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QUESTION NO: 23
James would like to use profile documents to track individual users’ preferences when they access his Web site. How can he collect the user preference information and create a new profile

document?
A. Create an action button on a Web page and use @Command([CreateProfileDocument]).
B. Create a link to open a profile document using @Command([CreateProfileDocument]) and have users submit the form.
C. Have users enter their preferences in a form via the browser and then create the profile document using @Command([SetProfileField]) in the $$Return field.
D. Have users enter their preferences in a form via the browser and then create the profile document using @Command([SetProfileDocument]) in the WebQuerySave agent.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 24
Janira is adding a Received date to her Video Rental form. She would like to have the date field show the user a calendar for date selection. How would she accomplish this?
A. Set the field Type to Calendar
B. Set the field Type to Calendar/Time
C. Set the field Style to Calendar/Time control
D. Set the field Style to Notes Calendar control
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 25
When Nora creates a new document in the Suggestion application, a number of the fields have text already displayed. But when she tabs or clicks into the field, the text disappears. What design feature has been used to create this behavior?
A. Field Hint in the Field Properties dialog box
B. Default Value in the Form Properties dialog box
C. Help Description in the Field Properties dialog box
D. Field Assistance in the Field Properties dialog box
Answer: A QUESTION NO: 26
Everyone needs read access to inventory documents. Only the Inventory Managers group should be able to create inventory documents. The Warehouse group must be able to edit these documents. How should Claude configure the security?
A. Add a computed Readers field to the form, with the formula “*”. Add a computed Authors field to the form, with the formula “Inventory Managers”:”Warehouse”. Open the ACL and deselect the “Create documents” option for the Warehouse group.
B. Set Default read access to “All readers and above” on the Security tab of the Form properties. Add a computed Authors field to the form, with the formula “Inventory Manager”. Add a computed Editors field to the form, with the formula “Warehouse”.
C. Do not use a Readers field. On the Security tab of the Form properties, deselect “All authors and above” under “Who can create documents with this form”, and select “Inventory Managers”. Add an “InventoryEditor” role to the ACL. Associate the role with the Inventory Managers group and the Warehouse group. Add a computed Authors field to the form, with the formula: “[InventoryEditor]”.
D. Add a computed Readers field, with the formula “Default”. On the Security tab of the Form properties, deselect “All authors and above” under “Who can create documents with this form”, and select “Inventory Managers”. Add an “InvEditor” role to the ACL, associating the role with the Inventory Managers group and the Warehouse group. Add a computed Authors field to the form, with the formula: “InvEditor”.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 27
Robert does not want Authors in the Video database’s ACL to be able to edit certain fields in documents they created. Which one of the following can he do to accomplish this?
A. Set field security options to: Must have at least Editor access to use.
B. Use a Readers field on the form to prevent access to existing documents.
C. Use an Authors field on the form to prevent access to existing documents.
D. Create a standard section on the form and put the restricted fields in the section.
Answer: A QUESTION NO: 28
Minh supports the Change Control database. He has been asked if he can change the “by Month” Calendar view so that the days that are outside of the selected month are displayed with a light gray background and dark gray text. What can Minh do to address this request?
A. Modify the “Monthly” option on the View properties Styles tab. Select a light gray color for the “Not current” color, and select a dark gray color for the Text color.
B. Modify the “Date Area” option on the View properties Styles tab. Select a light gray background and set the Text color to dark gray. Modify the colors for background and text in the Current option area to differentiate the gray scheme.
C. This request cannot be met completely, but Minh can set the Body Background color for the entire view on the View properties Styles tab. He can then control the Text colors by creating a hidden column set to “Use value as color”, and by coding a column value formula to evaluate to RGB values.
D. Create a hidden column immediately before the StartDate column in the view. Select the “Use value as color” option. Code a formula to evaluate to one set of RGB values for Background and Text if the date is in the current month, and a different set of RBG values for dates outside the current month.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 29
Cheng wants to write a view selection statement to include documents created with the Review form and any responses. Which one of the following statements should Cheng write?
A. SELECT Form = “Review” | @AllDescendants
B. SELECT Form = “Review” & @AllDescendants
C. SELECT Form = “Review”; SELECT @Responses
D. SELECT Form = “Review”; SELECT @AllResponses
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 30
Muriel has integrated an outline into her database to provide the navigation, and she has verified that the functionality is correct. Instead of displaying the default folder icons to indicate when an outline entry can be expanded, Muriel would like to display a plus sign, similar to what she sees in the Domino Designer interface when looking at the outline of design elements for a database, and similar to what her users see when they open Windows Explorer. How can Muriel get the desired appearance for her outline?

A. Open the Outline Entry properties box for each expandable entry. From the Info tab, select Image and select “OS style”.
B. Open the Embedded Outline properties box from the page on which the outline is embedded. For the Twisties option, select “Show twisties”, and then select “OS style”.
C. Open the outline and from the Outline properties box, select the Styles tab. Select “Tree options”. In the options area that now displays, select “Show twisties”, and select “OS style”.
D. Create or locate graphics of the plus sign and the minus sign. Copy these graphics as expand.gif and collapse.gif to the server’s domino\graphics folder, replacing the default icons.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 31
Nora is writing an agent to update certain documents. She needs to ensure that the only records processed are records in which the Model field has a value of “Compact”. Which one of the following statements will Nora include in her agent, and where will the line be placed?
A. SELECT Model = “Compact”; Last line in the agent
B. SELECT Model = “Compact”; First line in the agent
C. @If (Model = “Compact”;@Success;@Failure); Last line in the agent
D. @If (Model = “Compact”;@Success;@Failure); First line in the agent
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 32
Muriel has created a view that shows the current year’s reported sales in the Sales Tracking application. She would like to give her end users the ability to sort on the customer, region, and sales manager columns. How would she accomplish this?

A. Set each column’s Sort option to Descending.
B. Set the “Allow custom sorting” option for the view.
C. Set the “Click on column header to sort” value to Both for all three columns.
D. Set the “Click on column header to sort” value to Custom for all three columns.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 33
Peter is working on the Sales Discussions application. He is building a new view that should display all main documents, and also all documents that have been submitted in response to the main documents or in response to other comments. Peter is trying to determine which @Function refers to all “Response” and “Response to Response” documents of parent documents. Which Formula will meet Peter needs?”Response” and “Response to Response” documents of parent documents. Which Formula will meet Peter? needs?
A. @Responses
B. @AllChildren
C. @AllResponses
D. @AllDescendants
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 34
Tresa’s users sometimes forward SalesOrder documents to coworkers if they have a question about the order. When the recipient of the forwarded document opens the mail message, they see an error message before the document opens. Tresa has determined that a hot-spot button on the SalesOrder form references code from the SalesOrder form. How can Tresa allow her users to forward documents without this button being forwarded?
A. Open the SalesOrder form and click on the hot-spot button. Add a hide formula of “@IsDocBeingForwarded”.
B. Open the SalesOrder form. From the Advanced tab of the Form properties, select “Send as RT Item” from the “On Send” options.
C. Open the SalesOrder form. From the Security tab of the Form properties, select “Disable printing/forwarding/copying to clipboard”.
D. Open the SalesOrder form and click on the hot-spot button. Select “Copied to the clipboard” from the Hide tab of the Button properties.

Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 35
Tyrone is working on the branding of the company’s Registration application, and he needs to add the company logo to each form. How can he do this and minimize potential future maintenance if the logo changes?
A. Add a computed link to the logo in each form.
B. Add the logo from the Resources – Files area.
C. Add the logo from the Resources – Images area.
D. Add the logo from the Resources – Style Sheets area.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 36
Luis needs to add a field to a form that will allow him to enter up to 500 kilobytes of data. What type of field should he use for this requirement?
A. Text
B. Rich Text
C. Extended Text
D. Expanded Text
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 37
Olga wants to have one action on the Video form that will give the options to Print, Save, and Exit the document when it is clicked. In which one of the following ways can she accomplish this?
A. Layer the actions in the Action menu.
B. Create a parent action with programmable subactions.
C. Use action buttons within an Outline control in a hidden frame to present “twisties.”

D. Use Hide/when formulas along with a database profile field setting to display “toolbars” of icons. Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 38
Dora has a view with a column that shows the date and time at which the document was created. She would like to show just the date and hide the time portion. How can she accomplish this?
A. In the View Properties dialog box, set the view style to Date/Time and format the date to be mm/dd/yyyy.
B. In the View Properties dialog box, set the view style to Date/Time, and deselect the Display Time option.
C. In the Column Properties dialog box, set the column style to Date/Time and format the date to be mm/dd/yyyy.
D. In the Column Properties dialog box, set the column style to Date/Time, and deselect the Display Time option.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 39
The graphic designer at Roshni’s company has developed a graphic theme to be applied to all of the company’s HR databases. Roshni has created a new image resource using the twistie.gif provided to her, but the categories in the views do not appear the way the graphic designer had described. What could be the problem?
A. Roshni was given a single 16×16 pixel image of the image that should display for a collapsed category. The image resource needs to be a 33×16 pixel image ?a 16×16 gif of the image for collapsed categories, followed by a one-pixel vertical spacer, and a 16×16 gif of the image for expanded categories.
B. Roshni received two 16×16 pixel images – one for expand and one for collapse -but she has not updated the Column properties. She now needs to designate a 16×16 resource image for the “Expand twistie” and a 16×16 resource image for the “Collapse twistie” options on the Column Properties box.
C. Roshni received two 16×16 pixel images – one for expand and one for collapse. But she imported the image resources as “open.gif” and “close.gif”. The images must be named “expand.gif and “collapse.gif”.
D. Roshni received a single 33×16 pixel image, containing a 16×16 gif of the image for collapsed

categories, followed by a one-pixel vertical spacer, and a 16×16 gif of the image for expanded categories. She created the image resource, but she needs to select the “Animated gif” option.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 40
When Eduardo tried to save a document, he got the following error message: Incorrect data type for operator or @Function: Text Expected. Which one of the following did he most likely do to cause this to happen?
A. He entered text in a number field.
B. He neglected to place a formula in a validation event.
C. He neglected to place a formula in a translation event.
D. He combined a text field and a time field in a formula.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 41
Ian has written a LotusScript agent to record some statistics when a browser user submits a document. What LotusScript NotesSession property allows Ian to get a copy of the submitted Lotus Domino document before it is saved?
A. Document
B. DominoDocument
C. DocumentContext
D. CurrentDocument
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 42
Sam wants to display a column only if the current user is associated with the Manager role. Otherwise, the column should be hidden. Which one of the following will allow him to do this?

A. Use @IsMember(“[Manager]”; @UserRoles) in the hide-when field formula.
B. Use @IsNotMember(“[Manager]”; @UserRoles) in the hide-when field formula.
C. Use @IsMember(“[Manager]”; @UserRoles) in the hide-when view column formula.
D. Use @IsNotMember(“[Manager]”; @UserRoles) in the hide-when view column formula.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 43
Mike is upgrading a Web application to use a different CSS stylesheet for different types of browsers. Which of the following @functions should he use to determine which Web browser the user is accessing his application with?
A. @Browser
B. @ClientInfo
C. @BrowserInfo
D. @BrowserType
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 44
Magdalena wants to allow the users of her application to rearrange and change the settings for some views (including private views), to allow them to optimize their experience in the application. How does she best do this?
A. Select the “Allow customizations” and “Default design for new folders and views” options in the View properties.
B. Select the “Allow customizations” option in the View properties and select the “Save Usersettings” option in the Column properties.
C. Unselect the “Create Personal view/folders” option in the ACL. Select the “Allow customizations” and “Resizable” options in the View properties.
D. Select the “Create Personal view/folders” option in the ACL, Select the “Allow customizations” option in the Database properties and the “Default design for new folders and views” option in the View properties.
Answer: A

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Question: 31
The multicast source device does not necessarily belong to the multicast group. It sends data to the multicast group, and may not be a receiver. ( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: A Question: 32

Which of the following is the destination address of a multicast packet? ( )
A. 224.0.0.1
B. 239.123.234.255
C. 244.1.1.3
D. All of the above
Answer: A, B
Question: 33
Which of the following is an intra-domain multicast routing protocol? ( )
A. MBGP
B. MSDP
C. PIM-SM
D. PIM-SM
Answer: C, D
Question: 34
The range of the Local management multicast addresses is ( ).
A. 224.0.0.0224.0.0.255
B. 224.0.1.0237.255.255.255
C. 238.0.0.0238.255.255.255
D. 239.0.0.0239.255.255.255
Answer: D

Question: 35
The length of PAUSE MAC control frame defined in IEEE802.3x is ( ).
A. 16 bytes
B. 32 bytes
C. 64 bytes
D. 96 bytes
Answer: C
Question: 36
The multicast distribution tree falls into ( ).
A. The shortest path tree
B. The best path tree
C. The shared distribution tree
D. The independent distribution tree
Answer: A, C

Question: 37
Based on UDP, multicast applications do not provide congestion avoidance mechanism. Therefore, duplication or un-sequence of the packets may occur. ( )
A. True

B. False
Answer: A

Question: 38
IGMP is a multicast signaling protocol between the hosts and the router in the existing IP network. ( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Question: 39
IGMP has three versions: v1, v2 and v3. Which of the following statements is right about the three versions? ( )
A. There are definite documents about specifications of the three versions.
B. IGMP v1 defines only the basic query and report of the members.
C. Based on v1, IGMP v2 adds a mechanism for the members to quit the group quickly.
D. Based on v2, IGMP v3 adds the active control of multicast sources, that is, a member can define which multicast group it wants to receive multicast packets from.
Answer: A, B, C, D

Question: 40
What protocol messages in IGMP v2 will be used for the maintenance of the multicast group information between the router and the hosts? ( )
A. Join group message
B. Leave group message
C. General query message
D. Group-Specific query message
E. Membership report message
Answer: B, C, D, E

Question: 41
When an IGMP v2 host needs to receive the flows of multicast group 239.0.0.1, the destination address of the membership report message sent by the host is ( ).
A. 224.0.0.1
B. 224.0.0.2
C. 224.0.0.13
D. 239.0.0.1
Answer: A

Question: 42
When an IGMP v2 host is about to quit multicast group 239.0.0.1, which of the following statements is right? ( )
A. The multicast address of the leave group message sent by the host is 224.0.0.1.
B. The multicast address of the leave group message sent by the host is 224.0.0.2.
C. The multicast address of the leave group message sent by the host is 224.0.0.13.

D. The multicast address of the leave group message sent by the host is 239.0.0.1.
Answer: B

Question: 43
If there are multiple multicast routers in a LAN, only one router needs to process the query messages. This is to reduce the amount of query packets in the network. Which of the following statements is right about the querier?
A. Any multicast router in the LAN can be the querier.
B. Upon starting, every multicast router in the LAN regards itself as the querier.
C. If the querier receives a query packet whose source IP address is smaller than the IP address of itself, the querier will stop sending query packets and become a non-querier.
D. If the querier receives a query packet whose source IP address is greater than the IP address of itself, the querier will stop sending query packets and become a non-querier.
Answer: A, B, C

Question: 44
The host will take some measures after receiving a query message to improve efficiency. Which of the following statements is right about these measures? ( )
A. All hosts respond after a random delay, which must be less than the maximum query response time in the query message.
B. All hosts respond after a random delay, which is not limited.
C. If the host detects that other host has sent a response, it will stop response.
D. The host does not monitor other hosts response, it will send the response packet once the random delay expires.
Answer: A, C

Question: 45
Which of the following statements is right about IGMP? ( )
A. Compared with IGMP v2, IGMP v1 does not define the group leave message and specific group query message. Therefore, an IGMP v1 router can only determine whether there is any member in the multicast group through the timer mechanism.
B. Compared with IGMP v2, IGMP v1 does not define queriers. Therefore, all routers in the IGMP v1 network are queriers.
C. IGMP v3 is enhanced with report messages for the designated source and members. Therefore, IGMP v3 can filter the flows of some sources, and receive the flows of specific sources only.
D. Compatible with IGMP v2and IGMP v1, IGMP v3 contains all the messages defined in v2 and v1.
Answer: A, C, D
Question: 46
VLAN can be defined based on ( ).
A. IP addresses
B. Network layers
C. MAC addresses
D. Ports

Answer: A, C, D

Question: 47
If a network has both IGMP v1 router and IGMP v2 router, the working status of the IGMP v2 router shall be ( ).
A. The IGMP v2 router shall work in the compatible mode of IGMP v1, that is, all the sent protocol packets are compatible with the format of IGMP v1 protocol packets.
B. The IGMP v2 router shall work in the IGMP v2 mode, and become the querier. The IGMP v1 router does not process the query messages.
C. When the IGMP v2 router detects that the IGMP v1 router no longer exist in the network, the working mode will transfer from the compatible mode to the IGMP v2 mode automatically.
D. Routers of two versions cannot work together. You should ensure that the routers in the LAN use the same version.
Answer: D

Question: 48
If a network has both IGMP v1 and IGMP v2 hosts, and the router runs IGMP v2.The working status of the router will be ( ).
A. The IGMP v2 router will work in the IGMP v1 compatible mode, that is, all sent protocol packets are compatible with the format of IGMP v1 protocol packets.
B. The IGMP v2 router will work in the IGMP v2 mode, and the IGMP v1 hosts cannot receive any multicast flow.
C. When the IGMP v2 router detects that all IGMP v1 hosts quit, the IGMP v1 compatible mode will transfer to the IGMP v2 mode automatically.
D. IGMP v1 hosts and IGMP v2 router cannot work together. You should ensure that the hosts and routers in the LAN use the same version.
Answer: A, C

Question: 49
IGMP works at Layer-3 between the router and host only. However, some special technologies are needed in the Layer-2 switching network to implement the maintenance of multicast table entries. Which of the following statements is right about Layer-2 multicast? ( )
A. In the Layer-2 switching network, IGMP snooping is most widely used.
B. IGMP snooping sets up the multicast forwarding entries through monitoring the membership report message between the hosts and router.
C. After the switch receives a query message of the router, it needs to forward the query message to all the members.
D. When the switch receives multiple query response packets of the same multicast group, it needs to forward only one response packet to the router.
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question: 50
To run IGMP on a H3C switch, which of the following commands is necessary? ( )
A. [H3C-interface-vlan1] pim dm
B. [H3C-interface-vlan1] igmp enable
C. [H3C-interface-vlan1] igmp version 2
D. [H3C] multicast routing-enable

Answer: B, D

Question: 51
Which of the following statements describes the command igmp host-join 225.0.0.1 port interface Ethernet 0/1 correctly? ( )
A. Only allow the hosts under port 0/1 to join in multicast group 225.0.0.1, and the hosts attached to other ports are denied.
B. Allow the hosts under port 0/1 to join in multicast group 225.0.0.1, and the other hosts attached to other ports can also join in the group.
C. Simulate a host under port 0/1 to join in multicast group 225.0.0.1, and port 0/1 is permanently in the forwarding list of the multicast group.
D. Simulate a host under port 0/1 to join in multicast group 225.0.0.1, and port 0/1 is not in the forwarding list of the multicast group.
Answer: C

Question: 52
For the H3C switch that supports both IGMP and IGMP snooping, which of the following statements is correct? ( )
A. [H3C-interface-vlan1] igmp enable is used to enable IGMP.
B. [H3C-vlan1] igmp enable is used to enable IGMP.
C. [H3C-interface-vlan1]igmp-snooping enable is used to enable IGMP snooping.
D. [H3C]igmp-snooping enable is used to enable IGMP snooping.
Answer: A, D

Question: 53
On a H3C switch, which IGMP versions can be used? ( )
A. IGMP version 1
B. IGMP version 2
C. IGMP version 3
D. All of the above
Answer: A, B

Question: 54
The higher version of IGMP is compatible to the lower version. Therefore, the versions of IGMP configured on a subnet can be different. ( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

Question: 55
Which of the following reserved multicast address is used for the transmission of protocol packets by PIM? ( )
A. 224.0.0.5
B. 224.0.0.13
C. 224.0.0.9
D. 224.0.0.2

Answer: B

Question: 56
In a PIM-DM multicast environment, if there is no multicast data receiver on all export ports of the router, the router will clear the export list of the forwarding entry and send a pruning message to inform the RPF upstream router to stop sending the multicast data to itself.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Question: 57
Which of the following is right about the GARP application? ( )
A. The switches in a network domain automatically share the VLAN information and multicast group configuration information.
B. The whole switching network can be monitored precisely through a switch.
C. The changed VLAN or multicast group configuration will be advertised to the whole switching network dynamically, thus reducing the maintenance cost and improving the reliability.
D. Plug-and-play of VLANs and multicast groups are implemented.
Answer: A, B, C, D

Question: 58
In a PIM-DM multicast environment, after the RPF upstream router receives the pruning message sent by the downstream multicast router that indicates there is no receiver, there will be no multicast data forwarded to the downstream direction.. ( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

Question: 59
In a PIM-DM multicast environment, the solicitation of the router to receive data will be rejected by the RPF upstream router within the pruning and flooding period.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

Question: 60
Due to the pruning-flooding mechanism of PIM-DM, the router will repeat the creation process ceaselessly to maintain the forwarding entry.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Question: 61

In a PIM-DM environment, after the RPF upstream router receives a graft message, it will send a graft response message ( ) to acknowledge the graft message.
A. Immediately
B. After the flooding starts
C. After receiving a second graft message
D. None of the above
Answer: A

Question: 62
In a PIM-DM environment, when the router receives duplicated multicast data from other routers on the export interface, the router will send an assert message from the port. The message contains the ( )
A. Priorities of routers that send the solicitation
B. Priority of the router itself
C. Route cost to the multicast source
D. Diameter of the multicast network
Answer: B, C

Question: 63
In a PIM-DM environment, after a router on a network segment receive an assert message, it will compare the information of the remote router with its own information. The sequence of the comparison is ( ).
A. Route cost -> priority -> IP address
B. IP address -> priority -> route cost
C. Priority -> route cost -> IP address
D. IP address -> route cost -> priority
Answer: C

Question: 64
In a PIM-DM environment, a router considers that there is no multicast receiver on any of its ports by default. ( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

Question: 65
To configure PIM-DM on the H3C Layer-3 Ethernet switches, you need only enable PIM-DM in the system view. ( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

Question: 66
In the PIM-DM H3C router, command pim hello timer seconds is used to set the interval to send the Hello packet on the interface. ( )

A. True
B. False
Answer: B

Question: 67
In PIM-SM, route entry (*, G) may be triggered by ( )
A. the join of the downstream PIM (*, G)
B. the arrival of multicast data flow
C. the IGMP join-in packet
D. the creation of entry (S, G)
Answer: A, C, D

Question: 68
SwitchA is an H3C S Layer-2 switch. PC1, PC2 and PC3 connect to E0/1, E0/2 and E0/3 of Switch A. The three ports belong to VLAN 10, VLAN 20 and VLAN 30 respectively. A server connects to port G1/1 of the switch, which belongs to VLAN100. The PCs are required to isolate from each other, and the PCs shall be able to access the server. After completing the configuration, which of the following statements is right about the switch ports? ( )
A. E0/1 is an access port, with the PVID VLAN 10.
B. E0/2 is a hybrid port, with the Untagged VLAN ID 100, and the Tagged VLAN ID 10.
C. E0/2 is a Hybrid port, with the Untagged VLAN IDs 20 and100, and the Tagged VLAN ID none.
D. G1/1 is a Hybrid port, with the Untagged VLAN IDs 10, 20, and 30, and the Tagged VLAN ID
100.

Answer: C
Question: 69
Which of the following statements is right about BSR election? ( )

A. BSR selection is based on the BSR priorities of routers. The priority is contained in the PIM Hello message.
B. The candidate BSR sets its BootStrap timer to 150 seconds, and enters into the candidate BSR status.
C. The BSR router will send its BSR message every 60 seconds from all interfaces.
D. The BSR message is multicasted to all PIM routers. The TTL of the packet is 1.and the message will be terminated on the adjacent router.
Answer: B, C

Question: 70
In a PIM-SM environment, a router considers that there is at least one multicast receiver on each of its ports by default.( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

Question: 71
A PIM-SM router maintains forwarding entries according to the join-in messages periodically sent by the downstream routers. ( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Question: 72
To enable PIM-SM on the H3C switch, taking VLAN10 as an example, which of the following is right?
A. Enable the multicast routing protocol: [H3C] multicast routing-enable
B. Set PIM-SM on every VLAN interface: [H3C] pim sm vlan-interface 10
C. Set the candidate BSR: [H3C-pim] c-bsr vlan-interface 10 24 2
D. Set the candidate RP: [H3C-pim] c-rp vlan-interface 10
Answer: A, C, D

Question: 73
When the DR receives the first multicast packet, it encapsulates the whole packet into the registration message, and then sends the message to the RP in the form of ( ).
A. Unicast
B. Broadcast
C. Multicast
D. Anycast
Answer: A
Question: 74
The ACL of H3C S switches can function to ( ).
A. Deny remote login of the user with a specific username

B. Deny the specific files
C. Deny all UDP packets
D. Deny all the Telnet connections from host 1.1.1.1/16 to host 1.2.1.1/16
Answer: C, D

Question: 75
The ACL is only used to filter packets, and it cannot monitor packets with potential risks. ( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

Question: 76
The ACL of Layer-3 switches can be defined with ( )
A. MAC address
B. IP address
C. TCP port
D. Usernames and passwords set by the application layer software
Answer: A, B, C

Question: 77
Which of the following can not be specified in the basic ACL?
A. Source IP address
B. Destination IP address
C. Valid to fragmented packets only
D. Time range
Answer: B

Question: 78
Providing flexible configurations, the user-defined ACL on the H3C S switch can match any part of the first 64-byte of the Ethernet frame. ( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question: 79
Which of the following is right about CSMA/CD? ( )
A. It is a telecommunication mechanism adopting the CDMA technology.
B. CSMA/CD means Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection.
C. It is supported by Ethernet switches, bridges, and hubs.
D. It is the next generation communication technology.
Answer: B
Question: 80
The ACL of the H3C S switch can ( ).

A. Filter all TCP packets
B. Classify packets according to MAC addresses
C. Classify packets according to priorities
D. Filter all packets that do not comply with the frame length requirement
Answer: A, B, C, D

Question: 81
To realize that the hosts in VLAN 1 can access the HTTP services in other VLANs, and the hosts in other VLANs can not access the HTTP service on the hosts of VLAN 1, you need to ( ).
A. Use the basic ACL
B. Use the advanced ACL with the source IP address, destination IP address, source port, and destination port specified
C. Use user-defined ACL
D. None of the above
Answer: C

Question: 82
On the H3C S switch, the ACL cannot be used to implement different QoS applications. ( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

Question: 83
The ACL of the H3C S switches can implement the control based on the frame length or IP packet length.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question: 84
The necessary steps to deploy ACL on the H3C S switch include ( ).
A. Setting the time range
B. Defining the ACL
C. Activating the ACL
D. None of the above
Answer: B, C
Question: 85
Compared with PPPoE, which advantage does 802.1x provide?
A. It is applicable to broadband access networks
B. It wastes bandwidth
C. It realizes the authentication, authorization and accounting
D. It encapsulates the data directly in Ethernet frame

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Question: 37
Based on UDP, multicast applications do not provide congestion avoidance mechanism. Therefore, duplication or un-sequence of the packets may occur. ( )
A. True

B. False
Answer: A

Question: 38
IGMP is a multicast signaling protocol between the hosts and the router in the existing IP network. ( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

D. The multicast address of the leave group message sent by the host is 239.0.0.1.
Answer: B

Answer: A, C, D

Answer: B, D

Question: 53
On a H3C switch, which IGMP versions can be used? ( )
A. IGMP version 1
B. IGMP version 2
C. IGMP version 3
D. All of the above
Answer: A, B

Question: 54
The higher version of IGMP is compatible to the lower version. Therefore, the versions of IGMP configured on a subnet can be different. ( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

Question: 55
Which of the following reserved multicast address is used for the transmission of protocol packets by PIM? ( )
A. 224.0.0.5
B. 224.0.0.13
C. 224.0.0.9
D. 224.0.0.2

Answer: B

Question: 60
Due to the pruning-flooding mechanism of PIM-DM, the router will repeat the creation process ceaselessly to maintain the forwarding entry.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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QUESTION 31
Configuring key/value pairs on a RADIUS server is associated with deploying which of the following?
A. WPA2-Enterprise wireless network
B. DNS secondary zones
C. Digital certificates
D. Intrusion detection system

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
WPA2-Enterprise is designed for enterprise networks and requires a RADIUS authentication server.
Incorrect Answers:
B: A secondary zone is merely a copy of a primary zone that is hosted on another server.
C: Digital certificates are used for proving the identity of a user or the source of an object.
D: An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors network or system activities for malicious activities or policy violations and produces reports to a management station.
References:
QUESTION 32
A security administrator must implement a network authentication solution which will ensure encryption of user credentials when users enter their username and password to authenticate to the network.
Which of the following should the administrator implement?
A. WPA2 over EAP-TTLS
B. WPA-PSK
C. WPA2 with WPS
D. WEP over EAP-PEAP
Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference:
D: Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is designed to provide security equivalent to that of a wired network. WEP has vulnerabilities and isn’t considered highly secure. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) provides a framework for authentication that is often used with wireless networks. Among the five EAP types adopted by the WPA/ WPA2 standard are EAP-TLS, EAP- PSK, EAP-MD5, as well as LEAP and PEAP. PEAP is similar in design to EAP-TTLS, requiring only a server-side PKI certificate to create a secure TLS tunnel to protect user authentication, and uses server- side public key certificates to authenticate the server. It then creates an encrypted TLS tunnel between the client and the authentication server. In most configurations, the keys for this encryption are transported using the server’s public key. The ensuing exchange of authentication information inside the tunnel to authenticate the client is then encrypted and user credentials are safe from eavesdropping.
Incorrect Answers:
A: WPA2 is a more recent version of WEP. Although many consider PEAP and EAP-TTLS to be similar options, PEAP is more secure because it establishes an encrypted channel between the server and the client. EAP-Tunneled Transport Layer Security (EAP-TTLS) is an EAP protocol that extends TLS. With EAP TTLS the client can, but does not have to be authenticated via a CA-signed PKI certificate to the server.
B: WPA is basically a version of WEP. EAP-PSK, defined in RFC 4764, is an EAP method for mutual authentication and session key derivation using a Pre-Shared Key (PSK). EAP-PSK is documented in an experimental RFC that provides a lightweight and extensible EAP method that does not require any public-key cryptography. The EAP method protocol exchange is done in a minimum of four messages.
C: WPA2 is a more recent version of WEP but does not ensure encryption of user credentials when they enter their usernames and passwords to authenticate to the network.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 171, 181.

QUESTION 33
Which of the following BEST describes the weakness in WEP encryption?
A. The initialization vector of WEP uses a crack-able RC4 encryption algorithm. Once enough packets are captured an XOR operation can be performed and the asymmetric keys can be derived.
B. The WEP key is stored in plain text and split in portions across 224 packets of random data. Once enough packets are sniffed the IV portion of the packets can be removed leaving the plain text key.
C. The WEP key has a weak MD4 hashing algorithm used. A simple rainbow table can be used to generate key possibilities due to MD4 collisions.
D. The WEP key is stored with a very small pool of random numbers to make the cipher text. As the random numbers are often reused it becomes easy to derive the remaining WEP key.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
WEP is based on RC4, but due to errors in design and implementation, WEP is weak in a number of areas, two of which are the use of a static common key and poor implementation of initiation vectors (IVs). When the WEP key is discovered, the attacker can join the network and then listen in on all other wireless client communications.
Incorrect Answers:
A: RC4 itself is not crack-able, but the IV that is crack-able.
B: The initialization vector (IV) that WEP uses for encryption is 24-bit and IVs are reused with the same key. By examining the repeating result, it is easy for intruders to crack the WEP secret key, known as an IV attack.
C: WEP does not use the MD4 hashing algorithm, but RC4.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 189.

QUESTION 34
Which of the following would satisfy wireless network implementation requirements to use mutual authentication and usernames and passwords?
A. EAP-MD5
B. WEP
C. PEAP-MSCHAPv2

D. EAP-TLS
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
PEAP-MS-CHAP v2 is easier to deploy than EAP-TLS or PEAP-TLS because user authentication is accomplished via password-base credentials (user name and password) rather than digital certificates or smart cards.
Incorrect Answers:
A: MD5 has been employed in a wide selection of cryptographic applications, and is also commonly used to verify data integrity.
B: Usernames and passwords are not required for WEP authentication.
D: Authenticated wireless access design based on Extensible Authentication Protocol Transport Level Security (EAP-TLS) can use either smart cards or user and computer certificates to authenticate wireless access clients. EAP-TLS does not use usernames and passwords for authentication.
References:
QUESTION 35
Matt, a systems security engineer, is determining which credential-type authentication to use within a planned 802.1x deployment. He is looking for a method that does not require a client certificate, has a server side certificate, and uses TLS tunnels for encryption. Which credential type authentication method BEST fits these requirements?
A. EAP-TLS
B. EAP-FAST
C. PEAP-CHAP
D. PEAP-MSCHAPv2
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
PEAP-MS-CHAP v2 is easier to deploy than EAP-TLS or PEAP-TLS because user authentication is accomplished via password-base credentials (user name and password) rather than digital certificates or smart cards. Only servers running Network Policy Server (NPS) or PEAP-MS-CHAP v2 are required to have a certificate.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Authenticated wireless access design based on Extensible Authentication Protocol Transport Level Security (EAP-TLS) can use either smart cards or user and computer certificates to authenticate wireless access clients. EAP-TLS does not use usernames and passwords for authentication.
B: EAP-FAST does not make use of TLS, but PAC (Protected Access Credentials).
C: CHAP intermittently authenticates the identity of the client via a three-way handshake.
References:
QUESTION 36
Which of the following means of wireless authentication is easily vulnerable to spoofing?
A. MAC Filtering
B. WPA – LEAP
C. WPA – PEAP
D. Enabled SSID
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Each network interface on your computer or any other networked device has a unique MAC address. These MAC addresses are assigned in the factory, but you
can easily change, or “spoof,” MAC addresses in software.

Networks can use MAC address filtering, only allowing devices with specific MAC addresses to connect to a network. This isn’t a great security tool because
people can spoof their MAC addresses.
Incorrect Answers:

B: WPA LEAP (Wifi Protected Access Lightweight Extensible Authentication Protocol) combine to ensure a secure wireless authentication method. WPA LEAP is not easily vulnerable to spoofing.
C: WPA PEAP (Wifi Protected Access Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol) combine to ensure a secure wireless authentication method. WPA PEAP is not easily vulnerable to spoofing.
D: Enabling SSID broadcasting makes the wireless network visible to clients. It is not a means of wireless authentication.

QUESTION 37
Ann, a sales manager, successfully connected her company-issued smartphone to the wireless network in her office without supplying a username/password
combination. Upon disconnecting from the wireless network, she attempted to connect her personal tablet computer to the same wireless network and could not
connect.
Which of the following is MOST likely the reason?

A. The company wireless is using a MAC filter.
B. The company wireless has SSID broadcast disabled.
C. The company wireless is using WEP.
D. The company wireless is using WPA2.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MAC filtering allows you to include or exclude computers and devices based on their MAC address.
Incorrect Answers:
B: because she could connect to the wireless with the first device, the SSID must be broadcasting. C, D: Both WEP and WPA2 require a password or phrase.
References:
QUESTION 38
After entering the following information into a SOHO wireless router, a mobile device’s user reports being unable to connect to the network: PERMIT 0A: D1: FA. B1: 03: 37 DENY 01: 33: 7F: AB: 10: AB
Which of the following is preventing the device from connecting?
A. WPA2-PSK requires a supplicant on the mobile device.
B. Hardware address filtering is blocking the device.
C. TCP/IP Port filtering has been implemented on the SOHO router.
D. IP address filtering has disabled the device from connecting.
Correct Answer: B Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
MAC filtering allows you to include or exclude computers and devices based on their MAC address.
Incorrect Answers:
A: WPA2-PSK is used to encrypt a network using a plain-English passphrase between 8 and 63 characters long. C, D: The information entered into the SOHO wireless router are MAC addresses, therefore these options are not valid.
References:
QUESTION 39
A security analyst has been tasked with securing a guest wireless network. They recommend the company use an authentication server but are told the funds are not available to set this up. Which of the following BEST allows the analyst to restrict user access to approved devices?
A. Antenna placement
B. Power level adjustment
C. Disable SSID broadcasting
D. MAC filtering

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A MAC filter is a list of authorized wireless client interface MAC addresses that is used by a WAP to block access to all unauthorized devices.

Incorrect Answers:
A, B: This will increase or decrease signal strength and availability, but will not restrict user access.

C: Numerous networks broadcast their name (known as an SSID broadcast) to reveal their presence. Removing the presence will affect both authorized and unauthorized devices.
References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 61.

QUESTION 40
If you don’t know the MAC address of a Linux-based machine, what command-line utility can you use to ascertain it?
A. macconfig
B. ifconfig
C. ipconfig
D. config

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
To find MAC address of a Unix/Linux workstation, use ifconfig or ip a.
Incorrect Answers:
A: macconfig is not a valid command-line utility.

C: To find MAC address of a Windows-based workstation, use ipconfig.

D: config on its own will not solve the problem.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 60.

QUESTION 41
An organization does not want the wireless network name to be easily discovered. Which of the following software features should be configured on the access points?
A. SSID broadcast
B. MAC filter
C. WPA2
D. Antenna placement
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Numerous networks broadcast their name (known as an SSID broadcast) to reveal their presence.
Incorrect Answers:
B: A MAC filter is a list of authorized wireless client interface MAC addresses that is used by a WAP to block access to all unauthorized devices. It does not, however, make finding the wireless network name any easier.
C: WPA2 deals with encryption, not the wireless network name.
D: This will increase or decrease signal strength and availability, but has nothing to do with the wireless network name being discovered.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 183. Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA
Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 61.

QUESTION 42
A security architect wishes to implement a wireless network with connectivity to the company’s internal network. Before they inform all employees that this network is being put in place, the architect wants to roll it out to a small test segment. Which of the following allows for greater secrecy about this network during this initial phase of implementation?
A. Disabling SSID broadcasting
B. Implementing WPA2 – TKIP
C. Implementing WPA2 – CCMP
D. Filtering test workstations by MAC address

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Network administrators may choose to disable SSID broadcast to hide their network from unauthorized personnel. However, the SSID is still needed to direct packets to and from the base station, so it’s a discoverable value using a wireless packet sniffer. Thus, the SSID should be disabled if the network isn’t for public use.
Incorrect Answers:
B: WPA2 makes use of CCMP, not TKIP.
C: WPA2 is an encryption scheme, but it will not make discovering the network difficult.
D: This will block devices not included in the MAC address list from accessing the network, but it will not make discovering the network difficult.
References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 60, 61.

QUESTION 43
While previously recommended as a security measure, disabling SSID broadcast is not effective against most attackers because network SSIDs are:
A. no longer used to authenticate to most wireless networks.
B. contained in certain wireless packets in plaintext.
C. contained in all wireless broadcast packets by default.
D. no longer supported in 802.11 protocols.

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The SSID is still required for directing packets to and from the base station, so it can be discovered using a wireless packet sniffer.

Incorrect Answers:
A, D: The SSID is still used as a unique identifier for a wireless LAN. It is therefore still valid for authentication, and also still supported in 802.11 protocols.

C: Devices which are configured to connect to a network which does not broadcast its SSID may try to connect to the network by broadcasting for the network. This results in the SSID being revealed to wireless snoopers in the vicinity of the device. It is not included by default.
References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 61.

QUESTION 44
A company provides secure wireless Internet access for visitors and vendors working onsite. Some of the vendors using older technology report that they are unable to access the wireless network after entering the correct network information. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this issue?
A. The SSID broadcast is disabled.
B. The company is using the wrong antenna type.
C. The MAC filtering is disabled on the access point.
D. The company is not using strong enough encryption.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
When the SSID is broadcast, any device with an automatic detect and connect feature is able to see the network and can initiate a connection with it. The fact that they cannot access the network means that they are unable to see it.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The antenna type deals with signal strength and direction. It will not have a bearing on whether technology is older.
C: The network information is being given to the vendors, therefore MAC filtering is not the issue.
D: The network information is being given to the vendors, therefore encryption is not the issue.
References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 61.

QUESTION 45
Which of the following best practices makes a wireless network more difficult to find?
A. Implement MAC filtering
B. UseWPA2-PSK
C. Disable SSID broadcast
D. Power down unused WAPs

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Network administrators may choose to disable SSID broadcast to hide their network from unauthorized personnel. However, the SSID is still needed to direct
packets to and from the base station, so it’s a discoverable value using a wireless packet sniffer. Thus, the SSID should be disabled if the network isn’t for public
use.
Incorrect Answers:

A: A MAC filter is a list of authorized wireless client interface MAC addresses that is used by a WAP to block access to all unauthorized devices. It does not, however, increase the difficulty of finding a wireless network.
B: WPA-Personal, also referred to as WPA-PSK (Pre-shared key) mode, is designed for home and small office networks and doesn’t require an authentication server. Each wireless network device authenticates with the access point using the same 256-bit key generated from a password or passphrase. Using this option will not decrease the chances of discovering the wireless network.
D: Using this option will not decrease the chances of discovering the wireless network in use.
References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 61.
QUESTION 46
Jane, the security administrator, sets up a new AP but realizes too many outsiders are able to connect to that AP and gain unauthorized access. Which of the following would be the BEST way to mitigate this issue and still provide coverage where needed? (Select TWO).
A. Disable the wired ports
B. Use channels 1, 4 and 7 only
C. Enable MAC filtering
D. Disable SSID broadcast
E. Switch from 802.11a to 802.11b
Correct Answer: CD Explanation Explanation/Reference:

Network administrators may choose to disable SSID broadcast to hide their network from unauthorized personnel. However, the SSID is still needed to direct
packets to and from the base station, so it’s a discoverable value using a wireless packet sniffer. Thus, the SSID should be disabled if the network isn’t for public
use.
A MAC filter is a list of authorized wireless client interface MAC addresses that is used by a WAP to block access to all unauthorized devices.

Incorrect Answers:

A: Disabling the wired ports will not prevent outsiders from connecting to the AP and gaining unauthorized access.

B: Selecting the correct channels will prevent interference, not unauthorized access.

E: Doing this will decrease the bandwidth and increase the risk of interference.
References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 61.

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Question No : 26 – (Topic 1)
Network upgrades have been completed and the WINS server was shutdown. It was decided that NetBIOS network traffic will no longer be permitted. Which of the following will accomplish this objective?
A. Content filtering
B. Port filtering
C. MAC filtering
D. IP filtering

Answer: B
Explanation: TCP/IP port filtering is the practice of selectively enabling or disabling Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) ports and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) ports on computers or network devices. When used in conjunction with other security practices, such as deploying firewall software at your Internet access point, applying port filters to intranet and Internet servers insulates those servers from many TCP/IP-based security attacks, including internal attacks by malicious users.

Question No : 27 – (Topic 1)
Companies trying to cut down on constant documentation of IP addresses could use which of the following?
A. Longer lease times
B. More reservations
C. Larger scopes
D. Dynamic IP addressing
Answer: D

Explanation:
In Dynamic IP addressing all the hosts with private ip address will be patted to the same ip so the administrator will not have to keep track of each and every host with private ip mapped to a static public ip address.

Question No : 28 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following DHCP properties defines the size of the pool of available IP addresses?
A. Options
B. Scope
C. Leases
D. Reservations
Answer: B

Explanation:
A range of IP addresses that are available to be leased to DHCP clients by the DHCP Server service.

Question No : 29 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following protocols works at the LOWEST layer of the OSI model?
A. L2TP
B. PPTP
C. ISAKMP
D. IPSec
Answer: A
Explanation: Layer Two Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) is an extension of the Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) used by an Internet service provider (ISP) to enable the operation of a virtual private network (VPN) over the Internet.

Question No : 30 – (Topic 1)
An employee connects to a work computer from home via the built-in Windows remote desktop connection. Which of the following is MOST likely being used to establish the connection?
A. RDP
B. RTP
C. RIP
D. RAS
Answer: A
Explanation:
Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a proprietary protocol developed by Microsoft, which provides a user with a graphical interface to connect to another computer over a network connection. The user employs RDP client software for this purpose, while the other computer must run RDP server software.

Question No : 31 – (Topic 1)
Discover, Offer, Request, and Acknowledge are the steps for which of the following protocols?
A. DNS
B. DOS
C. DHCP
D. DSL
Answer: C
Explanation:
when we install a dhcp server into our network then dhcp server works on the basis of dora process first dhcp server sends a hello message in to the network to discover the clients pc and when any client pc found in the network then, dhcp server offers the IP to client pc. When client pc.selects.any IP from dhcp server then client pc request for selected IP to dhcp server then dhcp server provide that IP to client pc and both send ackonledgement to each other.

Question No : 32 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following commands displays the routing table on a server or workstation?
A. nbtstat
B. route
C. traceroute
D. nmap
Answer: B

Explanation:
The route command allows you to make manual entries into the network routing tables. The route command distinguishes between routes to hosts….

Question No : 33 – (Topic 1)
At which of the following layers of the OSI model does ASCII work?
A. Session
B. Transport
C. Presentation
D. Application
Answer: C

Explanation:
The presentation layer is responsible for the delivery and formatting of information to the application layer for further processing or display. It relieves the application layer of concern regarding syntactical differences in data representation within the end-user systems. An example of a presentation service would be the conversion of an EBCDIC-coded text computer file to an ASCII-coded file.

Question No : 34 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following uses port 23 by default?
A. TELNET B. IMAP
C. FTP
D. SNMP
Answer: A
Explanation:
Telnet is a network protocol used on the Internet or local area networks to provide a bidirectional interactive text-oriented communication facility using a virtual terminal connection. User data is interspersed in-band with Telnet control information in an 8-bit byte oriented data connection over the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP).

Question No : 35 – (Topic 1)
Assigning the same IP address to a network device is which of the following?
A. SSID
B. Scope
C. Reservation
D. Lease
Answer: C
Explanation:
You might want to assign network printers and certain servers DHCP reservations to ensure that they always have the same IP address, but continue to receive updated configuration information from the DHCP server. For example, create reservations for servers that must always have the same IP address.

Question No : 36 – (Topic 1)
At which of the following layers do frames exist? (Select TWO).
A. OSI model Data link layer
B. TCP/IP model Network Interface layer
C. OSI model Physical layer
D. OSI model Network layer
E. TCP/IP model Internet layer

Answer: A,B Explanation:
The data link layer is concerned with local delivery of frames between devices on the same LAN. Data-link frames, as these protocol data units are called, do not cross the boundaries of a local network. Inter-network routing and global addressing are higher layer functions, allowing data-link protocols to focus on local delivery, addressing, and media arbitration. In this way, the data link layer is analogous to a neighborhood traffic cop; it endeavors to arbitrate between parties contending for access to a medium, without concern for their ultimate destination.

Question No : 37 – (Topic 1)
A user is unable to access any network resources. The IP configuration of the workstation is as follows:
IP Address: 192.168.10.32
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240
Default Gateway: 192.168.10.46
Which of the following would allow the user to connect to network resources?
A. Change the default gateway to 192.168.10.1
B. Change the default gateway to 192.168.10.254
C. Change the IP address to 192.168.10.31
D. Change the IP address to 192.168.10.33
Answer: D

Explanation:
The given ip address is network id which we don’t assign to the host so the next ip is applicable to this.

Question No : 38 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following DNS records is used to identify a domain’s SMTP server?
A. CNAME
B. PTR
C. MX
D. A
Answer: C
Explanation:
A mail exchanger record (MX record) is a type of resource record in the Domain Name System that specifies a mail server responsible for accepting email messages on behalf of a recipient’s domain, and a preference value used to prioritize mail delivery if multiple mail servers are available. The set of MX records of a domain name specifies how email should be routed with the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP).

Question No : 39 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following TCP ports are used by FTP? (Select TWO).
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 23
E. 25
F. 80
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
FTP uses two ports by default: 21 for sending commands, and 20 for sending data. For instance if you said “FTP <ServerName>” it would make the attempt using port 21. If the session was established, port 20 would be using for the data. NotE. These are the default ports which is what I assume you were asking. A server administrator can however configure FTP to use whatever port he defines.

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QUESTION 121
You are creating an interface element with a drop shadow for a Web page. You want to maintain the full, variable transparency of the graphic and shadow. You enable transparency in the Save for Web dialog box.
Which file format renders the transparency without introducing a surrounding matte color?
A. GIF
B. JPEG
C. PNG8
D. PNG24

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 122
You have created graphic that you will be using on the Web. The graphic includes transparent areas.
You want the fully transparent pixels to remain transparent, and you want to blend partially transparent
pixels with a color.
Which optimization options should you choose?

A. select transparency, and select a matte color
B. deselect transparency, and select a matte color
C. select transparency, and set the matte color to None
D. deselect transparency, and set the matte color to None

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 123
You have created a navigation bar for a Website that contains both continuous-tone images and areas of flat color.You ant to achieve the best optimization for the navigation bar. What should you do?
A. save the image as a GIF
B. save the image as a JPEG
C. create slices to determine how areas should be optimized
D. create image maps to determine how areas should be optimized

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 124
You have a single layered document. You want to generate a JPEG of a small area of the document. What should you do?
A. Copy that area to a new layer, disable the visibility of the original layer, then use the Save for Web dialog box
B. Save a selection of that area as a channel, then click the Alpha channel button in the Save for Web dialog box
C. Create a slice of that area, then choose All User Slices from the Slices pop-up menu of the Save Optimized As dialog box
D. Create a marquee of that area, then choose All User Slices from the Slices pop-up menu of the Save Optimized AS dialog box

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 125
Which file format should you use to display photographs and other continuous-tone images on the Web?
A. GIF
B. TIFF
C. PDF
D. JPEG

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 126
You have created a number of Layer Comps.
Which action can be performed WITHOUT causing a warning flat to be displayed in the Layer Comps palette?
A. moving layers
B. merging layers
C. deleting layers
D. changing color mode

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 127
You want to create several colors to use in a number of projects. You want to save the new colors independent of the defaults so that you can load them at any time.
What should you do?
A. addthe new colors to the Color palette, then choose Save Colors from the Colors palette menu.
B. Add the new colors to the Swatches palette,thenchoose Save Swatches from the Swatches palette menu.
C. Add the new colors to the Color palette, then from the Presets Manager, Shift-click on the new colors and click Save Set
D. Add the new colors to the Swatches palette, then from the Presets Manager, Shift-click on the new swatches and click Save Set

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 128
You want to paint on a layer by using the Brush tool with an opacity setting of 50%. Where do you change the opacity setting?
A. Status Bar
B. Layer palette
C. Brushes palette
D. Tool Options Bar

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 129
Which parameter can you monitor in the Status Bar?
A. the name of the active layer
B. the document’s color profile
C. the name of the active document
D. the document’s modification date

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 130
You share your workstation with other Photoshop users.
Which command should you use to preserve your preferred palette configuration?

A. View>New View
B. Edit > Preset Manager
C. Window > Workspace > Save Workspace
D. Window > Workspace > Reset Palette Locations

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 131
You have created a selection of a region of an image. You want a selection of only the edge of this region. What should you do?
A. choose Filter > Stylize > Find Edges
B. choose Select > Modify > Border and enter the width of the edge selection
C. choose Select > Transform Selection and hold the Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) key
D. choose Select > Inverse while holding down Shift and Alt (Windows) or Shift and Option (Mac OS)

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 132
After making a feathered selection, you choose Layer > New > Layer via Copy. Which statement is true?
A. The edges of the new layer fade to white from the center outward.
B. The edges of the new layer fade to black from the center outward.
C. The edges of the new layer fade in opacity from the center outward.
D. The edges of the new layer cut from opaque to transparent at the midpoint of the applied father.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 133
You want to change the color of the quick mask from its default to a different color. What should you do?
A. change the foreground color to the desired color before entering quick mask mode
B. change the background color to the desired color before entering quick mask mode
C. double click the quick mask icon near the bottom of the toolbox, then click the color box
D. while in quick mask mode, click on the masked pixels with the Magic Wand tool, then fill with the desired color

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 134
You have made and saved a selection as an alpha channel. You make another selection that overlaps a portion of the alpha channel selection you saved. You want a selection of only the overlapping region.
What should you do?
A. choose Select > Load Selection, choose the overlapping alpha channel, and select Add to Selection
B. hold down the Shift key while Ctrl (Windows) or Command (Mac OS) clicking on the overlapping alpha channel
C. choose Select > Load Selection, choose the overlapping alpha channel, and select Intersect with Selection
D. click the Intersect with Selection button in the Options Bar, then Ctrl (Windows) or Command (Mac OS) click the overlapping alpha channel

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 135
The active layer of a document has a layer mask. You want to select the portion of the layer that is visible. What should you do?
A. use the Magic Wand and click on the transparent part of the layer
B. Ctrl (Windows) or Command (Mac OS) click on the layer mask thumbnail in the Layers palette
C. use the Select > Load Selection command and choose the layer’s transparency with Invert checked
D. use the Select > Load Selection command and choose the layer’s transparency with invert unchecked

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 136
You want to print a document with shape layers. You want the vector data to be sent to the Postscript printer.
What should you do?
A. duplicate the shape layers vector masks as paths
B. choose Layer >Rasterize> All Layers before printing
C. select Maximize Compatibility in the File Handling Preference dialog box
D. selectInclude Vector Data in the Output options of the Print with Preview dialog box.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 137
You are printing an image from Photoshop. You want Photoshop to handle the color management.
Which option should you choose for Print Space from the Color Management area of the Print with Preview dialog box?
A. Same as Source
B. a profile of your printer
C. a profile of your monitor
D. Printer Color Management

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 138
Which statement about printing duotones is true?
A. Duotones must be converted to CMYK mode before printing.
B. A transfer function should be created for each ink in the duotone.
C. The inks used in duotones must be printed at different screen angles.
D. Duotones should be saved as TIFF files if they are going to be imported into and printed from a page-layout application.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 139
You want to print a document in duotone mode to your four-color desktop inkjet printer. Which statement is true?
A. Only two inks will be used by the printer.
B. The image will print in grayscale, using black ink only.
C. The image will print as a process color approximation of the document
D. Each of the inks specified in the duotone will be replaced by a pair of inks at the printer.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 140
Which command should you use to print an image by using the current print settings WITHOUT displaying a dialog box?
A. Print
B. Page Setup
C. Print One Copy
D. Print with Preview

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 141
You have crated a line of text. You want to reduce the amount of space between every character in the line.
What should you do?
A. decrease the leading
B. decrease the baseline shift
C. choose a negative value for kerning
D. choose a negative value for tracking

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 142
You have crated text on a path.
What should you do to flip the direction of the text along the path?

A. click the drag the text with the Move tool
B. click the drag the text with the Horizontal or Vertical Type tool
C. use the Path Selection tool to drag the I-Beam across the path
D. use the Direct Selection tool to drag the I-Beam across the path

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 143
You want to change the default Auto Leading percentage for type. What should you do?
A. choose Justification from the Character palette menu
B. choose Justification from the Paragraph palette menu
C. choose the percentage from the Leading menu of the Character palette
D. choose the percentage from the Leading menu of the Paragraph palette

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 144
An image with a correctly assigned input profile has been converted to Adobe RGB (1998). Which statement is true?
A. The colors look different, but the color numbers are identical.
B. The colors look different and the color numbers are different.
C. The colors look the same, but the color numbers are different.
D. The colors look the same and the color numbers are identical.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 145
You are preparing images fro the Web. Which working RGB space should you use?
A. Apple RGB
B. ColorMatchRGB
C. Adobe RGB (1998)
D. SRGB IEC6 1966-2.1

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 146
You are converting a document from a large gamut profile to a much smaller one. You are more concerned about preserving the visual relationship between colors than exact color matching.
Which rendering intent should you use?
A. Saturation
B. Perceptual
C. Relative Colorimetric
D. Absolute Colorimetric

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 147
What does Proof Setup do?
A. It configures the options (crop marks, bleed, etc) for the device on which you produce proofs.
B. It configures options for previewing on your monitor what colors a profiled device will produce.
C. It configures the options (crop marks, bleed, etc) for the device on which you typically print work.
D. It configures options (compression,resampling, etc) for producing a PDFProof?ofthe document.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 148
A photograph as scanned on two scanners, each of which has a valid ICC profile that has been assigned to the scans.
Which statement is true?
A. The colors in each document look different, but the color numbers are identical.
B. The colors in each document look different and the color numbers are different.
C. The colors in each document look the same, but the color numbers are different.
D. The colors in each document look the same and the color numbers are identical.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 31
What should you remember about running disk defragmenter on an operating system that is running slow but has fully functional hard drives as verified by one of HPs hard drive diagnostic tests? (Select two.)
A. Disk defragmenter cannot be used on SCSI drives.
B. Disk defragmenter should not be used on solid-state drives (SSD).
C. Disk defragmenter should be the only program running while the disk is defragmenting.
D. Disk defragmenter does not increase the responsiveness of the operating system.
E. Disk defragmenter cannot be used with drives in RAID configuration.

Correct Answer: CE QUESTION 32
You are having difficulty diagnosing a problem. You suspect a firmware issue that might be solved by a BIOS upgrade.
What should you do before performing the upgrade?
A. Check the HP Website to see whether the BIOS update addresses the specific issue, and make sure the customer is okay with upgrading their BIOS.
B. Download the HP BIOS compatibility utility, and run BIOS diagnostics.
C. Export the certificates and encryption keys from the Trusted Platform Module (TPM) because a BIOS upgrade removes all certificates and keys.
D. Upgrade the BIOS right away because that tends to solve most problems in less time.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 33
Which Linux operating system is typically installed on HP commercial notebooks?
A. Red Hat Linux, because it has the best technical paid and unpaid support
B. Ubuntu Linux, because it has the widest user adoption of all Linux distributions
C. FreeBSD, because it is the same operating system that Apple modified to create OS X
D. SuSE Linux, because it is user friendly, well documented, and compact

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 34
What happens to systems that use the non-UEFI based HP BIOS when the Real-Time Clock (RTC) battery is replaced?
A. The system date and time, saved passwords, and customized settings are cleared.
B. The system date and time, saved passwords, and customized settings are backed up.
C. The system date and time are cleared, but passwords and customized settings are backed up.
D. The system date and time are backed up, but passwords and customized settings are cleared.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
How do the automatic Power-On Self-Tests (POST) notify you of errors discovered during computer startup? (Select three.)
A. a beep code
B. a PXE message on the PXE server
C. a message on a USB-connected computer
D. an on-screen error message
E. an LED code
F. an email message

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 36
Which two Web sites provide information to locate replacement part numbers?
A. HP Replacement Parts and HP Warranty Lookup
B. HP PartSurfer and HP Services Media Library
C. HP Replacement Parts and HP Services Media Library
D. HP Channel Services Network and HP PartSurfer

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
Which removable and replaceable wireless connectivity service modules are often found in HP products? (Select two.)
A. Bluetooth module
B. HP ePrint wireless direct mobile printing
C. Wireless keyboard module
D. Logitech wireless mouse module
E. Wi-Fi (WLAN) module
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 38
What is the correct order of steps in the HP six-step troubleshooting process?
A. Collect data, evaluate data, develop action plan, implement action plan, problem solved, and implement preventative measures.
B. Collect data, evaluate data, implement preventative measures, develop action plan, implement action plan, and problem solved.
C. Develop action plan, implement action plan, implement preventative measures, collect data, evaluate data, and problem solved.
D. Develop action plan, implement action plan, collect data, evaluate data, problem solved, and implement preventative measures.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 39
Which statement best describes how the switchable graphics feature functions in HP notebooks?
A. The switchable graphics feature is an Intel-only technology that enables the GPU to enhance processor-intensive applications by switching some of the application threads to GPU threads using the less power-intensive GPU for processing data.
B. When configured in the BIOS, the switchable graphics feature determines whether the notebook is connected to the power supply and automatically uses only the discrete GPU for all graphics processing.
C. The switchable graphics feature uses the discrete GPU for graphics-intensive applications and the UMA graphics controller for other applications.
D. The switchable graphics feature is an AMD-only technology for adding up to three external displays through the DisplayPort, HDMI, and VGA ports.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
Which troubleshooting technique is useful for issues in all of these areas: system memory, system software, and system lockup?
A. Run a BIOS system check.
B. Check and remove third-party hardware, software, or peripherals.
C. Install HP Advanced System Diagnostics from a USB drive.
D. Replace suspected malfunctioning components with known working components.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
What is the correct way to back-up the BIOS on HP desktops and workstations?
A. Launch HP ProtectTools, run the BIOS back-up utility from the ProtectTools back-up options menu, and insert a USB drive into the computer. When the computer restarts, it saves the BIOS settings to the USB drive.
B. Run the HP BIOS Browser utility from the Windows command line to export the BIOS settings to an installed USB drive. The USB drive is automatically formatted and prepared for the BIOS recovery process.
C. Execute the HP Setup Utility, and run the Save to Diskette or Replicated Setup feature to save to a
1.44 MB diskette or to another storage device that can replicate a diskette.
D. Configure the HP Backup and Protect suite to include BIOS backup in the System Configuration tab. This stores the latest successful boot BIOS to the boot block ROM in case of BIOS failure.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
Why should you identify the model and version of the computer before performing service?
A. The hardware might have changed between different versions of the same computer model.
B. You might find an updated service manual for the product you are servicing, which can only be determined by searching for the exact model and version.
C. The model and version together can be decoded to show you exactly what shipped in the initial configuration of the product.
D. The computer model is the only important information because each component has a replacement part number.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 43
Which software application for HP commercial notebooks helps customers tailor system functions to maximize notebook capabilities and meet their needs?
A. HP QuickLook
B. HP QuickSync
C. HP Power Assistant
D. HP Performance Advisor

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
What is the correct way to clear the CMOS memory on an HP notebook?
A. Disconnect all power sources (cable and battery), remove the CMOS jumper access panel, move the jumper to the third position (the reset position), reconnect power, turn on the notebook, move the CMOS jumper back to the normal position, disconnect power, reassemble the notebook, and reconnect power.
B. Disconnect all power sources (cable and battery), remove the RTC battery, short the RTC battery connectors with a screwdriver, reconnect the RTC battery, reassemble the notebook, and reconnect power.
C. Disconnect all power sources (cable and battery), remove the CMOS button access panel, press and hold the CMOS button for five seconds, replace all components, and reconnect power.
D. Disconnect all power sources (cable and battery), remove the RTC battery, wait five minutes, replace the RTC battery, reassemble the notebook, and reconnect power.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 45
Which statement is true about the similarities between DMIFIT (2009-2010) and WNDMIFIT (2011 and later), which can be used to flash the Direct Media Interface (DMI) on HP notebooks?
A. Both have command-line interfaces to type the information into the CMOS.
B. Both are part of the BOIS update and can be run natively from the HP notebook.
C. Both can be loaded and run from the command line while Windows is running.
D. Both can be loaded and run from a USB drive.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 46
What is the purpose of the committing step that is part of the required Direct Media Interface (DMI) updating process for commercial notebooks?
A. Committing is enabling HP proprietary software to catalog the unique ID for each component installed in the system and to register each component with HP once the computer is online.
B. Committing is registering a board for a specific customer organization in the BIOS. This ensures that the computer can be recovered if stolen.
C. Committing is enabling or disabling an integrated Trusted Platform Module (TPM) along with certain Intel security features.
D. Committing is enabling or disabling an integrated Trusted Platform Module (TPM) along with certain AMD security features.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 47
Which service descriptions are true of HP’s self-repair service? (Select two.)
A. HP provides remote diagnosis, remote remedy, and shipping of necessary repair parts to the customer. The customer is responsible for installing the parts and returning all defective and unused parts to HP.
B. The customer can choose to install the replacement parts and return the defective parts to HP, or the customer can have HP install and return parts for a fee.
C. HP provides remote diagnosis, picks-up the product for repair, and returns the product to the customer
D. HP pays for all parts and shipping.
E. HP pays for shipping the replacement parts, and the customer pays for return shipping of unused and defective parts.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
Which HP business computer service tag item is no longer included on new HP notebook service tags?
A. product name
B. serial number
C. model key
D. SKU number

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 49
What can result from a computer losing power during a BIOS upgrade if the computer does not have a FailSafe Boot Block?
A. The computer reverts to the earlier version of BIOS because HP BIOS updates are fully redundant and include built-in backup and restore in case of power loss during upgrade.
B. The update fails, but HP BIOS updates can always be re-run to return the computer to a working state even if power is lost during a BIOS update.
C. The system ROM can become corrupt causing the system board to fail requiring replacement of the system board.
D. The system memory can become corrupt requiring replacement of the memory.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
How can you gain access to a system that is secured with a solenoid lock if you do not have the setup utility password?
A. Clear the CMOS by pressing and holding the CMOS button for three to five seconds.
B. Remove the solenoid hood lock from the chassis using a FailSafe key available from HP support.
C. Call HP Support, and request the HP authorized service provider override password for the device.
D. Clear the password using HP ProtectTools running from a USB drive.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 51
What does Intel’s vProTM technology enable with AMT?
A. capability to run diagnostics from the hard disk drive or from a bootable USB key taking full advantage of the error detection capabilities of Intel’s system diagnostics suite
B. capability to use a SATA solid state drive (SSD) as disk cache for a conventional hard disk drive or a RAID volume
C. capability to use self-encrypting drives with Intel-based motherboards by offloading some of the encryption algorithms to the dedicated vPro chip
D. remote management and security configuration of PCs that are Out of Band when PC power is off the OS is unavailable, or hardware has failed
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 52
How should you tighten screws while servicing HP notebooks?
A. Tighten screws as much as possible to ensure that they stay tight in tough situations where screws fall out and become lost
B. Tighten screws minimally because notebooks must remain flexible to avoid breaking internal components
C. Tighten screws only until they are snug because over-tightening can strip threads or stress plastic components causing parts or boards to misalign
D. Place screws using a small amount of thermal grease to ensure that heat transfer does not cause the screws to expand and fuse to the rest of the assembly

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
Which HP support communication type is the most urgent level and requires immediate attention upon receipt?
A. bulletin
B. advisory
C. statement
D. notice

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 54
You have run the ipconfig utility. What information generated by the utility would tell you that the computer IP address is assigned via DHCP?
A. If the IP address is 127.0.0.1 or any other IP address between 127.254.0.2 and 127.254.255.255, it is DHCP.
B. See the line labeled ‘DHCP enabled’.
C. If the default gateway is 0 0.0.0. It is DHCP.
D. If the subnet mask is 0.0.0.0, it is DHCP

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 26
Which customer value does the HP commitment to OpenSource Linux provide?
A. It provides for free escalation support on all major distributions of Linux running on HP hardware.
B. It provides an HP distribution of Linux that is less expensive than distributions from competitors.
C. It provides direct insight into the servers power use, resulting in lower power and cooling costs.
D. It prevents customers from being locked into a small range of solutions, and also lowers their costs.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Which HP technology enables a company to flatten its campus network infrastructure and implement single-tier network?
A. HP FlexNetwork architecture
B. Software-Defined Networking and OpenFlow
C. HP Intelligent Management Center (IMC. and Virtual Connect
D. HP Intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF. and higher-density switches
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
What is a distinct value of HP storage solutions for customers with a small IT group?
A. HP deduplication technologies minimize the amount of data that administrators need to manage.
B. HP embeds energy optimization technologies within all storage systems, saving maintenance costs.
C. HP can offer converged storage, networking, and server solutions with integrated management.
D. HP 3PAR thin provisioning technologies automatically deploy data protection across the data center. Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 29
Which service is available with Proactive Care, but is not available with Foundation Care?
A. Remote and onsite problem diagnosis and support
B. Expedited replacement of parts and materials
C. Software, firmware and documentation updates
D. Health check reporting on the infrastructure
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
HP Proactive Care (Study guide p.19)
HP Proactive Care services provide faster problem resolution, coupled with proactive services designed to help prevent problems before they occur. HP Proactive
Care integrates both proactive and reactive elements so customers can get superior value out of their IT investments.

Reactive support includes 24 x 7 monitoring, diagnostics, and notifications (health check reporting).

QUESTION 30
What is the recommended level of technology services for the “Starting Out customer phase?
A. HP Foundation Care
B. HP Proactive Care
C. HP Level One Support
D. HP Basic Technology Services
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
HP Foundation Care (Study guide p.40): Affordable reactive hardware and software support Fast essential IT support
QUESTION 31
A discount camera distribution wholesaler has 35 warehouses. The wholesaler uses a scale-out web farm for its Internet sales portal, and redundancy for the web site is currently based on inexpensive nodes. The wholesaler is experiencing rapid growth as it expands into new countries. Which HP server family best meets this customer’s needs?
A. HP Integrity BL800
B. HP ProLiant BL400
C. HP Moonshot
D. HP ProLiant SL6500
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

http://www.brightsideofnews.com/2014/05/06/hp-moonshot-using-arm-64-bit-soc/
QUESTION 32
A customer is considering whether moving toward the cloud makes sense for their business. How does the HP Cloud Optimizer help the customer meet their IT initiatives?
A. It automatically aligns the physical network with the needs of connected virtual machines (VMs).
B. It flattens the cloud networking environment so that it better supports mobile data.
C. It manages the support relationship with the cloud service provider
D. It simplifies moving applications and data between a private data center and the cloud.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
CloudOpt enables easier onboarding and migration to the cloud by accelerating data movement and application access. (Study guide p.35)
QUESTION 33
Which HP CloudSystem features help businesses manage private, public, and hybrid cloud environments? (Select two.)
A. Built-in software-defined network (SDN) controller
B. Complete management of the service lifecycle
C. A software-defined server platform for social, mobile, cloud, and big data
D. Support for multi-hypervisor and multi-OS infrastructures
E. A pre-integrated technology stack, configured for a particular application
Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
As part of the HP Converged Cloud portfolio, HP CloudSystem enables enterprises and service providers to build and manage services across private, public and hybrid cloud environments on a simplified, integrated architecture: (Study guide p.12)
Intelligent automation; application-to-infrastructure

Complete service lifecycle management from provisioning to monitoring to retirement

Supports multi-hypervisor, multi-OS, and heterogeneous infrastructures

Pre-packaged service design tools HP Cloud Maps

Built on proven and market-leading HP Converged Infrastructure and HP Cloud Service Automation

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QUESTION NO: 31
Which of the following practices come in the category of denial of service attack?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Sending lots of ICMP packets to an IP address
B. Disrupting services to a specific computer
C. Performing Back door attack on a system
D. Sending thousands of malformed packets to a network for bandwidth consumption
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 32
What does the Internet encryption and authentication system named RSA stand for?
A. Rivest-Shamir-Adleman
B. Read System Authority
C. Rivest-System-Adleman
D. Remote System Authority

Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 33
Which of the following authentication methods support mutual authentication?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. MS-CHAP v2
B. EAP-TLS
C. EAP-MD5
D. NTLM
Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 34
Fill in the blank with the appropriate layer name.
The Network layer of the OSI model corresponds to the
layer of the TCP/IP model.
A. Internet
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 35
Which of the following are the application layer protocols for security?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Secure Hypertext Transfer Protocol (S-HTTP)
B. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
C. Secure Electronic Transaction (SET)
D. Secure Shell (SSH)
Answer: A,C,D QUESTION NO: 36

John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project for testing the security of www.we-are-secure.com. He wants to corrupt an IDS signature database so that performing attacks on the server is made easy and he can observe the flaws in the We-are-secure server. To perform his task, he first of all sends a virus that continuously changes its signature to avoid detection from IDS. Since the new signature of the virus does not match the old signature, which is entered in the IDS signature database, IDS becomes unable to point out the malicious virus. Which of the following IDS evasion attacks is John performing?
A. Session splicing attack
B. Evasion attack
C. Insertion attack
D. Polymorphic shell code attack
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 37
Which of the following types of attacks is only intended to make a computer resource unavailable to its users?
A. Teardrop attack
B. Denial of Service attack
C. Land attack
D. Replay attack
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 38
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of www.we-are-secure.com. He wants to perform a stealth scan to discover open ports and applications running on the We-are-secure server. For this purpose, he wants to initiate scanning with the IP address of any third party. Which of the following scanning techniques will John use to accomplish his task?
A. RPC

B. IDLE
C. UDP
D. TCP SYN/ACK
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 39
Mark has been hired by a company to work as a Network Assistant. He is assigned the task to configure a dial-up connection. He is configuring a laptop. Which of the following protocols should he disable to ensure that the password is encrypted during remote access?
A. SPAP
B. MSCHAP V2
C. PAP
D. MSCHAP
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 40
Which of the following are data link layer components?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Switches
B. Bridges
C. MAC addresses
D. Hub
Answer: A,B,C

QUESTION NO: 41
Which of the following statements about a host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS) are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A. It can detect events scattered over the network.
B. It is a technique that allows multiple computers to share one or more IP addresses.
C. It cannot detect events scattered over the network.
D. It can handle encrypted and unencrypted traffic equally.
Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 42
You work as a professional Ethical Hacker. You are assigned a project to test the security of www.we-are-secure.com. You are working on the Windows Server 2003 operating system. You suspect that your friend has installed the keyghost keylogger onto your computer. Which of the following countermeasures would you employ in such a situation?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Use on-screen keyboards and speech-to-text conversion software which can also be useful agains keyloggers, as there are no typing or mouse movements involved.
B. Remove the SNMP agent or disable the SNMP service.
C. Use commercially available anti-keyloggers such as PrivacyKeyboard.
D. Monitor the programs running on the server to see whether any new process is running on the server or not.
Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION NO: 43
Which of the following can be prevented by an organization using job rotation and separation of duties policies?
A. Collusion
B. Eavesdropping
C. Buffer overflow
D. Phishing
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 44

Which of the following protocols work at the data-link layer?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. NFS
B. SSL
C. ARP
D. PPP
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 45
Which of the following terms refers to the method that allows or restricts specific types of packets from crossing over the firewall?
A. Web caching
B. Hacking
C. Packet filtering
D. Spoofing
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 46
Which of the following encryption methods comes under symmetric encryption algorithm?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Blowfish
B. DES
C. Diffie-Hellman
D. RC5
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 47
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term.

A is a digital representation of information that identifies authorized users on the Internet and intranets.
A. certificate
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 48
Which of the following defines the communication link between a Web server and Web applications?
A. PGP
B. CGI
C. IETF
D. Firewall
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 49
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project to test the security of www.we-are-secure.com. He wants to test the effect of a virus on the We-are-secure server. He injects the virus on the server and, as a result, the server becomes infected with the virus even though an established antivirus program is installed on the server. Which of the following do you think are the reasons why the antivirus installed on the server did not detect the virus injected by John?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The mutation engine of the virus is generating a new encrypted code.
B. John has changed the signature of the virus.
C. The virus, used by John, is not in the database of the antivirus program installed on the server.
D. John has created a new virus.
Answer: A,B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 50

Which of the following are the centralized administration technologies?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. TACACS+
B. RADIUS
C. Media Access control
D. Peer-to-Peer
Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 51
Which of the following statements about active attack is true?
A. It does not insert false packets into the data stream.
B. It makes the computer’s network services unavailable.
C. It inserts false packets into the data stream.
D. It locks out the users’ accounts.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 52
Which of the following are the ways of sending secure e-mail messages over the Internet?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. PGP
B. IPSec
C. TLS
D. S/MIME
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 53
Which of the following terms is used for a router that filters traffic before it is passed to the firewall?

A. Honey pot
B. Bastion host
C. Demilitarized zone (DMZ)
D. Screened host
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 54
Which of the following protocols is built in the Web server and browser to encrypt data traveling over the Internet?
A. UDP
B. HTTP
C. SSL D.IPSec
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 55
Which of the following is a formula, practice, process, design, instrument, pattern, or compilation of information which is not generally known, but by which a business can obtain an economic advantage over its competitors?
A. Cookie
B. Trade secret
C. Utility model
D. Copyright
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 56
Which of the following statements about Diffie-Hellman encryption are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It uses only a private key.

B. It uses both a public key and a private key.
C. It does not authenticate the parties involved.
D. It was developed in 1976.
Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 57
Andrew works as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. The company’s network has a Web server that hosts the company’s Web site. Andrew wants to increase the security of the Web site by implementing Secure Sockets Layer (SSL). Which of the following types of encryption does SSL use?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Secret
B. Asymmetric
C. Synchronous
D. Symmetric
Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 58
Which of the following steps are generally followed in computer forensic examinations?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Acquire
B. Analyze
C. Encrypt
D. Authenticate
Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION NO: 59
John visits an online shop that stores the IDs and prices of the items to buy in a cookie. After selecting the items that he wants to buy, the attacker changes the price of the item to
1.

Original cookie values:
ItemID1=2
ItemPrice1=900
ItemID2=1
ItemPrice2=200
Modified cookie values:
ItemID1=2
ItemPrice1=1
ItemID2=1
ItemPrice2=1
Now, he clicks the Buy button, and the prices are sent to the server that calculates the total

price.
Which of the following hacking techniques is John performing?

A. Cross site scripting
B. Man-in-the-middle attack
C. Cookie poisoning
D. Computer-based social engineering
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 60
Which of the following is the default port for the NetBIOS name service?
A. UDP port 137
B. TCP port 110
C. UDP port 138
D. TCP port 119
Answer: A QUESTION NO: 61
Which of the following access control models are used in the commercial sector?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Clark-Wilson model
B. Clark-Biba model
C. Bell-LaPadula model
D. Biba model
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 62
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of www.we-are-secure.com. He has successfully performed the following steps of the preattack phase to check the security of the We-are-secure network:
.
Gathering information

.
Determining the network range

.
Identifying active systems
Now, he wants to find the open ports and applications running on the network. Which of the following tools will he use to accomplish his task?
A. ARIN
B. APNIC
C. SuperScan
D. RIPE
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 63
You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. When you enter http://66.111.64.227 in the browser’s address bar, you are able to access the site. But, you are unable to access the site when you enter http://www.PassGuide.com. What is the most likely cause?

A. The site’s Web server has heavy traffic.
B. The site’s Web server is offline.
C. WINS server has no NetBIOS name entry for the server.
D. DNS entry is not available for the host name.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 64
Which of the following tools is a component of Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance (ASA) and provides an in-depth security design to prevent various types of problems such as viruses, spams, and spyware?
A. Anti-x
B. LIDS
C. Scanlogd
D. KFSensor
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 65
Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a Windows 2000 domain-based network. Users report that they are unable to log on to the network. Mark finds that accounts are locked out due to multiple incorrect log on attempts. What is the most likely cause of the account lockouts?
A. SYN attack
B. Spoofing
C. PING attack
D. Brute force attack
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 66
Which of the following are tunneling protocols?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A. NNTP
B. SMTP
C. L2TP
D. PPTP
Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 67
Which of the following statements about the One Time Password (OTP) security system are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It requires a password only once to authenticate users.
B. It requires a new password every time a user authenticates himself.
C. It generates passwords by using either the MD4 or MD5 hashing algorithm.
D. It generates passwords by using Kerberos v5.
Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 68
Which of the following are ensured by the concept of integrity in information system security?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Unauthorized modifications are not made by authorized users.
B. Data modifications are not made by an unauthorized user or process.
C. The intentional or unintentional unauthorized disclosure of a message or important document contents is prevented.
D. The systems are up and running when they are needed.
Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 69
You work as a Network Administrator for Net World International. The company has a Windows Active Directory-based single domain single forest network. The functional level of the forest is Windows Server 2003. There are ten Sales Managers in the company. The company has recently provided laptops to all its Sales Managers. All the laptops run Windows XP Professional. These laptops will be connected to the company’s network through wireless connections. The company’s management wants to implement Shared Key authentication for these laptops. When you try to configure the network interface card of one of the laptops for Shared Key authentication, you find no such option. What will you do to enable Shared Key authentication?

A. Install PEAP-MS-CHAP v2.
B. Install Service Pack 1.
C. Enable WEP.
D. Install EAP-TLS.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 70
You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. The company’s network has an FTP server.
You want to secure the server so that only authorized users can access it. What will you do to accomplish this?
A. Stop the FTP service on the server.
B. Disable anonymous authentication.
C. Disable the network adapter on the server.
D. Enable anonymous authentication.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 71
Fill in the blank with the appropriate layer name of the OSI model.
Secure Socket Layer (SSL) operates at the
layer of the OSI model.
A. transport
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 72
Which of the following is a source port forwarder and redirector tool?

A. Fpipe
B. NMAP
C. SuperScan
D. NSLOOKUP
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 73
Which of the following statements about Due Care policy is true?
A. It provides information about new viruses.
B. It is a method used to authenticate users on a network.
C. It identifies the level of confidentiality of information.
D. It is a method for securing database servers.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 74
Which of the following methods backs up all changes made since the last full or normal backup?
A. Half backup
B. Incremental backup
C. Differential backup
D. Full backup
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 75
Which of the following statements about Discretionary Access Control List (DACL) is true?
A. It is a rule list containing access control entries.
B. It specifies whether an audit activity should be performed when an object attempts to access a resource.
C. It is a list containing user accounts, groups, and computers that are allowed (or denied) access to the object.

D. It is a unique number that identifies a user, group, and computer account.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 76
Which of the following types of attack can be used to break the best physical and logical security mechanism to gain access to a system?
A. Social engineering attack
B. Password guessing attack
C. Mail bombing
D. Cross site scripting attack
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 77
Which of the following types of attacks is targeting a Web server with multiple compromised computers that are simultaneously sending hundreds of FIN packets with spoofed IP source IP addresses?
A. Dictionary attack
B. DDoS attack
C. Insertion attack
D. Evasion attack
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 78
Which of the following languages enable programmers to store cookies on client computers?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Perl
B. DHTML
C. JavaScript
D. HTML

Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 79
Which of the following statement about eavesdropping is true?
A. It is a type of password guessing attack.
B. It is a way of preventing electronic emissions that are generated from a computer or network.
C. It is known as network saturation attack or bandwidth consumption attack.
D. It is the process of hearing or listening in private conversations.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 80
You work as a Database Administrator for Bluewell Inc. The company has a SQL Server 2005 computer. The company asks you to implement a RAID system to provide fault tolerance to a database. You want to implement disk mirroring. Which of the following RAID levels will you use to accomplish the task?
A. RAID-1
B. RAID-10
C. RAID-0
D. RAID-5
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 81
Which of the following layers of the OSI model provides end-to-end service?
A. The physical layer
B. The application layer
C. The session layer
D. The transport layer
Answer: D QUESTION NO: 82
These are false reports about non-existent viruses. In these reports, the writer often claims to do impossible things. Due to these false reports, the network administrator shuts down his network, which in turn affects the work of the company. These reports falsely claim to describe an extremely dangerous virus, and declare that the report is issued by a reputed company. These reports are known as .
A. Time bombs
B. Virus hoaxes
C. Chain letters
D. Spambots
E. Logic bombs
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 83
Which of the following statements are true about a Gantt chart?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It displays the duration of a task.
B. It is easier to plan than PERT.
C. It displays dependencies between activities.
D. The impact of slippage is easily determined.
Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION NO: 84
Which of the following is a network service that stores and organizes information about a network users and network resources and that allows administrators to manage users’ access to the resources?
A. Terminal service
B. DFS service
C. SMTP service
D. Directory service

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 85
Mark the list that mentions the correct levels of classification of the military data-classification system.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 86
Which of the following processes is known as sanitization?
A. Physically destroying the media and the information stored on it.
B. Assessing the risk involved in discarding particular information.
C. Verifying the identity of a person, network host, or system process.
D. Removing the content from the media so that it is difficult to restore.

Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 87
Which of the following are used to suppress gasoline and oil fires?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Water
B. CO2
C. Halon
D. Soda acid
Answer: B,C,D QUESTION NO: 88

You are responsible for a Microsoft based network. Your servers are all clustered. Which of the following are the likely reasons for the clustering?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Load balancing
B. Ease of maintenance
C. Failover
D. Reduce power consumption
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 89
Which of the following tools can be used to perform polymorphic shell code attacks?
A. TrueCrypt
B. Fragroute
C. Mendax
D. ADMutate
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 90
Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a Windows 2003 domainbased network. The company has two offices in different cities. The offices are connected through the Internet. Both offices have a Windows 2003 server named SERV1 and SERV2 respectively. Mark is required to create a secure connection between both offices. He configures a VPN connection between the offices using the two servers. He uses L2TP for VPN and also configures an IPSec tunnel. Which of the following will he achieve with this configuration?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Highest possible encryption for traffic between the offices
B. Encryption for the local files stored on the two servers
C. Extra bandwidth on the Internet connection
D. Mutual authentication between the two servers

Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 91
Which of the following statements about digital signature is true?
A. Digital signature compresses the message to which it is applied.
B. Digital signature is required for an e-mail message to get through a firewall.
C. Digital signature verifies the identity of the person who applies it to a document.
D. Digital signature decrypts the contents of documents.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 92
Which of the following protocols allows an e-mail client to access and manipulate a remote e-mail file without downloading it to the local computer?
A. IMAP
B. SNMP
C. SMTP
D. POP3
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 93
Which of the following refers to going through someone’s trash to find out useful or confidential information?
A. Dumpster diving
B. Hacking
C. Phishing
D. Spoofing
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 94

Which of the following have been developed to address security issues in the e-commerce system?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Digital cash
B. Encryption frameworks
C. Shopping cart
D. Digital signatures
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 95
Which of the following terms refers to the act of obtaining plain text from cipher text without a cryptographic key?
A. Hacking
B. Algorithm
C. Cryptanalysis
D. Ciphertext

Answer: C

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Question No : 1
For the Information Server Repository, which Relational Database Management System (RDMS) CANNOT be used?
A. Microsoft SQL Server
B. Informix
C. DB2 UDB
D. Oracle

Answer: B
Question No : 2
Where are Table Definitions stored?
A. Information Server metadata repository
B. In the file system as a binary file
C. In the file system as a csv file
D. None of the above

Answer: A
Question No : 3
Which of the following is a valid Write Table action in the Connector Stages?
A. Append
B. Replace
C. Truncate
D. All of the above

Answer: D
Question No : 4
Which type of Join would you select for the Join Stage to output unmatched records from both input data sources?
A. Inner join
B. Left outer join
C. Right outer join
D. Full outer join

Answer: D
Question No : 5
In a Job Sequence, what is the purpose for the use of Checkpoints?
A. Monitor performance and failure for each stage
B. Automatically restart a job
C. Record the log information for each trigger
D. Restart a job from the latest Checkpoint in case of job failures

Answer: D
Question No : 6
Using a Job Sequence, which of the following tasks CANNOT be performed?
A. Define specific user variables and make them available within a Job Sequence
B. Drop a database table using a script, then start two different parallel jobs in sequence when a file appears in a specific directory
C. Run two different parallel jobs in sequence and use job parameters to pass different $APT_CONFIG _FILE values for each of them
D. Create multiple Exception Handlers stages to handle different types of failures

Answer: D
Question No : 7
Which statement about Metadata Workbench is incorrect?
A. It can extend data lineage to display data integration flows that are outside of Information Server
B. It relies on the repository functions in DataStage Designer for impact analysis
C. It displays data lineage reports D. It allows Metadata Workbench administrators to associate data stewards with data objects

Answer: B
Question No : 8
A Job Sequence CANNOT contain __________.
A. Transformer Stages
B. Sequencer Stages
C. Triggers
D. Job Activity Stages

Answer: A
Question No : 9
In DataStage, which client can be used to set environment variables at project level?
A. DataStage Designer
B. DataStage Administrator
C. DataStage Director
D. Information Server Web Console

Answer: B
Question No : 10
What action will a Lookup Stage take when “Drop” is selected as the Lookup Failure Option?
A. Stage reports an error
B. Stage skips the input record
C. Stage rejects the Input record
D. Job gets aborted
Answer: B

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