and augmenting it with metaclasses and relationships
B. using XML Metadata Interchange (XMI)
C. using profiles
D. using the Object Constraint Language (OCL)
E. using Interface Definition Library (IDL)
Answer: A,C
QUESTION 48 If a data store node has three values and one moves across an outgoing edge, how many are left?
A. three
B. none
C. two
D. one
Answer: A
QUESTION 49
An information flow may NOT occur between which elements?

A. instance specifications
B. associations
C. classes
D. use cases
E. packages
Answer: B
QUESTION 50
When can an OCL expression be used to specify a state change?

A. when the stereotype <<volatile>> is used
B. when expressing the preconditions of an operation
C. when expressing the postconditions of an operation
D. never

E. in all circumstances Answer: C
QUESTION 51 Which situations would result in errors when executing a ReclassifyObjectAction on an object? (Choose two)
A. A new classifier already classifies the object.
B. The old and new classifiers are identical.
C. All classifiers are removed from the object.
D. An old classifier does not already classify the object.
E. A new classifier is an abstract class.
F. No new classifiers are supplied.
Answer: C,E

A. The collaboration occurrence name should be underlined.
B. The <<role>> keywords are missing.
C. The <<ourrence>> keyword is missing.
D. Client and Server role names should be underlined.
E. Role bindings should be represented by dashed lines.
Answer: E
QUESTION 53
An association class possesses the properties of which elements? (Choose two)

A. interface
B. association
C. class
D. expression
E. constraint
Answer: B,C QUESTION 54 What characteristics of components best enable them to be used to represent diverse and “large-scale” aspects of information processing environments?

A. ownership of potentially large numbers of model elements
B. black-box semantics Bports, parts, and interfaces
C. duality of association ends and attributes
Answer: A
QUESTION 55
What is a structured classifier? A classifier_______.

A. that must contain parts and connectors
B. with some/all behavior described by its internal structure
C. that must have one or more ports
D. which must have private and/or protected structural features
Answer: B
QUESTION 56
What is true about an InformationItem in UML 2.0?

A. can have associations
B. can have generalization
C. can have features
D. is not instantiable
E. is not an abstraction
Answer: D
QUESTION 57
What is NOT possible when a classifier receives a request via one of its ports?

A. A new port is created on the classifier.
B. The request does not trigger any behavior and is not forwarded.
C. The port routes the request to one of a number of parts depending on the content of the request.
D. The request is forwarded to a part of the classifier.
E. A behavior of the classifier is invoked.
Answer: A
QUESTION 58
The preconditions of behavioral features of an interface can be specified in what way?
A. one or more guard conditions of a protocol state machine
B. the actions of its protocol state machine
C. the parameters of its protocol state machine
D. comments attached to the corresponding features
E. the set of its features
Answer: A
QUESTION 59 What are the underlying semantics of the association between Port and ProtocolStateMachine?
A. The port must have a required interface whose protocol is specified by the protocol
state machine.

B. The port must have a provided interface whose protocol is specified by the protocol
state machine.
CThe protocol state machine defines the sequencing constraints on the communications
across a port.

C. The class of the object that has the port has to have a behavior that is defined by the
protocol state machine.

Answer:
QUESTION 60
OCL expressions may NOT contain which special character or character combinations?

A. @
B. ~
C. >=
D. ->

E. .
F. ..
Answer: B
QUESTION 61
How does OCL identify comments?

A. — text
B. /* text
C. // text
D. ” text”
E. ‘text’
Answer: B

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QUESTION: 25
What situation results from performing a CreateObjectAction on an abstract class?

A. undefined behavior
B. exception being raised
C. error log entry being created
D. object of the specified class being created
E. arbitrary object of one of its subclasses being created

Answer: A
QUESTION: 26
What situation results from an ApplyFunctionAction?

A. produces output values
B. performs any set of UML actions
C. reads objects and produces output values
D. writes objects and produces output values
E. reads objects, write objects, and produces output values

Answer: A
QUESTION: 27 What value should insertAt be set to when adding a new value to the end of a 5-element ordered structural feature using an AddStructuralFeatureValueAction?
A. -1
B. 0
C. any integer greater than 5
D. infinity

Answer: D
QUESTION: 28
What objects receive a signal sent by a BroadcastSignalAction?

A. all objects
B. objects are determined by semantic variation C. all objects that have a reception for the signal D. objects that are on the same node as the actions
E. objects that are instantiated from classes in the package of the action
Answer: B

QUESTION: 29
What action would destroy all association links for an object in one operation?

A. DestroyLinkAction
B. DestroyObjectAction
C. ClearAssociationAction
D. ClearStructuralFeatureAction
E. RemoveStructuralFeatureAction

Answer: C
QUESTION: 30
What is true when invoking a CreateObjectAction?

A. Behaviors can be executed.
B. The classifier cannot be abstract.
C. Initial expressions can be evaluated.
D. State machine transitions can be triggered.
E. The classifier cannot be an association class.

Answer: B
QUESTION: 31
What is NOT a valid VariableAction?

A. SetVariableAction
B. ClearVariableAction
C. ReadVariableAction
D. AddVariableValueAction
E. RemoveVariableValueAction

Answer: A
QUESTION: 32 What does a circle with an X in it (as depicted in the exhibit) represent inside UML 2.0 activity diagrams?
A. joins
B. forks
C. merges
D. decisions
E. initial nodes
F. flow final nodes
G. activity final nodes

Answer: F
QUESTION: 33
What kind of element is a central buffer?

A. state
B. action
C. activity
D. behavior
E. object node
F. control node

Answer: E
QUESTION: 34
What kinds of arrows connect to central buffers?

A. object flows
B. control flows
C. dependencies
D. state transitions
E. message passing
F. unidirectional associations

Answer: A
QUESTION: 35
What does an activity partition contain? (Choose two)

A. nodes
B. edges
C. states
D. classes
E. lifelines
F. messages
Answer: A, B

QUESTION: 36
How many arrows can connect to a partition?

A. none
B. one
C. two
D. any number

Answer: A
QUESTION: 37 In the exhibit, if the incoming arrow provides a value, how many of the outgoing arrows will be given values?

A. none
B. one
C. two
D. three

Answer: D
QUESTION: 38 In the exhibit, how many of the arrows must provide values for the outgoing arrow to be given a value?
A. none
B. one
C. two
D. three

Answer: D
QUESTION: 39 In the exhibit, if the incoming arrows provide three control values, how many control values are provided to the outgoing arrow?

A. none
B. one
C. two
D. three

Answer: B
QUESTION: 40 If a central buffer has one value and three outgoing arrows go to three actions, how many of the actions will receive the value?
A. none
B. one
C. two
D. any number
Answer: B
QUESTION: 41
What elements can have variables in activity diagrams?

A. actions
B. activities
C. partitions
D. structured nodes
E. structured edges

Answer: D
QUESTION: 42
What determines whether a clause executes?

A. guards
B. classes
C. behaviors
D. test nodes
E. parameters

Answer: D
QUESTION: 43
In the exhibit, what is true about the diagram MOpt?

A. All traces of MOpt include message p.
B. All traces of MOpt include message q.
C. Receiving p will come before sending q.
D. No traces of MOpt include both messages p and q.

Answer: B
QUESTION: 44

A. Every trace contains all three messages.
B. Sending p must always precede sending q.
C. Receiving p must always precede receiving q.
D. There are legal traces that do not contain message q.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 45
In the exhibit, what is true about Mstrict?

A. The whole Mstrict has only one legal trace.
B. Sending r precedes sending p in all legal traces.
C. Sending q precedes reception of r in all legal traces.
D. Within the strict combined fragment, sending a signal will immediately be followed by the reception of that signal.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 46
What does it mean when message m is ignored in a combined fragment?

A. If m happens, the system should abort.
B. Nothing happens within the fragment until m appears.
C. Message m appears only in illegal traces of the fragment.
D. One or more m messages may appear at any point within the fragment.

Answer: D
QUESTION: 47
Assume !p denotes sending of p, ?p the reception of p. In the exhibit, what traces are valid?
(Choose three)

A. <!p, ?p, !q, ?q>
B. <!p, ?p, !r, !r, ?r, ?r, !q, ?q>
C. <!p, ?p, !r, ?r, !r, !q, ?r, ?q>
D. <!p, !r, ?p, ?r, !r, !q, ?r, ?q>
E. <!p, !r, ?p, ?r, !r, ?r, !r, ?r, !q, ?q>
F. <!p, !r, ?p, ?r, !r, ?r, !r, ?q, !r, ?q>
Answer: A, B, E
QUESTION: 48
In the exhibit, what are the valid traces for Cont1?

A. either two p messages or two q messages
B. either p followed by q or q followed by p
C. only a p message followed by a q message
D. any combination of two p messages and two q messages

Answer: B
QUESTION: 49
What is the notation for gates?

A. circular disc at the interaction frame
B. point on the fragment frame with an optional name
C. small arrow either into or out from the fragment frame
D. small rectangle on the fragment frame with associated name

Answer: B
QUESTION: 50
Where is an interaction constraint placed?

A. always at the top of an interaction
B. directly outside the combined fragment
C. above the first event within an interaction operand

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QUESTION 26
An activity is what kind of element?
A. action
B. method
C. behavior
D. collaboration
E. state machine
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
What does an activity contain?(Choose two)
A. edges
B. nodes
C. states
D. classes E. lifelines
F. messages

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 28
What do arrows in activity diagrams represent? (Choose two)
A. object flows
B. control flows
C. dependencies
D. state transitions
E. message passing
F. unidirectional associations

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 29
What does the symbol in the exhibit represent in UML 2.0 activity diagrams?

A. state
B. action
C. activity
D. behavior
E. object node
F. control node

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 30
What does a rectangle on the border of an activity diagram (as depicted in the exhibit) esent in UML 2.0 activity diagrams?

A. pin
B. port
C. place
D. entry state
E. parameter node

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 31
What does a solid circle (as depicted in the exhibit) represent in UML 2.0 activity diagrams?

A. joins
B. forks
C. merges
D. decisions
E. initial nodes
F. flow final nodes
G. activity final nodes

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 32
What does amond shape (as depicted in the exhibit) represent in UML 2.0 activity rams? (Choose two)

A. joins
B. forks
C. merges
D. decisions
E. initial nodes
F. flow final nodes
G. activity final nodes

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 33
What do arrowed lines connecting to and from a rectangle (as depicted in the exhibit) represent in UML 2.0 activity diagrams?

A. object flows
B. control flows
C. dependencies
D. state transitions
E. message passing
F. unidirectional associations

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 34
Which elements in an activity diagram can be redefined by which other elements? (Choose two)
A. nodes by nodes
B. nodes by edges
C. edges by edges
D. edges by nodes
E. states by states
F. transitions by transitions

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 35
Which element in the diagram is the correct label for a lifeline?

A. b
B. M
C. p
D. C2
E. a:C1

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 36
In the exhibit, there is one element with the identifier b. is true about this element?

A. b is a class.
B. b is of the type C2.
C. b is defined local to M.
D. b is contained in class C2.
E. b must be a property of a composite structure.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
Let us denote sending of p as !p and receiving p as ?p. Which traces define the interaction M in the exhibit? (Choose two)

A. <!p, ?p, !q, ?q>
B. <!p, !q, ?p, ?q>
C. <!p, ?q, !q, ?p>
D. <!q, !p, ?p, ?q>
E. <?p, !p, ?q, !q>

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 38
Which arrowhead shows that the message represents an operation call, rather than a signal, in UML 2.0?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 39
When a message corresponds to an operation call, what is true about the arguments in UML 2.0?
A. Message arguments must always be constants or attributes of the sender.
B. All the parameters of the operation must be matched by message arguments.
C. A message argument should be of exactly the same type as the parameters of the corresponding operation.
D. The message arguments must the same type as the parameters of the corresponding operation or a subset of the parameters of the corresponding operation.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 40
Which keyword denotes a lifeline that represents the object owning the lifeline?
A. own
B. self
C. this
D. object
E. ncloser?
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
What is a selector of a lifeline?
A. a scheduler that chooses the next lifeline on which to run
B. a specific lifeline that selects a resource from a resource pool
C. a construct to select one lifeline out of all the lifelines in the diagram
D. an expression selecting one out of a set; a general indexing mechanism

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
There is an element identified as r in the exhibit. What does this element describe in a UML 2.0 interaction diagram?

A. timing signal from b
B. found message, found by b
C. lost message originating from b
D. synchronous message to the environment of R
E. asynchronous message to the environment of R

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 43
Let us denote sending of p as !p and receiving p as ?p. he exhibit, what is correct about event occurrences of the interaction Q?

A. !p will precede !q
B. ?p will precede !r
C. ?q may precede ?r
D. !r will precede !q

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
In the exhibit, where is the execution occurrence in the sequence diagram named R?

A. lifeline a
B. lifeline b
C. message denoted by r
D. lifeline b in thin vertical rectangle
E. message with identifier v (dashed line)
F. at the arrowhead of the dashed message on lifeline a

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 45
What about event order is true for simple interactions? (Choose two)
A. Events are ordered from top to bottom in a sequence diagram.
B. Events are ordered from top to bottom of a lifeline in a simple sequence diagram.
C. When messages represent operation calls, their sending and receiving events coincide in time.
D. The send event of a complete message comes before the receive event of the same message.
E. The start event of an execution occurrence will coincide in time with the event representing the call of that operation.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 46
What is true about lifelines?
A. represent a sequence of operation calls
B. represent an individual participant in the interaction
C. has traces of events following the sequence of messages
D. in a sequence diagram, are horizontal or with a slight downward slope
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
Which kinds of diagram can be used to define an interaction in UML 2.0? (Choose three)
A. class diagram
B. sequence diagram
C. state machine diagram
D. communication diagram
E. composite structure diagram
F. interaction overview diagram

Correct Answer: BDF QUESTION 48
In a sequence diagram, what does a stop symbol express?
A. The interaction is no longer valid.
B. A message is stopped short of its reception.
C. The object represented by a lifeline terminates.
D. The behavior of a lifeline halts within this diagram.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 49
What is true concerning the UML model depicted in the exhibit?

A. M is not a behavior of C since p and q are not defined within C.
B. If M is a behavior in C, then a in C is the property represented by lifeline a in M.
C. a and b are lifelines within C, as well as being the same entities as those referenced in M.
D. The communication diagram on the left forms the base for the sequence diagram on the right.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 50
In the exhibit, to which may it be attached?

A. the subject that owns the extension
B. the use case that has extension points
C. the actor who initiated an extension use case
D. the association from an extension use case to its target
E. the association from an extension use case to its included use cases

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
What is true of primitive types in UML 2.0? (Choose two)
A. are decomposable
B. are not decomposable C. specify all the necessary metaclasses
D. specify only those metaclasses needed for a particular model
E. specify predefined data types without any relevant structure

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 52
Which kind of behavior diagram is NOT a UML 2.0 diagram?
A. activity diagram
B. dataflow diagram
C. sequence diagram
D. interaction diagram
E. communication diagram

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 53
What is the difference between the <<ementationClass>> type?stereotypes?
A. <<implementationClass>> and <<type>> are synonymous.
B. <<implementationClass>>contains objects and <<type>> contains values.
C. <<implementationClass>>and <<type>> only differ by programming language.
D. <<implementationClass>> define physical implementation and <<type>> does not.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 54
What are metaclasses?
A. classes that are abstract
B. classes that have no supertypes
C. classes whose instances are objects
D. classes whose instances are classes
E. classes that are instances of classes
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
Which describes active classes?
A. classes that have state machines
B. classes whose instances may signal other objects
C. classes whose instances have their own thread of control
D. classes whose instances are able to execute one or more operations
E. classes whose instances are actively executing one or more operations
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 56
What do the initials UML stand for?
A. UML Modeling Language
B. Unified Method Language
C. Unified Modeling Language
D. Universal Modeling Language

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QUESTION 2
A TCP/IP host is able to transmit small amounts of data (typically less than 1500 bytes), but attempts to transmit larger amounts of data hang and then time out. What is the cause of this problem?
A. A link is flapping between two intermediate devices.
B. The processor of an intermediate router is averaging 90 percent utilization.
C. A port on the switch that is connected to the TCP/IP host is duplicating traffic and sending it to a port that has a sniffer attached.
D. There is a PMTUD failure in the network path.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Sometimes, over some IP paths, a TCP/IP node can send small amounts of data (typically less than 1500 bytes) with no difficulty, but transmission attempts with larger amounts of data hang, then time out. Often this is observed as a unidirectional problem in that large data transfers succeed in one direction but fail in the other direction. This problem is likely caused by the TCP MSS value, PMTUD failure, different LAN media types, or defective links.

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

ICMP Echo requests from host A are not reaching the intended destination on host B. What is the problem?
A. The ICMP payload is malformed.
B. The ICMP Identifier (BE) is invalid.
C. The negotiation of the connection failed.
D. The packet is dropped at the next hop.
E. The link is congested.

Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Here we see that the Time to Live (TTL) value of the packet is one, so it will be forwarded to the next hop router, but then dropped because the TTL value will be 0 at the next hop.
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is true?
A. It is impossible for the destination interface to equal the source interface.
B. NAT on a stick is performed on interface Et0/0.
C. There is a potential routing loop.
D. This output represents a UDP flow or a TCP flow.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In this example we see that the source interface and destination interface are the same (Et0/0). Typically this is seen when there is a routing loop for the destination IP address.
QUESTION 5
Which three conditions can cause excessive unicast flooding? (Choose three.)
A. Asymmetric routing
B. Repeated TCNs
C. The use of HSRP
D. Frames sent to FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
E. MAC forwarding table overflow
F. The use of Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding

Correct Answer: ABE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Causes of Flooding The very cause of flooding is that destination MAC address of the packet is not in the L2 forwarding table of the switch. In this case the packet will be flooded out of all forwarding ports in its VLAN (except the port it was received on). Below case studies display most common reasons for destination MAC address not being known to the switch. Cause 1: Asymmetric Routing Large amounts of flooded traffic might saturate low-bandwidth links causing network performance issues or complete connectivity outage to devices connected across such low-bandwidth links. Cause 2: Spanning-Tree Protocol Topology Changes Another common issue caused by flooding is Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) Topology Change Notification (TCN). TCN is designed to correct forwarding tables after the forwarding topology has changed. This is necessary to avoid a connectivity outage, as after a topology change some destinations previously accessible via particular ports might become accessible via different ports. TCN operates by shortening the forwarding table aging time, such that if the address is not relearned, it will age out and flooding will occur. TCNs are triggered by a port that is transitioning to or from the forwarding state. After the TCN, even if the particular destination MAC address has aged out, flooding should not happen for long in most cases since the address will be relearned. The issue might arise when TCNs are occurring repeatedly with short intervals. The switches will constantly be fast-aging their forwarding tables so flooding will be nearly constant. Normally, a TCN is rare in a well-configured network. When the port on a switch goes up or down, there is eventually a TCN once the STP state of the port is changing to or from forwarding. When the port is flapping, repetitive TCNs and flooding occurs. Cause 3: Forwarding Table Overflow Another possible cause of flooding can be overflow of the switch forwarding table. In this case, new addresses cannot be learned and packets destined to such addresses are flooded until some space becomes available in the forwarding table. New addresses will then be learned. This is possible but rare, since most modern switches have large enough forwarding tables to accommodate MAC addresses for most designs. Forwarding table exhaustion can also be caused by an attack on the network where one host starts generating frames each sourced with different MAC address. This will tie up all the forwarding table resources. Once the forwarding tables become saturated, other traffic will be flooded because new learning cannot occur. This kind of attack can be detected by examining the switch forwarding table. Most of the MAC addresses will point to the same port or group of ports. Such attacks can be prevented by limiting the number of MAC addresses learned on untrusted ports by using the port security feature.

QUESTION 6
Which congestion-avoidance or congestion-management technique can cause global synchronization?
A. Tail drop
B. Random early detection
C. Weighted random early detection
D. Weighted fair queuing

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Tail Drop Tail drop treats all traffic equally and does not differentiate between classes of service. Queues fill during periods of congestion. When the output queue is full and tail drop is in effect, packets are dropped until the congestion is eliminated and the queue is no longer full. Weighted Random Early Detection WRED avoids the globalization problems that occur when tail drop is used as the congestion avoidance mechanism on the router. Global synchronization occurs as waves of congestion crest only to be followed by troughs during which the transmission link is not fully utilized. Global synchronization of TCP hosts, for example, can occur because packets are dropped all at once. Global synchronization manifests when multiple TCP hosts reduce their transmission rates in response to packet dropping, then increase their transmission rates once again when the congestion is reduced.

QUESTION 7
Which two options are reasons for TCP starvation? (Choose two.)
A. The use of tail drop
B. The use of WRED
C. Mixing TCP and UDP traffic in the same traffic class
D. The use of TCP congestion control

Correct Answer: CD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
It is a general best practice to not mix TCP-based traffic with UDP-based traffic (especially Streaming-Video) within a single service-provider class because of the behaviors of these protocols during periods of congestion. Specifically, TCP transmitters throttle back flows when drops are detected. Although some UDP applications have application-level windowing, flow control, and retransmission capabilities, most UDP transmitters are completely oblivious to drops and, thus, never lower transmission rates because of dropping. When TCP flows are combined with UDP flows within a single service-provider class and the class experiences congestion, TCP flows continually lower their transmission rates, potentially giving up their bandwidth to UDP flows that are oblivious to drops. This effect is called TCP starvation/UDP dominance. TCP starvation/UDP dominance likely occurs if (TCP-based) Mission-Critical Data is assigned to the same service-provider class as (UDP-based) Streaming- Video and the class experiences sustained congestion. Even if WRED or other TCP congestion control mechanisms are enabled on the service-provider class, the same behavior would be observed because WRED (for the most part) manages congestion only on TCP-based flows.

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

While troubleshooting high CPU utilization of a Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series Switch, you notice the error message that is shown in the exhibit in the log file. What can be the cause of this issue, and how can it be prevented?
A. The hardware routing table is full. Redistribute from BGP into IGP.
B. The software routing table is full. Redistribute from BGP into IGP.
C. The hardware routing table is full. Reduce the number of routes in the routing table.
D. The software routing table is full. Reduce the number of routes in the routing table. Correct Answer: C

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
L3HWFORWADING-2
Error MessageC4K_L3HWFORWARDING-2-FWDCAMFULL:L3 routing table is full. Switching to software forwarding.

Explanation: The hardware routing table is full; forwarding takes place in the software instead. The switch performance might be degraded. Recommended Action:
Reduce the size of the routing table. Enter the ip cef command to return to hardware forwarding.

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two are causes of output queue drops on FastEthernet0/0? (Choose two.)
A. an oversubscribed input service policy on FastEthernet0/0
B. a duplex mismatch on FastEthernet0/0
C. a bad cable connected to FastEthernet0/0
D. an oversubscribed output service policy on FastEthernet0/0
E. The router trying to send more than 100 Mb/s out of FastEthernet0/0

Correct Answer: DE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Output drops are caused by a congested interface. For example, the traffic rate on the outgoing interface cannot accept all packets that should be sent out, or a service policy is applied that is oversubscribed. The ultimate solution to resolve the problem is to increase the line speed. However, there are ways to prevent, decrease, or control output drops when you do not want to increase the line speed. You can prevent output drops only if output drops are a consequence of short bursts of data. If output drops are caused by a constant high-rate flow, you cannot prevent the drops. However, you can control them.
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about the output is true?
A. The flow is an HTTPS connection to the router, which is initiated by 144.254.10.206.
B. The flow is an HTTP connection to the router, which is initiated by 144.254.10.206.
C. The flow is an HTTPS connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to 144.254.10.206.
D. The flow is an HTTP connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to 144.254.10.206.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
We can see that the connection is initiated by the Source IP address shown as 144.254.10.206. We also see that the destination protocol (DstP) shows 01BB, which is in hex and translates to 443 in decimal. SSL/HTTPS uses port 443.

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
L3HWFORWADING-2
Error MessageC4K_L3HWFORWARDING-2-FWDCAMFULL:L3 routing table is full. Switching to software forwarding.

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

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QUESTION 26
Which of the following best describes how TOGAF defines an enterprise?
A. Any collection of organizations that has a common set of goals
B. Any corporation with more than 10,000 employees
C. Any organization involved in commerce
D. Any organization whose stock is traded
E. Any set of organizations based at the same geographic location

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
Which of the following is an objective of Phase B, Business Architecture?
A. To confirm the ability of the enterprise to undergo change
B. To demonstrate how stakeholder concerns are addressed in the Business Architecture
C. To develop a Target Technology Architecture to support the business
D. To finalize the Architecture Vision and Architecture Definition documents
E. To maximize the business value from the architecture

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
Which section of the TOGAF template for Architecture Principles should highlight the business benefits for adhering to the principle?
A. Implications
B. Name
C. Rationale
D. Statement

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 29
Which of the following is defined by TOGAF as a representation of a system from the perspective of a related set of concerns?
A. Architecture Building Block
B. Capability Architecture
C. Statement of Work
D. View
E. Viewpoint
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
Complete the sentence. The TOGAF Architecture Governance Framework includes .
A. a list of responsibilities for running an Architecture Board
B. a model for governance including process, content and context
C. guidance for establishing an Architecture Capability using the ADM
D. the Architecture Compliance review process and checklists

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 31
In the Solutions Continuum, which of the following is the correct order of solutions ranging from generic solution to enterprise specific solution?
A. Foundation, Common Systems, Industry, Organization-Specific
B. Industry, Foundation, Common Systems, Organization-Specific
C. Organization-Specific, Industry, Common Systems, Foundation
D. Organization-Specific, Industry, Foundation, Common Systems

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
Which one of the following best describes the purpose of ADM Phase E?
A. To define the initial implementation plans
B. To define the scope, identifying stakeholders and obtaining approvals
C. To develop the Technology Architecture
D. To manage requirements throughout the ADM
E. To perform architectural oversight for the implementation

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
Which one of the following categories from the Document Categorization model consists of the normative parts of TOGAF which are considered central to its usage?
A. TOGAF Core
B. TOGAF Mandated
C. TOGAF Recommended
D. TOGAF Referenced
E. TOGAF Supporting

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
Which one of the following statements about TOGAF Building Blocks is true?
A. Building blocks at a functional level are known as Solutions Building Blocks
B. Solutions Building Blocks are selected in Phases A, B, C and D
C. The specification of a building block should be loosely coupled to its implementation
D. The gap analysis technique should be used to identify building blocks for re-use

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 35
What part of the Architecture Repository shows the building blocks that are currently in use within the organization?
A. Architecture Landscape
B. Architecture Metamodel
C. Governance Log
D. Reference Library
E. Standards Information Base
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
Which one of the following is responsible for the acceptance and sign-off of an Architecture Compliance review?
A. Architecture Board
B. Architecture Review Co-ordinator
C. CIO
D. Lead Enterprise Architect
E. Project Leader

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
According to TOGAF, in which phase of the ADM should an initial assessment of business transformation readiness occur?
A. Preliminary Phase
B. Phase A
C. Phase B
D. Phase F
E. Phase G

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
Complete the sentence. A gap analysis will enable the architect to do all of the following except .
A. identify building blocks that have been inadvertently omitted
B. identify building blocks that have been intentionally eliminated
C. identify building blocks to be carried over
D. identify new building blocks that are needed
E. identify potential vendors to provide new building blocks

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 39
Which of the following best describes an approach for adapting the ADM in the situation where the business case for doing architecture is not well recognized?
A. Completion of the Business Architecture should follow the Information Systems Architecture
B. Create an Architecture Vision and then a detailed Business Architecture
C. Produce a “cut-down” version of the ADM suitable to the resources available
D. Tailor the ADM in conjunction with another architecture framework that has deliverables specific to the vertical sector
E. Tailor the ADM to reflect the relationships with, and dependencies on other management processes within the organization
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40
What technique does TOGAF recommend for evaluating the status of an organization to undergo change?
A. Business Transformation Readiness Assessment
B. Business Value Assessment Technique
C. Capability-Based Planning
D. Communications and Stakeholder Management
E. Gap Analysis

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
Which of the following best describes the meaning of “Initial Level of Risk” in Risk Management?
A. The categorization after implementation of mitigating actions
B. The categorization after initial risk assessment
C. The categorization after mitigation and residual risk assessment
D. The categorization before determining and implementing mitigating actions
E. The categorization before risk identification

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
Complete the sentence. According to TOGAF, a view is used to describe how the of a stakeholder are being met.
A. concerns
B. constraints
C. interests
D. perspective
E. requirements

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
Complete the sentence. The Architecture Development Method produces content to be stored in the Repository, which is classified according to the .
A. ADM Guidelines and Techniques
B. Architecture Capability Framework
C. Architecture Capability Model
D. Enterprise Continuum
E. Standards Information Base

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
Which of the following best describes the state of architecture artifacts as a project progresses through ADM Phases A to D?
A. The artifacts are transformed into solution architectures
B. The artifacts become increasingly product focused
C. The artifacts become increasingly generic and re-usable
D. The artifacts evolve from generic architectures to organization-specific architectures
E. The artifacts evolve from common systems architectures to foundation architectures
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 45
Which of the following describes the Phase H classification for an Incremental change?
A. A change driven by a requirement to derive additional value from the existing investment
B. A change driven by a requirement to increase investment in order to create new value for exploitation
C. A change driven by a requirement to reduce investment
D. A change driven by a requirement to re-align with the business strategy

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 46
Which one of the following statements about viewpoints is correct?
A. A viewpoint is always specific to an architecture
B. A viewpoint is used to create views in Phases E and F
C. A viewpoint is used as a template to create a view
D. A viewpoint is what a stakeholder sees

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
According to TOGAF, in which sequence should Application Architecture and Data Architecture be developed in Phase C?
A. Application Architecture should be developed first, then Data Architecture
B. Application Architecture should be developed concurrently with Data Architecture
C. Data Architecture should be developed first, then Application Architecture
D. Application Architecture and Data Architecture may be developed in either sequence

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 48
Which of the following best completes the sentence? The Architecture Repository_____________
A. is used to store different classes of architectural output created by the ADM
B. is a categorisation mechanism for classifying architecture and solution artifacts
C. is a detailed model of architectural work products, including deliverables and artifacts
D. is an architecture of generic functions and services
E. is a set of resources to help establish an architecture capability within an organization

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
What level of the Architecture Landscape provides a long-term summary view of the entire enterprise?
A. Capability Architecture
B. Operational Architecture
C. Segment Architecture
D. Strategic Architecture
E. Tactical Architecture

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
A key step in validating a proposed target architecture is to consider what may have been forgotten. What technique does TOGAF recommend to address this issue?
A. Business Transformation Readiness Assessment
B. Business Value Assessment Technique
C. Capability-Based Planning
D. Communications and Stakeholder Management
E. Gap Analysis
Correct Answer: E QUESTION 51
Complete the sentence. In the Preliminary Phase, all of the following are part of preparing the organization to undertake successful enterprise architecture, except________
A. defining architecture principles
B. defining relationships between management frameworks
C. defining the enterprise
D. evaluating the enterprise architecture maturity
E. identifying stakeholders and their concerns

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 52
Which phase of the ADM establishes a set of Principles?
A. Preliminary Phase
B. Phase A
C. Phase D
D. Phase G
E. Phase H

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 53
In which Phase of the ADM does the business scenario technique figure most prominently?
A. Preliminary
B. Architecture Vision
C. Business Architecture
D. Information Systems Architectures
E. Technology Architecture

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 54
Which one of the following best describes the Architecture Vision document?
A. An agreement between development partners and the sponsor on architecture deliverables
B. A description of how the new capability will address stakeholder concerns
C. A description of the scope and approach for completion of the architecture project
D. A set of quantitative statements outlining requirements on the implementation
E. A set of rules and guidelines to support fulfilling the mission of the organization
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
Which of the following best describes TOGAF?
A. An abstract framework for the development of standards and processes for a business architecture
B. A collection of components organized to accomplish a specific set of functions
C. A process model, best practices and assets to aid production, use and maintenance of enterprise architectures
D. A reference model containing taxonomy defining terminology for an enterprise architecture, together with an associated graphic
E. A system development lifecycle method for software engineering
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 56
Which ADM phase establishes the connection between the architecture organization and the implementation organization through the Architecture Contract?
A. Phase E
B. Phase F
C. Phase G
D. Phase H
E. Requirements Management

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 57
Which one of the following statements about the Requirements Management phase is true?
A. All requirements fed into the phase are prioritized, and those of low priority are deferred until the next iteration of the ADM cycle
B. The phase generates the requirements for a given ADM cycle using the Business Scenario technique
C. The phase manages the flow of requirements, storing them, and feeding them in and out of the relevant ADM phases
D. The phase operates like a waiting room, and all requirements fed in to the phase must be resolved by the end of the current ADM cycle
E. The phase resolves the requirements that are fed into it from the other ADM phases

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
Which section of the TOGAF template for defining principles should highlight the requirements for carrying out the principle?
A. Implications
B. Name
C. Rationale
D. Statement

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
Which one of the following best describes the next step in an Architecture Compliance Review once the scope of the review has been determined?
A. Interview the project principals to obtain background information
B. Prepare the Architecture Compliance Review report
C. Schedule the Architecture Review meeting
D. Send the assessment report to the Architecture Review co-ordinator
E. Tailor the checklists to address business requirements

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 60
Complete the sentence. During the implementation of an architecture, if the original Architecture Definition and requirements are not suitable, a may be submitted to initiate further architecture work.
A. Capability Assessment
B. Change Request
C. Requirements Impact Analysis
D. Statement of Architecture Work

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 61
Complete the sentence. All of the following describe a purpose of an Architecture Compliance review, except .
A. determining the technical readiness of a project
B. ensuring the application of best practices
C. identifying business transformation risks for an architecture project
D. identifying errors in an architecture project
E. identifying where architecture standards require modification

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 62
According to TOGAF, which of the following steps in Phases B, C, and D occurs before development of the baseline or target architectures?
A. Conduct formal stakeholder review
B. Create Architecture Definition Document
C. Define Roadmap components
D. Perform gap analysis
E. Select reference models, viewpoints and tools

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 63
Which ADM phase is responsible for assessing the performance of the architecture and making recommendations for change?
A. Phase A
B. Phase E
C. Phase F
D. Phase G
E. Phase H

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 64
Which model within TOGAF is intended to assist with the release management of the TOGAF specification?
A. The Capability Maturity Model
B. The Document Categorization Model
C. The Integrated Infrastructure Information Model
D. The Organizational Model for Enterprise Architecture
E. The Technical Reference Model
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 65
Which ADM phase provides architectural oversight of the implementation?
A. Preliminary Phase
B. Phase A
C. Phase E
D. Phase G
E. Phase H

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 26
Which phase of the TOGAF ADM is the first phase directly concerned with the planning for the implementation of the target architecture(s)?
A. Phase D
B. Phase E
C. Phase F
D. Phase G
E. Phase H

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
Which phase of the ADM focuses on the governance and management of the Architecture Contracts that cover the overall implementation and deployment process?
A. Requirements Management
B. Phase E
C. Phase F
D. Phase G
E. Phase H

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
Complete the sentence. A server consolidation project that does not change the operating characteristics of the applications would require _____.
A. a complete ADM cycle
B. a complete re-architecting change
C. a full revision of the enterprise architecture
D. an incremental change
E. a simplification change

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 29
Which one of the following is an objective of the Preliminary Phase of the ADM?
A. To define, scope and prioritize architecture tasks
B. To define the architecture principles
C. To develop a Target Business Architecture
D. To obtain management commitment for this cycle of the ADM
E. To prioritize work packages

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
In the Preliminary Phase, Which of the following drives the requirements and performance metrics when scoping the enterprise architecture work?
A. Architecture governance
B. Business imperatives
C. Solution architecture
D. Service level agreements
E. Time horizon

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
The Requirements Management Phase is responsible forWhich one of the following activities?
A. Addressing requirements
B. Disposal of resolved requirements
C. Generating requirements
D. Managing the flow of requirements
E. Prioritizing requirements

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 32
Complete the sentence. The Business Transformation Readiness Assessment technique is primarily focused on ___
A. determining if the organization is ready to accept change
B. planning the migration steps needed to achieve the transformation
C. ensuring that there are adequate trained developers and engineers to implement the solution
D. ensuring that there is sufficient financial capacity to execute the desired transformation
E. determining if there is adequate stakeholder support for the implementation process

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
Which of the following statements does NOT correctly describe Architecture Principles?
A. They are most effective when they are embraced and used across the organization
B. They are based on enterprise principles
C. They are detailed policies that prescribe behaviors and requirements
D. Even though they may appear generic, they should be tailored to reflect an organization’s culture and goals

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
Complete the sentence. All of the following are sections of the recommended template for defining Architecture Principles, except ___________
A. Name
B. Statement of Principle
C. Rationale
D. Enforcement Policy
E. Implications
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 35
Which one of the following lists the five quality criteria for defining Architecture Principles?
A. Rational, Explained, Precise, Stated, Identifiable
B. Comprehensive, Future proof, Short, Concise, Consistent
C. Open, Enabling, Flexible, Agile, Dynamic
D. Stable, Understandable, Complete, Robust, Consistent

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 36
Complete the sentence. The key purpose of Gap Analysis is to _____
A. establish quality parameters for the architecture
B. identify potential missing or overlapping functions
C. validate nonfunctional requirements
D. identify commercial building blocks to be purchased
E. determine the required service levels for the architecture

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
Complete the sentence. In a gap analysis, a building block that appears in the Target Architecture but does not appear in the Baseline Architecture indicates _____
A. nonconformant solution building blocks
B. an error has occurred and the architecture must be re-evaluated
C. requirements have not been properly documented
D. functionality that should be eliminated
E. a new function that must be built or procured

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 38
Complete the sentence. All of the following are parts of the conceptual structure of the TOGAF Architecture Governance Framework, except ______
A. Content
B. Context
C. Process Flow Control
D. Repository
E. Vision

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 39
Complete the sentence. The Architecture Board is typically responsible and accountable for achieving all of the following goals except ___________
A. ensuring consistency between sub-architectures
B. approving the strategic business plans proposed by individual organization units within the enterprise
C. enforcement of architecture compliance
D. identifying and approving components for reuse
E. providing the basis for all decision-making with regard to changes to the architecture
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40
Which of the following best describes the purpose of an architecture compliance review?
A. To review the validity of a project’s Architecture Vision
B. To review a project for compliance to external laws and regulations
C. To review a project against established architecture criteria and business objectives
D. To ensure that stakeholder concerns are being addressed by a project

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41
TOGAF provides guidelines on how to use the ADM to establish an architecture capability.Which one of the following is NOT a correct guideline?
A. Use the same approach as with any other capability
B. Regard the establishment as an ongoing practice
C. Apply the ADM with the specific vision to establish the practice
D. Treat the establishment as a one-off project

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
Which one of the following is defined by TOGAF as: the fundamental organization of a system embodied in its components, their relationship to each other, and the principles guiding its design and evolution?
A. Architecture
B. Metamodel
C. Model
D. Ontology
E. Pattern

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
Complete the sentence. In TOGAF, architecture viewpoints represent ______
A. observations of the CIO/CTO
B. opinions of the sponsors
C. observations of the architect staff
D. concerns of stakeholders
E. stakeholder requirements

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
Which one of the following statements about TOGAF Building Blocks is NOT true?
A. They should not be reused in other enterprise architecture projects
B. They should have stable, published interfaces that allow other building block to interoperate with them
C. They are packages of functionality intended to meet the business needs across the organization
D. They have defined boundaries

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 45
Which pair of the following responses best completes the sentence? Architecture building blocks ____, where as Solution Building blocks ____
A. are assembled; are single function components
B. are single function components; are groups of architecture building blocks
C. are reusable; are not reusable
D. define the architecture; provide the existing legacy system
E. define functionality; define the implementation of functionality
Correct Answer: E QUESTION 46
According to TOGAF, Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Architecture Definition Document?
A. An agreement between development partners and sponsors on the deliverables
B. A description to allow measurement of the compliance of the implementation
C. A description to communicate the intent of the architect
D. A document that triggers the start of an architecture development cycle
E. A set of general rules and guidelines

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
According to TOGAF, who usually initiates a Request for Architecture Work?
A. The architecture organization
B. The CIO/CTO
C. The corporate governance board
D. The senior management
E. The sponsoring organization

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 48
Which of the following is a true statement about the TOGAF Technical Reference Model?
A. The TOGAF Architecture Development Method mandates the use of the Technical Reference Model for large complex architecture projects
B. The Technical Reference Model is an integral part of the TOGAF Architecture Development Method
C. The Technical Reference Model should not be modified
D. The Technical Reference Model includes a set of graphical models and a corresponding taxonomy
E. The Technical Reference Model provides a direct mapping to the Zachman Framework

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 49
Complete the sentence. The Integrated Information Infrastructure Reference Model (III-RM) is an example of a (n) ______ Architecture reference model
A. Application
B. Business
C. Data
D. Technology

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 50
Complete the sentence. According to TOGAF, the simplest way of thinking about the Enterprise Continuum is as a _____
A. Configuration Database
B. library of architecture artifacts
C. Requirements Management System
D. Standards Information Base
E. view of the Architecture Repository

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QUESTION 25
Consider the following symbol, which represents information about a transformation project at ArchiSurance. Note that premium in this context means the total revenue ArchiSurance receives from legal services insurance premium payments:

Which of the following statements correctly expresses the meaning of the symbol?
A. ArchiSurance has attributed a 15% increase in premium to the transformation project in 2012
B. The increased premium revenue created by completion of the transformation project will motivate significant change in the ArchiSurance Legally Yours division
C. ArchiSurance has set a goal to increase legal services premium by 15% in 2012, as compared to the previous yea
D. ArchiSurance has a requirement to increase legal services premium by 15% in 2012

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 26
Consider the following diagram:

Which of the following statements best interprets this diagram?
A. Output generation is explicitly modeled as the collective behavior of the application components: Policy administration application and Financial application
B. Output generation is an application service that is realized in a joint effort of the Policy administration application and the Financial application
C. Output generation is behavior that is present in the Policy administration application as well as in the Financial application
D. Output generation represents the application collaboration of the Policy administration application and Financial application

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 27
Consider the following diagram:

Which answer most accurately interprets what the diagram indicates about the goal “Reduce Expense Ratio from 13% to11% in 2012”?
A. The goal is decomposed into three other goals
B. The goal is similar to the three other goals
C. The goal must be achieved before any of the other three goals is achieved
D. The goal will be achieved if at least one of the other three goals is achieved in 2012

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 28
ArchiSurance stores its legally binding documents on a disk array in a data center. Special- purpose systems softwarecontinually replicates all documents to a second, identical array at another ArchiSurance data center in a distant city.
Which ArchiMate concept best describes each of the two physical copies of a replicated document?
A. Data object
B. Business Object
C. Raw Data File
D. Artifact

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 29
Maya has been working for ArchiSurance for five years. The following diagram describes her responsibilities: Which of the following answers best interprets the diagram?

A. Maya works with the Senior Underwriter who works directly on complex cases and reviews simple cases
B. Maya supervises a Senior Underwriter who works directly on complex cases and reviews simple cases
C. In her Senior Underwriter role, Maya supervises separate teams that work directly on complex cases and review simple ones
D. In her Senior Underwriter role, Maya works directly on complex cases and reviews simple cases
E. Complex Case Underwriting

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
Which concept is typically used to model hardware systems such as mainframes, PCs, or routers?
A. System software
B. Network
C. Artifact
D. Device

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
Which of the following best describes why ArchiMate supports specialization of concepts?
A. It is the only way to model enterprise architectures that are useable and easy to communicate to the stakeholders
B. It is needed to represent the same concept on different viewpoints
C. It provides extra flexibility, enabling users to customize the language to their own preferences and needs, while maintaining the underlying precise definition of the concepts
D. It is allowed because without this mechanism it would be impossible to add attributes to ArchiMate concepts and relations
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
Consider the following entities commonly found in a typical large organization:
1.
A chief executive

2.
A software application for financial management

3.
A human resources department

4.
Server hardware that is used to host business applications
What is the single ArchiMate aspect in the ArchiMate Framework that describes all these entities?

A. Passive structure

B. Business structure

C. Behavior

D. Active structure
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 33
Consider the following diagram:

What is the strongest structural relationship that can be derived from business role Actuary to business interaction Closecontract (indicated by number 1 in the diagram)?
A. Assignment
B. Aggregation
C. Realization
D. Used by

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 34
Consider the following diagram representing part of a key PRO-FIT capability: self-service online price quotes for its auto insurance customers:

Which of the following answers best interprets this diagram?
A. The Self-Service Quote Solution is an application service that uses four separate application components
B. The Self-Service Quote Solution is an application collaboration that includes four application components that work together
C. The Self-Service Quote Solution is an application component that accesses four different types of data objects
D. The Self-Service Quote Solution is an application component that collaborates with four service modules

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35
Consider the following diagram:

What does the diagram express about the relationship between the three processes?
A. Take in Claim passes information to Gather Claim Information, and Gather Claim Information passes information to Adjudicate Claim
B. Take in Claim triggers Gather Claim Information, and Gather Claim Information triggers Adjudicate Claim
C. Take in Claim is used by Gather Claim Information, and Gather Claim Information is used by Adjudicate Claim
D. The three processes may execute in parallel, although they don’t have to

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
At ArchiSurance, risk assessment is part of an activity used to determine the adequacy of the company’s financial reserves against future claims and fluctuations in the value of its investments.

Which ArchiMate relationship should be used to express the forwarding of risk assessment findings for the reserve evaluationprocess?
A. Access
B. Assignment
C. Association
D. Flow

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 37
Which of the following phases of the TOGAF ADM correspond most closely to the ArchiMate Motivation Extension?
A. Preliminary, Architecture Vision, Requirements Management
B. Opportunities and Solutions, Migration Planning, Implementation Governance
C. Architecture Change Management
D. Business Architecture, Information Systems Architectures, Technology Architecture

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 38
The Application Co-operation viewpoint describes the relationships between application components in terms of the information flows between them, or in terms of the services they offer and use.
Which of the following concepts cannot be used in an Application Co-operation view?
A. Business object
B. Location
C. Application interface
D. Data object

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 39
Which of the following statements about ArchiMate viewpoint classification is correct?
A. There are three purpose dimensions and three abstraction levels
B. There are two purpose dimensions and three abstraction layers
C. There are four purpose dimensions and two abstraction levels
D. There are three purpose dimensions and four abstraction layers

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 40
Consider the following diagram using the Implementation and Migration extension: Which of the following statements correctly describes the concepts shown in the diagram?

A. Business processes
B. Plateau and deliverables
C. Project components
D. Work packages

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 41
ArchiMate is a visual modeling language for enterprise architecture.
Which of the following answers best describes the primary reason for developing an enterprise architecture?
A. To support an organization in aligning its business structure, business processes, and information systems with its strategic goals
B. To simplify the information systems within an organization and make them more efficient
C. To enable an organization to proactively develop the best knowledge and expertise to support its IT and business process portfolio
D. To ensure that the organization as a whole sees the value of its information systems

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 42
The diagram below shows key elements of the configuration of ArchiSurance’s newest and most powerful high-end server, which is a model T-9900:

Which of the following descriptions of the configuration is most consistent with the diagram?

A. The T-9900 is fitted with a DVX-1200 cooling system and AX-3000 onboard disk array
B. The T-9900 is running PRO-FIT’s custom, internally-developed DVX-1200 software for enterprise risk analysis and is fitted with an AX-3000 onboard disk array
C. The T-9900 node is running DVX-1200 middleware and the AX-3000 operating system software
D. The T-9900 is an assembly of DVX-1200 processing units and AX-3000 high-speed memory arrays

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 43
Billing data is a digital representation of a customer invoice.

Which ArchiMate relationship most closely represents the relationship between the billing data and the customer invoice in the diagram?
A. The Customer Invoice realizes the Billing Data
B. The Billing Data realizes the Customer Invoice
C. The Customer Invoice uses the Billing Data
D. The Customer Invoice is assigned to the Billing Data

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 44
What is the generic name in the ArchiMate language for the concept of an object on which behavior is performed?
A. Passive structure element
B. Data object
C. Active structure element
D. Passive data object

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 45
After a claim is processed, ArchiSurance notifies the claimant with a Claim Letter.

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