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QUESTION 26
How can you provide an interface for a custom object type that gets instantiated using DFC methods such as getObject()?
A. extend IDfDocument
B. extend IDfSysObject
C. create a TBO with an interface for the custom object type
D. create an SBO with an interface for the custom object type

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 27
Which interface can be used when creating repository objects that have content?
A. IDfTypedObject
B. IDfDocument
C. IDfPersistentObject
D. IDfContentObject

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
Which interface declares the save()method?
A. IDfSysObject
B. IDfTypedObject
C. IDfDocument
D. IDfPersistentObject

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
A custom object type called my_loan_application is created with a custom repeating attribute called borrower_names. The data type of the attribute is String. Which interface declares a method to update borrower_names?
A. IDfTypedObject
B. IDfType
C. IDfValueAssistance
D. IDfCustomObject

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
What is the correct hierarchy in the Documentum object model?
A. dm_folder inherits from dm_cabinet, which inherits from dm_sysobject.
B. dm_sysobject inherits from dm_document.
C. dm_document inherits from dm_folder, which inherits from dm_sysobject.
D. dm_category inherits from dm_folder, which inherits from dm_sysobject.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
Which statement is true about IDfClientX interface?
A. It provides methods to add a Connection Broker to the list of brokers known to DFC.
B. It provides methods to construct a session manager.
C. It provides factory methods for operations.
D. It provides methods to obtain an IDfTypedObject interface.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
Which is the correct DFC interface hierarchy?
A. IDfSysObject extends IDfPersistentObject which extends IDfTypedObject.
B. IDfSysObject extends IDfTypedObject which extends IDfPersistentObject.
C. IDfFolder extends IDfCabinet which extends IDfSysobject.
D. IDfPermit extends IDfACL which extends IDfSysobject.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 33
Which is a valid DFC package?
A. com.documentum.da.user
B. com.documentum.workflow
C. com.documentum.transaction
D. com.documentum.fc.lifecycle

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 34
Which statement about non-persistent types is true?
A. Non-persistent types can be referenced by r_object_id.
B. Custom object types can inherit from non-persistent types.
C. Non-persistent type attributes are stored in the repository.
D. Non-persistent type attributes cannot be queried using DQL.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 35
Which interface does the IDfCollection interface inherit from?
A. IDfTypedObject
B. IDfSysObject
C. IDfQuery
D. IDfDocument

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 36
When is a computed attribute calculated?
A. once, when a session is opened
B. each time the value is requested
C. when a persistent object is saved
D. when a persistent object is created

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 37
Which specific object type in the repository does the IDfTypedObject interface represent?
A. dm_dd_info
B. dmi_dd_type_info
C. dm_type
D. none

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 38
What entries do you need in the dmcl.ini for setting up dmcl tracing?
A. trace_file and trace_level
B. dmcl.trace.file and dmcl.trace.level
C. tracing.enabled and tracing.level
D. trace.file and trace.level

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 39
What does the dfc.config.timeout entry in dfc.properties indicate?
A. polling interval for changes in dfc.properties
B. sleep interval for the DFC cleanup thread
C. timeout for sessions in the DFC session pool
D. polling interval for changes in log4j.properties

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 40
DFC is NOT required to be installed on ____.
A. the Content Server
B. an Application Server hosting a WDK application
C. an end user’s computer using Webtop
D. an end user’s computer using Documentum Desktop

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 41
Where is connection pooling set?
A. dmcl.ini
B. server.ini
C. dfc.properties
D. dbor.properties

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 42
What are the minimum entries you need in the dfc.properties file to turn on tracing?
A. dfc.tracing.enabled=true dfc.tracing.file=<file_path>
B. dfc.tracing.enabled=true
C. dfc.tracing.enabled=true dfc.tracing.file=<file_path> dfc.tracing.level=<level>
D. dfc.tracing=true

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 43
Which entry is mandatory for the dfc.properties file?
A. dfc.data.dir
B. dfc.user.dir
C. dfc.checkout.dir
D. dfc.registry.mode

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 44
What do you need in dfc.properties to combine DFC and dmcl tracing?
A. trace_file=<file_path> trace_level=<level>
B. dfc.tracing.combineDMCL=true
C. dfc.tracing.DMCL=true
D. dmcl_trace_level=<level>

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
During DFC installation, the “Primary Interop Assembly Installer checkbox” appears. What happens when this checkbox is checked?
A. The DFC installation program executes the Microsoft installer package for the DFCPIA.
B. The Microsoft installer package for the DFC PIA needs to be downloaded first, then theDFC installer will install the package for the DFC PIA.
C. The DFC installation program places the Microsoft installer package for the DFC PIA intothe setup subdirectory of the DFC program root directory.
D. The DFC installation program does not install any package, but creates aDocumentumuser account and configures the docbase to make use of the PIAfunctionality.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 46
How can a client application adopt changes in the dmcl.ini settings regarding connection pooling?
A. by restarting the client application, because open sessions cannot adoptconnectionpooling setting changes
B. by restarting the repository in order to refresh the persistent cache
C. by restarting the Connection Broker in order to reinitialize the session mapping and adoptthe connection pooling changes
D. by rebooting the Content Server, which will flush the server connections and reinitializethe global repository

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 47
Which files are in the DFC config directory?
A. dfc.jar, dctm.jar, workflow.jar, dfcbase.jar
B. dfc.properties, log4j.properties, dfc.jar
C. dfc.properties, log4j.properties, dfcfull.properties
D. dfc.properties, log4j.properties, dfcfull.properties, dctm.properties

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
An object type test_type extends dm_document, and has an attribute test_attr of type int. An object of type test_type exists in the repository with test_attr set to 1, and the object_id parameter in the following line of code points to that object.
IDfSysObject testObject = (IDfSysObject)session.getObject(object_id);
What happens as the result of calling testObject.getString(“test_attr”) ?
A. null
B. “1”
C. “”
D. an IDfException set to DM_DFC_E_TYPE_MISMATCH

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 49
Given that document is an instance of an IDfDocument object, and given the following statement: document.setObjectName(“test”); What will be the outcome?
A. The code does NOT compile.
B. At runtime, a NoSuchMethodException is thrown because setObjectName() is definedonIDfSysObject.
C. At runtime, a NoSuchMethodException is thrown because setObjectName() is defined onIDfPersistentObject.
D. The code runs successfully.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 50
Given the following code: Which statement is valid?
A. document.getPath()
B. document.getType()
C. document.getObjectId()
D. document.getObjectName()

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 51
Which statements are required to create a new document object and link it to the Temp cabinet?
A. IDfDocument newDoc = (IDfDocument)session.newObject(“dm_document”);newDoc.link(“/Temp”);newDoc.save();
B. IDfDocument newDoc = (IDfDocument)session.newObject(“dm_document”);newDoc.linkCabinet(“/Temp”);newDoc.save();
C. IDfDocument newDoc = (IDfDocument)session.newObject(“dm_document”);newDoc.link(session.getFolderByPath(“/Temp”)); newDoc.save();
D. IDfDocument newDoc = (IDfDocument)session.newObject(“dm_document”);newDoc.link(session.getIdByQualification(“dm_c abinet where folder(‘/Temp’)));newDoc.save();

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 52
What does the IDfPersistentObject interface represent?
A. only objects stored in the repository
B. only objects NOT stored in the repository
C. only objects with content stored in the repository
D. only objects WITHOUT content stored in the repository

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 53
What does the following statement do while updating a repeating attribute “attr_name” that has only one valuein it (assuming valid objects and variables)?
obj.setRepeatingString(“attr_name”, 2, “test”);
A. updates attr_name with the value “test” at the third position
B. throws a runtime DfException
C. updates attr_name with the value “test” at the second position
D. appends attr_name with the value “test”

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 54
With an IDfSysObject representing a repository object named “MyDocument,” which statement is valid and returns the object name?
A. String value = object.getValue(“object_name”);
B. String value = (String)object.getValue(“object_name”);
C. String value = object.getValue(“object_name”).asString();
D. String value = object.getValue(“object_name”).toString();

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 55
attr_name is an attribute of type my_type, which is a subtype of dm_document. What do the following code statements do? (Assume you have valid variables and objects.)
A. update attr_name with “test”
B. throw a runtime DfException
C. update attr_name with NULL
D. NOT update attr_name

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 56
What does the following code do?
A. creates a new cabinet with the name specified by the variable “cabinetName”
B. gives a runtime DfException of no link path
C. gives a compilation error
D. gives a runtime Class Cast Exception

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 57
Which code statements would create a new folder (assuming valid objects and variables)?
A. IDfFolder folder = (IDfFolder)session.newObject(“dm_folder”);folder.setFolderName( objectName );folder.link (filePath ) ;folder.save();
B. IDfFolder folder = (IDfFolder)session.newObject(“dm_folder”);folder.save();
C. IDfFolder folder = (IDfFolder)session.newObject(“dm_folder”);folder.setObjectName( objectName );folder.link(filePath ) ;
D. IDfFolder folder = (IDfFolder)session.newObject(“dm_folder”);folder.setObjectName( objectName );folder.save();

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 58
Given that attr_name is a single-valued attribute of type int with NO value set and assuming valid variables and objects, what would the following code do?
A. throws a DfException
B. returns the default value for int
C. returns NULL
D. returns a string of length 0

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 59
What will the following method return when the object path contains multiple objects? Public IDfPersistentObject getObjectByPath(Sting objectPath)
A. all objects in the object path
B. always the first object in the object path
C. always the last object in the object path
D. an object in the object path that cannot be determined

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 60
Which is the valid method for retrieving the folder named “example1” located in the “dmadmin” cabinet, given that the “dmadmin” cabinet only contains one folder and that session is a valid IDfSession object?
A. IDfFolder folder = session.getFolderByPath(“example1”);
B. IDfFolder folder = session.getFolderByPath(“/dmadmin”);
C. IDfFolder folder = (IDfFolder)session.getObjectByPath(“/dmadmin”);
D. IDfFolder folder = session.getFolderByPath(“/dmadmin/example1”);

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 61
Given the following information about a document in the repository: If this is the only document in the cabinet shown, which statement will have the best performance when querying for the object?
A. IDfPersistentObject obj = session.getObject(clientX.getId(“094af3ce80000200”));
B. IDfId id = session.getIdByQualification(“where r_object_id=’094af3ce80000200′”);
C. IDfPersistentObject obj = session.getObjectByPath(“/Marketing/logo.jpg”);
D. IDfPersistentObject obj = session.getObjectByQualification(“where r_folder_path=’/Marketing’ and object_name=’logo.jpg'”);

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 62
Which version of a document, given a valid ID, is certain to be returned when the following method is called? IDfSession.getObject(IDfId objectId)
A. first version
B. last version
C. current version
D. specific version

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 63
In which interface is the following method declared? public IDfPersistentObject getObjectByQualification (String qualification)
A. IDfQuery
B. IDfSession
C. IDfSysObject
D. IDfPersistentObject

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 64
You want to retrieve one document from a specific cabinet ‘XYZ’ using the getObjectByQualification(String qualification) method. Which qualifier should you use?
A. dm_document WHERE FOLDER(‘/XYZ’)
B. dm_document WHERE r_folder_path = ‘/XYZ’
C. SELECT r_object_id FROM dm_document WHERE FOLDER(‘/XYZ’)
D. SELECT r_object_id FROM dm_document WHERE r_folder_path = ‘/XYZ’

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 65
Given the following steps: Which statement is true?
A. The object cannot be deleted in Step 3.
B. getObject method will always raise an exception.
C. getObject method may succeed since the object may be present in the client and/or servercache.
D. getObject method will return null.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 66
What does the object retrieval method getObjectByQualification() do if the provided query returns no object?
A. throws a DfObjectNotFoundException
B. returns null.
C. returns an IDfCollection object containing no element
D. throws a DfResultContentException

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 67
You want to get an object, but there is more than one object that meets the qualification. What should you do?
A. iterate through the results of the getFolderByPath() method
B. use the getObjectByQualification() method with a qualifier that includes all of the objects
C. use a query and iterate through the resulting collection
D. use the getObjectPaths() and iterate through the resulting enumeration

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 68
Which statement is used to retrieve the current version of a dm_document object that has 2 versions, given its chronicle id chronicle_id?
A. getObject(chronicle_id)
B. getObjectByQualification(“dm_document (all) where r_object_id = ‘” + chronicle_id + “‘”)
C. getObjectByQualification(“dm_document where i_chronicle_id = ‘” + chronicle_id + “‘”)
D. getObjectByQualification(“select r_object_id from dm_document (all) wherei_chronicle_id = ‘” + chronicle_id + “‘”)

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 69
What is the result of executing the following code? (Assume that all variables and constants are valid.)
A. no records
B. all dm_document objects in the repository
C. current versions of all dm_document objects in the repository
D. An exception is thrown as no attributes have been specified in the select clause.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 70
Which method properly executes a query and returns the appropriate results. Assume you are developing a UI tree control in a web application to display a list of cabinets. The list of cabinets is generally static. Given the below code snippet: Which value for queryType should be used to achieve the maximum performance?
A. IDfQuery.DF_READ_QUERY
B. IDfQuery.DF_QUERY
C. IDfQuery.DF_CACHE_QUERY
D. IDfQuery.DF_EXECREAD_QUERY

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 71
Given the following code: How would you limit the search to the Temp cabinet?
A. Add IDfExpressionSet expSet = qBuilder.getRootExpressionSet();expSet.addSimpleAttrExpression(“object_name”, IDfValue.DF_STRING,IDfSimpleAttrExpression.SEARCH_OP_EQUAL, false, false, “Temp”);
B. Add qBuilder.setDQL(“Folder(‘/Temp’)”);
C. Add qBuilder.addLocationScope(“Repository”, “/Temp”, false);
D. This cannot be done in the IDfQueryManager.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 72
Assuming that repository “A” has 100 dm_document objects with the name “test” in the object_name, how many records would be returned when the code below is executed?
A. 0
B. 99
C. 100
D. 101

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 73
How many objects will have their subject attribute updated when the following code is executed? (Assume that there are 25 objects having the string ‘test’ in their object_name.)
A. 19
B. 20
C. 24
D. 25
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 74
Which statement is true using fetch rather than a query to return attributes?
A. use fetch when you need to retrieve all attributes of an object
B. use fetch when you need to retrieve only specific attributes of an object
C. use query when attribute information is repeatedly needed in multiple places
D. use query when caching is necessary on the client side

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 75
The IDfQuery interface provides ____.
A. status information about the execution of a query
B. a container for passing a query string directly to the search source
C. factory methods for a query and interfaces for persistent query management
D. functionality to set how often the query results need to be checked for consistency withthe server

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 76
Which statement is true about query types?
A. DF_CACHE_QUERY is used for long query strings and stores results in a query cachefile.
B. DF_EXEC_QUERY is used for long query strings that will not affect any repository dataduring processing.
C. DF_QUERY can be used for any DQL Query and generally used for any query that willaffect the repository.
D. DF_EXECREAD_QUERY is used for long query strings that will affect any repositorydata during processing.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 77
What does the IDfCollection.getTypedObject() method return?
A. all rows in the collection as a single object for later use
B. a row in the collection for later use
C. a row in the collection that must be used before the collection is closed
D. an object of type IDfTypedObject that can be cast to an IDfPersistentObject

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 78
Given the following: where queryString = “select object_name from dm_document” Which method properly executes a query and returns the appropriate results?
A. public static IDfCollection execQuery(String queryString, IDfSession session) throwsDfException{…
B. setDQL(queryString);col = q.execute(session);…return col;}
C. public static IDfCollection execQuery(String queryString, IDfSession session) throwsDfException{…
D. setDQL(queryString);col = q.execute(session,0);…return col;}
E. public static IDfDocument execQuery(String queryString, IDfSession session) throwsDfException{…
F. setDQL(queryString);objectName = q.execute(session);…return objectName;}
G. public static IDfDocument execQuery(String queryString, IDfSession session) throwsDfException{…
H. setDQL(queryString);objectName = q.execute(session,0);…return objectName;}

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 79
Which statement is NOT true about IDfOperationMonitor?
A. It allows applications to be notified about when an error occurs.
B. It allows applications to receive progress about the percentage complete for the wholeoperation.
C. It allows applications to be notified and respond with an answer when an error occurs.
D. It allows applications to receive progress about the bytes transferred during a contentupload or download.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 80
Which interface provides the factory methods for creating DFC operations such as IDfImportOperation and IDfExportOperation?
A. IDfClientX
B. IDfSysObject
C. IDfSession
D. IDfSessionMgr

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 81
What happens when the abort() method is executed in the following manner? (Assume the operation is populated.)
A. This code will cause an error as the operation has already been executeD.
B. Abort can only be called from within an IDfOperationMonitor object.
C. The underlying database transaction will be rolled back.
D. The operation will attempt to undo what it did during the execution.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 82
Given the following statement for creating a IDfCheckinNode object: IDfCheckinNode node = (IDfCheckinNode)checkin.add( doc); Which statement should immediately follow?
A. if ( node == null ) { /* handle errors */ }
B. node.setFilePath( strFileName );
C. checkin.execute();
D. node.setVersionLabels(“DRAFT”);

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 83
You are using the IDfMoveOperation to move a document that is currently checked out. What is the behavior of DFC?
A. It moves the document and the lock is still present on the document.
B. IDfMoveOperation.execute() method returns false and the document location isunchangeD.
C. IDfMoveOperation.add() method throws a DfException since checked-out objects cannotbe added to a move operation.
D. It reports an error (IDfOperationError.OBJECT_CHECKED_OUT) using the operationmonitor and gives the option to still move the document.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 84
Given the following code (Assume the variables are valid.):
What is the required statement to include, in order for the code to execute successfully?

A. node.setDestinationFolderId(destnId);
B. op.setSession(session);
C. op.setOperationMonitor(myOpMonitor);
D. node.setDocbaseObjectType(“dm_document”);

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 85
Which code pattern is used to handle errors after execution of an operation?
A. IDfOperationMonitor myOpMonitor = …;operation.setOperationMonitor(myOpMonitor);if (! operation.execute()){// handle errors using myOpMonitor}
B. if (! operation.execute()){…operation.reportError(…);…}
C. if (! operation.execute()){…operation.logError(…);…}
D. if (! operation.execute()){…operation.getErrors();…}

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 86
You have a handle to an IDfVirtualDocument using the followng code: Which steps are the recommended way to only add the root node of a virtual document to the operation (i.e. in the call operaton.add(…) )?
A. 1. Execute the statement: operation.add(vDoc);2. Do nothing since DFC always adds the virtual document root only. If children are neededas well, they must be explicitly added by traversing the virtual document.
B. 1. Execute the statement: operation.add(vDoc);2. Remove the child nodes explictly from the root node (node.removeChildren()) since DFCadded them automatically.
C. 1. Execute the statement: operation.add(sysObject);2. Do nothing since there is no difference between adding a regular sys object and just thevirtual document root.
D. 1. Remove the child nodes from vDoc in memory (i.e. not saving to repository) and thencall2. Execute the statement: operation.add(vDoc);

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 87
What happens when the following code for deleting a document is executed?
A. All versions of the document will be deleted.
B. Only the specific version associated with the document in question will be deleted.
C. Only the specific version associated with the document in question and all prior versionswill be deleted.
D. The document will not be deleted since the version deletion policy has not beenexplicitlyset using the op.setVersionDeletionPolicy() call.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 88
The transform operation in the com.documentum.operations package allows you to transform _____.
A. any kind of content from one format to another and the transformed content is onlyavailable locally
B. any kind of content from one format to another and the transformed content is onlyavailable as a rendition in the repository
C. any kind of content to PDF and the transformed content is available locally or as a PDFrendition in the repository
D. only XML content using XSLT and the transformed content is available locally or in therepository

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 89
What is the default behavior when you add a directory from the file system to an import operation?
A. The directory will be imported by itself.
B. The directory and all documents it contains will be importeD.
C. The directory and all files and subdirectories will be importeD.
D. It will result in an error.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 90
Which statement about Operations is true?
A. Operations can be used to Cancel Checkout.
B. Operations can be used to Add Rendition.
C. Operations can be used to Promote.
D. Operations can be used to Assign Workflow.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 91
The IDfValidationOperation interface is used to validate _____.
A. that objects conform to the data dictionary rules
B. that objects are not corrupt in the repository
C. any office documents, making sure that all their OLE links are valid
D. that XML documents are well formed and conform to a DTD or schema
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 92
What does the IDfSysObject.checkout() method do?
A. only places a lock on an object from the repository
B. places a lock on an object from the repository and downloads the content
C. places a database row level lock on the rows representing the object
D. places a lock on an object from the repository and sets its r_lock_machine attribute
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 93
When is it appropriate to use IDfSysObject.getFile(String fileName) ?
A. to get a file from the file system for an object
B. to get the file to a specific location on the client machine with the default format
C. to get a file and manipulate it in memory
D. to get a specific page of the object and download it to the default location on the clientmachine with the

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QUESTION 26
An existing RecoverPoint/CL environment consists of one cluster at the main office and two off- site DR clusters. You have been asked to expand the environment to the maximum number of DR sites using RecoverPoint.
How many additional clusters could be added to this RecoverPoint Environment?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 8
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 27
An existing RecoverPoint/CL environment consists of one cluster at the main office and one off- site DR cluster. You have been asked to expand the environment to the maximum number of DR sites using RecoverPoint.
How many additional clusters could be added to this RecoverPoint Environment?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4

D. 5
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 28
Which RecoverPoint family is licensed per array and array capacity?
A. RecoverPoint/EX only
B. RecoverPoint/SE
C. RecoverPoint/CL only
D. RecoverPoint/EX and RecoverPoint/CL

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 29
What are the minimum RecoverPoint and VPLEX versions that support MetroPoint?
A. RecoverPoint 4.1 and GeoSynchrony 5.4
B. RecoverPoint 4.0 and GeoSynchrony 5.3
C. RecoverPoint 4.1 and GeoSynchrony 5.3
D. RecoverPoint 4.0 and GeoSynchrony 5.4

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 30
What are key use cases for RecoverPoint?
A. Disaster Recovery, Operational Recovery, and Data Migration
B. Disaster Recovery and Operational Recovery only
C. Disaster Recovery and Data Migration only
D. High Availability Solution Implementation

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 31
An existing RecoverPoint cluster has four physical RPAs deployed with VMAX arrays. Which RPAs need to be masked to the VMAX gatekeepers in order to deploy the VMAX splitter?
A. RPA 1 and RPA 2
B. RPA 1 only
C. All RPAs in the cluster
D. RPA 2 only

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 32
A customer is installing a new RecoverPoint environment. All RPAs have been racked, cabled, and powered on. You have chosen to automatically discover the RPAs using Deployment Manager. After running the discovery, no RPAs are found.
What is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. No DHCP server on the network
B. Port 443 not open on the network
C. RecoverPoint/SE wizard selected
D. RPAs not configured into a cluster

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 33
You are adding a VMAX array to a RecoverPoint/CL environment. What needs to be done?
A. Verify there is a zone that includes the RPA ports and the same VMAX front end ports that are zoned to the production host initiator.
B. Verify that the 16 new gatekeepers are in the same storage group as the repository and journals. Add the RPA initiator and port groups to the masking view.
C. After setting up the masking view use boxmgmt to log in to one of the site leader RPAs and be sure to tag all volumes that RecoverPoint is masked to including the production and copy volumes.
D. Verify that the VMAX is at Enginuity microcode 5876 or higher. After doing the LUN masking, enable Write-Protect ByPass (WPBP). Ensure that the proper license for the VMAX is installed on the RPAs.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 34
A customer has three VMAX arrays and one VNX array fronted by an EMC VPLEX. They want to use RecoverPoint to protect their environment.
How many licenses, of which type, would be required for their environment?
A. 1 EX license only
B. 4 EX licenses
C. 5 EX licenses
D. 1 SE license and 1 EX license

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 35
A customer has two VMAX arrays and three VNX arrays fronted by an EMC VPLEX. They wish to use RecoverPoint to protect their environment. How many licenses, and of which type, would be required for their environment?
A. 1 EX license
B. 1 SE license and 2 EX licenses
C. 5 EX licenses
D. 6 EX licenses

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 36
Which connectivity protocols are used to interconnect RecoverPoint clusters?
A. FC and IP
B. FC and iSCSI
C. FC and FCoE
D. FCoE and IP

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 37
What information is required to connect a new RecoverPoint cluster to an existing one?
A. WAN IP address and internal cluster name
B. RPA serial ID
C. Site ID and Management IP address
D. Internal cluster name only

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 38
You are installing RecoverPoint/SE, and have selected the automatic zoning option. There are four VNX ports in each fabric.
How many zones are automatically created on each fabric for a two-node RPA cluster?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 39
When using Deployment Manager to install RecoverPoint/SE, which zoning methods are available with Brocade switches?
A. Automatic and Manual
B. Manual and Semi-automatic
C. Automatic and Semi-automatic
D. Automatic and Virtual

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 40
What must be installed on the VNX prior to deploying the RecoverPoint Write splitter?
A. RecoverPoint Splitter Enabler only
B. RecoverPoint Driver and RecoverPoint Splitter Enabler
C. RecoverPoint License
D. Unisphere Service Manager

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 41
You are responsible for installing a four-node RPA cluster. All RPAs are powered on. Both the FC and IP networks are connected, zoned, and routed properly. The RPAs are loaded with the latest image and IP addresses are set. However, Deployment Manager cannot discover RPAs.
What is a possible cause?
A. Port 22 not open between host running Deployment Manager and RPAs
B. Deployment Manager host and RPAs on different subnets
C. DHCP not used to set IP addresses for RPAs
D. RPAs not installed separately using Deployment Manager

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 42
When choosing a journal for a CG what would be a factor in selecting which LUNs to use?
A. Volumes that are all close to the same size
B. Volumes masked to the production host
C. Any volume less than 10 GB
D. Only thin LUNs

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 43
After expanding to include an additional existing RecoverPoint cluster you use Deployment Manager to connect the clusters, but it fails.
What might be the problem?
A. New cluster is already licensed
B. RPAs at second cluster are not same type
C. Second cluster not yet added to Repository
D. No splitter added to second cluster

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 44
After expanding to include an additional existing RecoverPoint cluster you use Deployment Manager to connect the clusters, but it fails.
What might be the problem?
A. New cluster has existing Consistency Group
B. RPAs at second cluster are not same type
C. Second cluster not yet added to the Repository
D. No splitter added to second cluster

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 45
A new RecoverPoint system is being installed and the RPAs need to be upgraded to the latest version. How should this be done?
A. Choose the option to upgrade the RPA version from an ISO while installing RecoverPoint using Deployment Manager.
B. Before doing the install ensure all the RPAs IP addresses reach each other. Connect to RPA1 with boxmgmt and do the upgrade.
C. Install the new system with Deployment Manager and then log in as boxmgmt and perform the upgrade on one RPA.
D. Upgrade the RPAs to the latest version first; otherwise Deployment Manager will prevent the installation.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 46
After installing two RecoverPoint clusters you find that a Consistency Group cannot be configured with a

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QUESTION 41
You are setting up quotas on a file system that will serve up home directories to thousands of users. How can this task be accomplished efficiently?
A. Use a trigger to set quotas at the initial login of each user.
B. Clone the quota configuration from one user to another.
C. In Unisphere, select multiple users from the quota list
D. Configure default hard and soft quota values.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 42
At which RAID level are FAST Cache drives configured for VNX arrays?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 5
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The FAST Cache consists of one or more pairs of mirrored disks (RAID 1) and provides both read and
write caching. For a read caching, the FAST Cache copies data off the disks being accessed into the FAST
Cache.
For protected-write applications, the FAST Cache effectively buffers the data waiting to be written to disk.

QUESTION 43
Before creating a CIFS server that will participate in a Windows Domain, what EMC best practice should you follow?
A. Populating DNS with the new host entries
B. Configuring NTP synchronization with a KDC
C. Performing a health check on the VNX system
D. Creating placeholder entries in the Active Directory
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: There are some preparation steps needed for CIFS. Windows Active Directory uses Kerberos authentication and it is time-sensitive. It is a best practice to configure the Data Mover to acquire its time from a server on the network using the Network Time Protocol (NTP) to ensure it is in time synchronization with the Key Distribution Center (KDC).
QUESTION 44
A user is preparing to install a disk drive. Where can they verify that the disk drive is compatible with the VNX system?
A. VNX Series Disk and OE Matrix
B. VNX Procedure Generator
C. Uniphere
D. USM
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 45
You are migrating a LUN within a VNX series array to an equal size LUN but with a different RAID type. Which step is required to start using the new LUN?
A. Ensure the size of the destination LUN is equal to or greater than the source LUN
B. Quiesce the host prior to final cut-over
C. Nothing The migration process is non-disruptive.
D. Ensure the LUN is in the proper storage group at the time of cut-over
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 46
Which is the EMC-recommended cache page size for Microsoft Exchange 2007 environments?
A. 4KB
B. 8KB
C. 12 KB
D. 16KB Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 47

Where are CIFS audit policies configured?
A. Uniphere, under Settings > Target Share > Properties > Advanced
B. VNX Data Mover management MMC snap-in
C. Unisphere, under Settings > Monitoring & Alerts
D. Command line, through the server_security command
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 48
Which tool is used for scripting SnapView commands in a VNX system?
A. Secure CLI
B. Unisphere Service Manager
C. Admsnap utility
D. Snapsure software
Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49
Which tool is used to complete the initialization of only a VNX System for Block?
A. Unisphere Storage System Initialization Wizard
B. VNX Installation Assistant
C. Unisphere Server Utility
D. Unisphere Service Manager Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Vnx installation assistant is used for the vnx unified (block and file)

QUESTION 50
Which Unisphere storage domain role will limit a user to the administration of the system checkpoints, LUN mirrors, and Replication Manager tasks?
A. NAS administrator
B. Data protection
C. Administrator
D. Data recovery Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 51
What will prevent a storage administrator from deleting a storage group?
A. The presence of MirrorView target LUNs in the storage group
B. The presence of hosts in the storage group
C. The presence of MirrorView source LUNs in the storage group
D. The presence of LUNs in the storage group
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
A user requires the following rights in Replication Manager:
Run predefined jobs

View application properties

Define application sets, jobs, and schedules

Restore replicas

Configure storage pools
Which role should the RM administrator assign to the user?
A. Power Database Administrator
B. Power User
C. Operator
D. Database Administrator
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
What are the available Usermapper roles?
A. Local, Remote, and Client
B. Primary, Secondary, and Client
C. Primary, Local, and Remote
D. Active, Passive, and Standby
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 54
Which eth interface on the VNX Control Station is used for the customer network?
A. eth0
B. eth1
C. eth2
D. eth3 Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
Which statement is true about metaLUNs?
A. Expansion of metaLUNs by striping provides instant additional space to a host
B. MetaLUNs simplify the design and implementation process
C. Private LUN expansion is unsupported on metaLUNs.
D. MetaLUNs are supported by traditional RAID groups and pools. Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
What will happen if compression is enabled on a thick LUN?
A. The thick LUN will be migrated to a user-defined RAID group LUN
B. The thick LUN will be migrated to a thin LUN in the same storage pool
C. Both read and write cache will be disabled for the LUN
D. Compression will start immediately on the thick LUN. Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 57
Which optional software is commonly installed to provide full high availability from a Windows host system to a VNX array?
A. Adapter Firmware Upgrade
B. Emulex Configuration Utility
C. Navisphere Agent
D. PowerPath Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
Which utility must be used to upgrade VNX OE array-based software?
A. Unisphere Server Manager
B. NST DAE Installation Utility
C. Unisphere Installation Utility
D. Unisphere Server Utility Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 59
A file system has auto_extend enabled. If the file system size is greater than the extend_size value, what will happen when the file system reaches its HWM?
A. The file system is extended by the extend_size value.
B. The file system is extended by five percent of its size.
C. The extend_size value cannot be less than the file system size.
D. The file system will not be extended.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Auto extension causes the file system to automatically extend when it reaches the high water mark and permits you to grow the file system gradually on an as-needed basis. The file system usage threshold is an integer in the range of 50-99 percent (the default is 90 percent). With auto- extension enabled and the HWM set at 90 percent, an automatic extension guarantees that the file system usage is at least 3 percent below the HWM.
Calculating the automatic extension size depends on the extend_size value and the current file system size, the file system I/O rate and polling interval. If the file system usage after the first extension is within three percent of the HWM, the Control Station extends the file system by an additional amount, bringing file system usage below three percent of the HWM. If a file system is smaller than the extend_size value, it extends by its size when it reaches the HWM. If a file system is larger than the extend_size value, it extends by 5 percent of its size or the extend_size, whichever is larger, when it reaches the HWM.
QUESTION 60
Which criterion must be met before executing the storagepool destroy command with Navisphere Secure CLI?
A. Complete removal of all LUNs from the pool
B. Complete removal of unused LUNs from the pool
C. Complete removal of large LUNs from the pool
D. Complete removal of empty LUNs from the pool
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
Which failover software is strongly recommended for a host attached to a VNX array?
A. PowerPath
B. MPIO
C. DMP
D. ALUA
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
What should be done prior to manually stopping a SnapView session that is running?
A. Save all memory mapping entries to the COFW log.
B. Flush the host buffers and deactivate the snapshot.
C. Remove the source LUN from the SnapView session.
D. Remove the global pool LUN associated with the SnapView session from the reserved LUN pool.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
What is the minimum acceptable number of drives in a RAID 5 pool on a VNX array?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 9
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 64
What are the key components of CAVA?
A. AV server, Data Mover, and Control Station
B. VC client, Data Mover, and Control Station
C. VC client, AV server, and third-party anti-virus engine
D. AV server, Data Mover, and third-party anti-virus engine Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 65
When performing switch maintenance, a customer accidentally disconnects all network connections to an active VNX Data Mover. How does VNX handle this situation?
A. The primary Data Mover remains active.
B. The VNX always notifies EMC Customer Service of the problem.
C. The active Data Mover immediately fails over.
D. The active Data Mover fails over after 30 seconds of lost connectivity. Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 66
Which hardware configuration can be a Fail-Safe Network Device?
A. Two network ports on a single Data Mover configured for active-passive redundancy.
B. Two network ports on a single Data Mover configured for active-active redundancy.
C. One network port, per Data Mover, configured for active-active redundancy.
D. A single network I/O adapter with four ports configured for active-active redundancy. Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
What is indicated by a blue enclosure power LED on a 25-slot DPE?
A. Any outputs or inputs are out of operating range.
B. AC or DC power is applied and all outputs are in operating range
C. Any enclosure fault, including SP faults, has occurred
D. The battery backup system is fully charged.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 68
Which PowerPath version should be installed on a Windows host to support ALUA?
A. 4.0
B. 4.1
C. 50
D. 5.1
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
When provisioning a new logical unit, which RAID group property is the basis for limiting the LUN capacity that can be specified?
A. Largest contiguous free space
B. Total formatted capacity
C. Largest user capacity
D. Total raw capacity
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 70
What is the preferred method for partitioning VNX iSCSI LUNs attached to a Windows Server 2003 host?
A. Disk Management
B. Fdisk
C. Diskpart
D. format
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 71
Which should be installed to use the data compression feature of a VNX array?
A. Compression Enabler only
B. Compression Enabler and FAST Enabler only
C. Compression Enabler, Thin Provisioning Enabler and FAST Enabler
D. Compression Enabler and Thin Provisioning Enabler only
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Compression has own enabler and depends on Virtual Provisioning enabler to be present.This feature is available on VNX 5300, 5500, 5700, and 7500 systems. Administration can be done via an individual tab Unisphere and CLI commands. NotE. Compression enabler and Thin Provisioning enabler must be installed.
QUESTION 72
How much FAST Cache storage can be allocated as cache?
A. 500 GB
B. 1TB
C. 2TB
D. 4TB Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 73
Which authority(ies) signs certificates generated for Data Movers?
A. Management server
B. Data Movers, management server
C. External CA, Control Station
D. Data Movers
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 74
Which command is used to assign root privileges to an existing user?
A. /nas/sbin/enableRootToUser
B. /nas/sbin/switchToRoot
C. /nas/sbin/enableRootID
D. /nas/sbin/addRootIdToUser
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: To add the root privileges, enter the command /nas/sbin/addRootIdToUser <username>. As the command runs it can be seen that the UID is changing from 501 to zero. If you run the command id root_user again you can now see the command was successful and the UID is 0
QUESTION 75
While SnapView snapshots are being used, what happens when the reserved LUN pool fills to 100% utilization?
A. The snapshot is deleted
B. The snapshot session is quiesced
C. the snapshot ml become corrupted
D. The snapshot session stops
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
SnapView sessions are stopped automatically by the software if the reserved LUN pool fills. The session
that caused the LUN pool to fill is terminated. If multiple sessions are running on a single source LUN, all
sessions that use the chunk that caused the overflow will be terminated.

QUESTION 76
Which statement correctly describes a benefit of using a Virtual Data Mover (VDM)?
A. It enables the replication of CIFS environments.
B. It supports the separation of NFS exports.
C. It can be configured as a standby for failover
D. It provides security for users in multi-protocol environments
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 77
Which VNX software is used to configure iSCSI connections to a given host?
A. Unisphere Client B. Unisphere Server Utility
C. Unisphere Initialization Utility
D. Unisphere Service Manager Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 78
Which statement is valid regarding SnapSure writeable snapshots?
A. A baseline snapshot must be deleted prior to deleting the writeable snapshot.
B. A writeable snapshot can be mounted RW during the background restore.
C. Snapshots can be created from a writeable snapshot.
D. A scheduled refresh on the read-only snapshot will fail if a writeable snapshot exists. Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 79
You are in the process of provisioning a new NAS volume with Unisphere where under the monitor or cancel the actions?
A. Setup Wizard for File
B. Background Tasks for File
C. Event Logs for File
D. Notifications for File Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
When creating a SnapView session, where can a consistent start occur?
A. On multiple target LUNs
B. On multiple reserved LUNs
C. On multiple source LUNs
D. On multiple private LUNs Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 81
What is the minimum number of administrative accounts for a Unisphere storage domain?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4 Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: sysadmin
QUESTION 82
You are using the LUN Migration Tool. What is known about the destination LUN?
A. It can be a private LUN.
B. It can be in a storage group.
C. It can be part of the Snap View software.
D. It can be larger than the source LUN. Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 83
Which statement is valid regarding tree quotas?
A. Even root users are restricted by tree quotas.
B. Tree quotas can be set on existing directories.
C. Quota trees cannot be nested.
D. A maximum of 16 quota trees can be created on a single file system Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 84
By default, what do you have to install on an ESX 4.x host to auto register with a VNX for Block storage system
A. Only Navisphere Secure CLI on the ESX host
B. Both Unisphere Host Agent and Navisphere CLI on the ESX host
C. Only Unisphere Host Agent on the ESX host
D. Nothing; the host will automatically register with the VNX storage system
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 85
What is the maximum number of LDAP service connections available when configuring LDAP for VNX Block storage system?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 86
What is the location of the host agent configuration file on a Linux host?
A. /etc/Unisphere/bin/agent config
B. /sbin/Unisphere/agent.config
C. /etc/init.d/agent.config
D. /etc/Unisphere/agent.config Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 87
Where is the CHAP iSCSI usemame and password stored on a RedHat4 host?
A. etc/iscsi conf
B. /etc/mit d/iscsi conf
C. /etc/init d/iscsi/iscsi conf
D. /etc/iscsi/iscsi conf Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
Which action must be completed before joining a CIFS server to an AD domain?
A. Configure VNX system time settings
B. Create a CIFS server on a VDM
C. Create a Unisphere user account for the domain administrator
D. Configure WINS settings Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 89
An administrator has one WMware ESX hosting using NFS export on a VNX system. Recently, in an effort to improve performance, they configured a two-port LACP trunk on the VNX system. There was no noticeable change in performance after the implementation of LACP. After viewing the traffic data on the switch, customer notices that all traffic is using the same physical link.
What does the customer needs to know about ACCP?
A. The default hashing will not improve the performance of any single host
B. LCAP trucking still needs to be enable on port switches
C. The customer is not utilizing enough bandwidth to need any of the capacity on the second physical link
D. The second physical link in the LCAP trunk is configured as standby Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
According to EMC best practices, how many Primary Usermappers are recommended in a multiple VNX array environment?
A. One per VNX frame
B. One per Data Mover
C. One per VNX environment
D. One per CIFS server Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
What is the fan-in ratio for MirrorView/S?
A. 1: 1
B. 2: 1
C. 4: 1
D. 8: 1 Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
Which operating system supports LUN shrink?
A. Windows Server 2003
B. Windows Server 2008
C. Linux
D. VMware ESX Server Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 93
What will happen if a user removes an interface from a CIFS server?
A. All the shares and users connected to the server via the interface will be disconnected.
B. The interface will be removed ONLY if the CFS server has more than one interface. An error will be displayed if the CFS server has only one interface.
C. Users cannot remove interface that is being used by a CIFS server. Upshpere will display an error message.
D. the OPS server using the deleted interface will use the interface being used by the default CFS server.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
It is possible to remove an interface from a running CIFS Server, by un-marking the check box
correspondent to the network interface in use. the A warning appears on the screen informing the
administrator about the consequences of the change. The warning displays the message:
Unchecking the interface disconnects all the shares and users connected to the server via this interface.
Click ok to remove this interface from the list. (The server will no longer be accessible on the interface).

QUESTION 94
An administrator has been tasked with mapping all users from corp to their own directory in /Userdata. Which is the correct format for the homedirfile configuration?
A. corp;/userdata:*
B. *:corp;/userdata
C. corp:*:/userdata
D. *./userdata:corp
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 95
How would an administrator enable the Audit Policy for a CIFS server?
A. By using the Computer Management snap-in
B. Through the MMC snap-in for VNX
C. By enabling auditing in auditd.conf
D. Through Unisphere > Settings > Data Mover Parameters Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 96
Which CLI command is used to disable Access Logix?
A. naviseccli -h <SP_name> accesslogix -off
B. naviseccli -h <SP_name> sc_off
C. naviseccli-h <SP_name> storagegroup -disable
D. naviseccli -h <SP name> accesslogix disable
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 97
By default, which TCP port does Unisphere Host Agent management software utilize on Linux?
A. 80
B. 443
C. 6389
D. 8963
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If your server is behind a firewall, open TCP/IP port 6389. This port is used by the host agent. If this port is
not opened, the host agent will not function properly.

QUESTION 98
You are implementing a CIFS solution and will be using Virtual Data Movers. Which CIFS dynamic configuration information the Virtual Data Mover?
A. DFS root ID information
B. Home Directory information
C. Virus checker configuration
D. CIFS startup configuration
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 99
What is the maximum number of supported ESX hosts that can share a LUN?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64 Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

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QUESTION 26
During the installation process of a VNX for Block and File system, you are prompted to change passwords for the default accounts. Which user password can be changed?
A. sysadmin
B. administrator
C. admin
D. storageadmin
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Which Unisphere wizard can automatically allocate all available disk storage and present it as private LUNs?
A. Disk Provisioning Wizard for File
B. Celerra Setup Wizard
C. Backend Bus Reset Wizard
D. File System Wizard
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
A storage administrator configured a SnapSure snapshot schedule for a heavily utilized productions file system. According to the schedule, three snapshots are to be created per hour, with the first snapshot created at one minute past the hour. After an hour, the administrator noticed that the first snapshot was not created on time. What is the cause of this issue?
A. The VNX for File has experienced a network outage
B. The VNX for File database backup has started in the background.
C. The PFS SavVol has run out of space
D. The HWM was not configured manually for Auto Extension
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
Which condition would prevent a VNX SnapSure baseline snapshot from being refreshed?
A. When the baseline snapshot refresh is not supported.
B. When an existing, writeable snapshot is present
C. When the baseline snapshot has not been unmounted first.
D. When the SavVol cannot be auto-extended.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
. Any writeable snapshot must be deleted before the baseline is deleted. Writeable snapshots and their
baselines cannot be refreshed or be part of a snapshot schedule.

QUESTION 30
What is the preferred method for partition VNX FC LUNs attached to a Windows Server 2008 R2 host?
A. Disk Management
B. fdisk
C. vtoc
D. format
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
Which failover mode must be configured to use vStorage APIs for Array Integrate (VAAI) functionality?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: · VAAI-compliant array firmware On EMC Unified the ALUA mode (failover=4) must be configured
QUESTION 32
Which network interface(s) is assigned to the default CIFS server?
A. None, by default, no interfaces are assigned to the default CIFS server
B. The first available, unused network interface
C. The default network interface
D. All unused network interfaces
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The final step is to select an interface. If no interface is specified, the associated CIFS server uses all
unassigned interfaces on that Data Mover. This configuration is known as the default CIFS server.

QUESTION 33
How can users manage SSL/TLS certificates?
A. From Unisphere, highlight the Settings tab. and choose Security from the drop-down list Then choose Manage SSL/TLS certificates.
B. From the Setup page, log in using the administrative username and password. Then choose Manage SSL/TLS Certificates.
C. From Unisphere, select the System tab, and click the Properties link under the System Management menu in the sidebar. Then choose the SSL/TLS Certificates tab.
D. From Unisphere, click Manage SSL/TLS Certificates under the Service Tasks menu in the sidebar. Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 34
Which RecoverPoint configuration details can be presented in reported format when using Data Protection Advisor?
A. Replication lag
B. Link state change
C. RPA configuration changes
D. Replication sets Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
Which VNX RAID type is suggested for performance and protection for small block random writes to disk?
A. RAID 5
B. RAID 6
C. RAID 0
D. RAID 1/0 Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 36
Where is the CHAP iSCSI username and password stored on a RedHat 5 host?
A. /sbin/iscsi.conf
B. /sbin/iscsi/iscsi.conf
C. /etc/iscsi/iscsi.conf
D. /etc/iscsi.conf Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
You are creating an Ethernet channel that spans two or more switches. Which feature must be supported by the switches?
A. Cross stack
B. None; Ethernet channel cannot span switches
C. Fast port
D. Spanning tree
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Cross stack can span an EtherChannel across two switches. All of the links of the EtherChannel will be
active at any time. So if you configured an EtherChannel using four ports on a blade and connected two
ports to each of two switches configured for cross stack, your traffic would be flowing across all 4 ports.

QUESTION 38
What happens when a reverse synchronization completes without Protected Restore Mode enabled?
A. Only the reverse-synchronized clone remains unfractured.
B. All clones will be fractured.
C. The gold copy clone used for restore will remain as is.
D. Host writes to the source LUN are not mirrored to clone.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 39
You are implementing a CIFS solution and will be using Virtual Data Movers. Which CIFS dynamic configuration information is contained within the Virtual Data Mover?
A. CIFS startup configuration
B. Virtual checker configuration
C. Kerberos information
D. DFS root ID information
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The CIFS servers that comprise the VDM store their dynamic configuration information in a configuration file system. This includes information such as local groups, shares, security credentials, and audit logs. A VDM can be loaded and unloaded, moved between Data Movers, or replicated to a remote Data Mover as an autonomous unit. The server’s file systems, and all of the configuration data that allows clients to access the file system are available in one virtual container.
QUESTION 40
Which Linux kernel supports dynamic LUN scanning?
A. 2.3
B. 2.4
C. 2.5
D. 2.6
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Linux provides multiple mechanisms to rescan the SCSI https://www.pass4itsure.com/e20-390.html bus and recognize SCSI devices exposed to the system. In the 2.4 kernel solutions, these mechanisms were generally disruptive to the I/O since the dynamic LUN scanning mechanisms were not consistent. With the 2.6 kernel, significant improvements have been made and dynamic LUN scanning mechanisms are available. Linux currently lacks a kernel command that allows for a dynamic SCSI channel reconfiguration like drvconfig or ioscan.

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Correct Answer: A QUESTION 36
Which connectivity protocols are used to interconnect RecoverPoint clusters?
A. FC and IP
B. FC and iSCSI
C. FC and FCoE
D. FCoE and IP

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 46
After installing two RecoverPoint clusters you find that a Consistency Group cannot be configured with a

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QUESTION 26
Shortly after starting replication on a new site, the customer encounters a major network issue and informs you that the network to Site 2 will be down for up to 4 days.
What recommendation would you make to the customer about their replication?
A. Leave replication paused until the network returns, then do a restore.
B. Leave replication paused until the network returns, then do a resume.
C. Stop replication until the network is back in operation, then do a migration.
D. Stop replication until the network is back in operation, then do a restore.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 27
On a Gen4 EMC Centera, how can the nodes be unlocked?
A. Use the buttons on the LCD front panel display
B. Use the buttons on the LCD rear panel display
C. Use the CLI and issue command set security unlock
D. Use the CLI and issue command unlock nodes

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 28
What type of profile must be created for a C2C migration?
A. Access
B. Anonymous
C. Cluster
D. Replication

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 29
A customer has a large number of files stored on a EMC NAS file server and wants to archive the data onto a long-term storage system.
Which policy-based application would allow the customer to leverage tiered storage and migrate data from short-term to long-term storage platforms?
A. CUA
B. EMC Diskxtender
C. EMC Emailxtender
D. Intercom 4995 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
You want to implement Enhanced Availability incorporating two physical sites. The active CUA and primary EMC Centera are in site A; the standby CUA and secondary EMC Centera are in site B.
In a properly configured environment, which ports will be open on the network firewall between the two sites?

A. 3218, 3682, 4543, 80, 22
B. 3218, 7227, 23
C. 3218, 7227, 3682, 80, 22
D. 3218, 7227, 3862, 80
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 31
Click the Exhibit button
How many clips still need to be migrated?
A. 0 clips
B. 1 clip
C. 1,716 clips
D. 1,717 clips

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
EMC completed a C2C migration for a customer. Which C2C tool is used to determine a successful migration?
A. C2C migration tool “compare” mode
B. C2C migration tool “diagnose” mode
C. C2C migration tool “health” mode
D. C2C migration tool “migrate” mode

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 33
The principle cluster node in an EMC Centera fails and remains offline. How will a new principle cluster node be assigned?
A. Highest online System ID
B. Lowest online System ID
C. Next highest node number in the cube
D. Next lowest node number in the cube

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 34
Which EMC Centera tool allows a PEA file to be tested?
A. EMC Centera CLI
B. EMC Centera Console
C. EMC Centera Verify
D. EMC Centera Viewer

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 35
You have installed the c2c utility and connected to the node running the command center. How is the smtp server configured?
A. setconfig email_host <IP of the SMTP server>
B. setconfig mail_host <IP of the SMTP server>
C. setconfig smtp_host <IP of the SMTP server>
D. updateconfig smtp_host <IP of the SMTP server>

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 36
When installing CUA 4.0 on Centera Gen 4 node which node do you want to configure as a CUA?
A. Access Node
B. Spare Node
C. Storage Node
D. Storage on Access node

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 37
Which C2C component is installed on an access node, collects statistical information, and interacts with all the C2C clients?
A. Command Center component
B. Data Migration component
C. Diff component
D. Mining component

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 38
A customer wants to create a profile that can be used to manage the creation of pools/profiles and the ability to lock/unlock nodes. The customer does not want to log in as the administrator.
Which Management role does the profile need?
A. Access Control
B. Audit
C. Compliance
D. Configuration

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 39
When configuring EMC Centera replication, which port number should you add to the end of the replication IP addresses?
A. 1828
B. 3218
C. 3228
D. 3682
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40
A customer has an EMC Centera at 3.1.3 CentraStar and is running compliance mode CE+ but has a need to attach to the cluster with EMC Centera Viewer. How can this be accomplished?
A. Assign an IP address to a storage node and attach to it
B. This cannot be done
C. Use the CE+ enabled version of EMC Centera Viewer
D. Via the access nodes (MOPI)

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
Which operating system does EMC Centera Console support?
A. AIx
B. HP-Ux
C. Linux
D. Windows
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
What is the cause of the time lag on a successful replication test when using the EMC Centera Verify tool?
A. Asynchronous replication
B. Built-in replication delay in CentraStar
C. C-Clips being queued for replication
D. Replication is paused

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 43
A user states that their AIX application can NOT access the mountpoint they just created on the CUA. Which menu choice on the CUA Setup Utility > Configuration Options is most appropriate to help in this situation?
A. Configure Centera Universal Access
B. Configure FTP Access
C. Modify CIFS Configuration
D. Modify NFS Configuration

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 44
Which file on the CUA allows customized information to be added to a CDF?
A. custom_access.txt
B. custom_metadata.txt
C. custom_pool.txt
D. custom_profile.txt

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 45
Your customer wants to maximize storage space on an EMC Centera. Which Protection Scheme and Storage Strategy combination should you choose?
A. CPM and Capacity
B. CPM and Performance
C. CPP and Capacity
D. CPP and Performance

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 46
A customer decided to add another application that does not natively incorporate EMC Centera’s API and they decide to repurpose a spare Gen4LP node into a CUA.
What must they make sure of before implementing?
A. Application server integrating to the CUA must have OnAlert installed
B. Application server must have the latest EMC Centera SDK
C. EMC Centera must be running CentraStar 3.1.3 or later
D. Node must remain in the cabinet

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 47
A customer wants to implement an IP Access Control List to allow only a single server to be able to access a CIFS share on a CUA.
What is the entry to enable the restriction?
A. hosts allow = 192.168.0.0/255.255.255.0
B. hosts allow = 192.168.1.10
C. hosts allowed = 192.168.1.10
D. hosts allowed = 192.168.1.10/255.255.255.0

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 48
EMC Centera A and EMC Centera B are configured for unidirectional replication with Replicate Delete enabled. An object is written to EMC Centera A, then a delete is issued immediately before it can be replicated to EMC Centera B.
Where will a reflection be present?
A. Both EMC Centera A and EMC Centera B
B. EMC Centera A only
C. EMC Centera B only
D. Neither EMC Centera A or EMC Centera B

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
An EMC Centera running CentraStar 3.x uses virtual pools that are configured with pool quotas. What will occur when the quota of a virtual pool is reached?
A. Alert will be sent, but data can still be archived to that pool
B. Cluster will be put into read-only mode, so no data can be written
C. Data being archived to that pool will be written to the default pool
D. Data can no longer be archived to that pool

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 50
Up to how many CentraStar 3.1.2 clusters and up to how many domains may be monitored in EMC Centera Console 2.1?
A. 4 clusters, 1 domain
B. 4 clusters, 4 domains
C. 8 clusters, 1 domain
D. 8 clusters, 8 domains

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
Which object within the EMC Centera contains only the archive data?
A. API
B. BLOB
C. CA
D. SDK
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
You are merging two PEA files. Which section must be copied to create the merged PEA file?
A. defaultkey
B. key
C. pea
D. name
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 53
Which Pool and Profile capabilities must be granted to the History Manager to access the Console Archive Cluster?
A. read + query + monitor + exist
B. read + write + delete
C. read + write + delete + monitor
D. write + clipcopy + monitor + read

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 54
Click the Exhibit button
You are asked to return to a recent implementation where you tested access to the EMC Centera with EMC Centera Verify and the customer’s finance PEA file. The customer tells you that there are still objects on the two clusters even though you deleted all your test data.
It is clear that this is test data, but why did EMC Centera Verify fail to clean up?

A. EMC Centera Verify cannot delete test data.
B. kvs pool does not allow deletes.
C. The cluster is in Governance Edition mode.
D. The cluster mask does not allow deletes.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
In the EMC Centera Console, there is a single domain named Default with one EMC Centera in the domain. The customer wants to rename this Default domain to “ABC.”
How can this be done?
A. In the EMC Centera Console, highlight the Default domain name, right-click and select Rename from the menu
B. In the EMC Centera Console, under the edit menu, select Rename from the menu
C. The domain name cannot be renamed
D. Using the EMC Centera CLI, rename the domain Default ABC

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 56
A new pool is created and an application writes C-Clips to it. ALL of the clips in the pool are then deleted and the pool is no longer being used. You attempt to delete the pool itself but you are unable to.
Why can it not be deleted?
A. CDFs still exist in the pool
B. Pools can never be deleted after they are created
C. Pools cannot be deleted after they have been assigned as a home pool
D. Reflections still exist in the pool

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 57
An email archiving application writes the same 1 MB attachment 20 times to EMC Centera. The EMC Centera is set to storage strategy capacity, CPM, and running CentraStar 3.1.0.
After this ingest is finished, the customer claims SIS is not working because these ingests took more than 40 MB of metadata capacity on the cluster.
How can this be explained?
A. Detection and elimination of identical BLOBs is a background process and is not immediate
B. SIS has to be done by the application server when archiving emails
C. Storage strategy capacity needs CentraStar 3.1.3 to work correctly
D. Threshold is set incorrectly, thus all objects are stored with GM naming schemes

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 58
Which CLI command will configure an EMC Centera to perform a hard stop if the regeneration buffer threshold is exceeded?
A. set capacity regenerationbuffer
B. set cluster regeneration
C. set cluster regenerationbuffer
D. set regeneration threshold

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 59
A customer’s application uses the SDK to communicate to EMC Centera. A system environmental variable is recommended to point the application to the appropriate PEA file to use.
What is the system environmental variable name?
A. APPLICATION_CONFIGURATION_PEA
B. CENTERA_API_PEA
C. CENTERA_PEA_FILE
D. CENTERA_PEA_LOCATION
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 60
Writing a 300 KB file to EMC Centera using CPM creates four objects. How many objects would be created if EMC Centera was in default CPP mode with the default threshold?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8

D. 9
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 61
An EMC Centera disk failed and was replaced by an EMC Service Representative. Two days later the customer expresses concern because the disk still showed in the EMC Centera Viewer as not having any data on it.
How can this be explained to the customer?
A. Data was fully reprotected to other disks in the cluster before the disk was replaced
B. Garbage collection has purged overprotected data from the newly installed disk
C. Regenerations are progressing but have not yet completed
D. Regenerations have not yet started to reprotect the data onto the newly replaced disk

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 62
You are dialed in to the modem of an EMC Centera that is connected to a Storage Only node.
What is the default IP address that you will use to connect to that cluster under EMC Centera Viewer?

A. 10.255.0.1
B. 10.255.10.0
C. 10.255.1.1
D. 10.255.10.1
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 63
Which CLI command is used to test email notification?
A. notify
B. set cluster notification
C. test email
D. test notification

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 64
When using a replication profile and PEA file, on which cluster is the PEA file created and on which cluster is it specified using the set cluster replication command?
A. Both create and specify on the source
B. Both create and specify on the target
C. Create on the source, specify on the target
D. Create on the target, specify on the source Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 1
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A. Workforce Planning and Employment
B. Business Management and Strategy
C. Human Resource Development
D. Employee and Labor Relations
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option A is correct.Workforce Planning and Employment covers activities related to planning for and managing entry into and exit from the organization to meet changing business needs. This includes practices for evaluating workforce requirements, recruitment and selection, developing an employer brand, managing records, establishing a succession plan, and exiting employees from the organization.Answer option B is incorrect. Business Management and Strategy looks at the “big picture” of the organization and requires an understanding of overall business operations, basic knowledge of other functional areas in the organization, and the ability to interact and work effectively with those functions.Answer option C is incorrect. Human Resource Development utilizes training, development, change, and performance management programs to ensure that individuals with the required knowledge, skills, and abilities are available when needed to accomplish organization goals.Answer option D is incorrect. Employee and Labor Relations address the practices for building positive employment relationships in both union and nonunion environments. This includes employee relations programs, workplace policies and procedures, dispute resolution programs, and collective bargaining activities. Chapter: Certifying Human Resource Professionals Objective: Development of the Human Resource Body of Knowledge
QUESTION 2
According to Knowles, there are five key assumptions about how adults learn. One of the assumptions is the learner’s need to know. Which of the following statements is best associated with the assumption of the learner’s need to know?
A. I’m ready to learn this because what I learn will help me function better in some way.
B. I understand why I need to learn this.
C. What I learn today will help me solve problems at my workplace tomorrow.
D. I’ve got lots of valuable experience that I want to draw upon to help me as I learn.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
As an HR Professional you must be familiar with the project management processes and the stakeholders of projects. All projects can map to the project management lifecycle. Which one of the following best describes the project management lifecycle?
A. It is a unique life of each project -from its initiation through its closing.
B. It is the aggregation of the nine knowledge areas of project management: integration management, scope, schedule, costs, quality, human resources, communication, risk, and procurement.
C. It is the life of the management of the project -from initiation, planning, execution, controlling, through closing.
D. It is the life of a project to interact with all areas including scope, schedule, costs, quality, human resources, communication, risk, and procurement.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
The Department of Labor establishes the rules for unemployment insurance and associated claims. Who administers the unemployment?
A. The Department of Labor
B. Each state
C. Insurance companies
D. Each organization
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
A correlation coefficient is an example of a type of what?
A. Qualitative analysis
B. Quantitative analysis
C. Job evaluation
D. Learning matrix
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option B is correct.Qualitative analysis is a form of research that uses mathematical models such as correlation, correlation coefficient, and measures of central tendency to provide solutions to problems. Quantitative analysis attempts to measure historical data (B), a job evaluation measures the relative value of each job within the organization (C) and a learning matrix is a generic term that can be used to identify organizational learning strategies (D) . See Chapters 2 and 4 for more information. Chapter: Core Knowledge Requirements for HR Professionals Objective: Qualitative and Quantitative Analysis
QUESTION 6
This nonmathematical forecasting technique brings the participants together to share and discuss their ideas about the forecast. The ideas are then ranked based on the groups input. What technique is discussed?
A. Management forecasts
B. Delphi technique
C. Nominal group technique
D. Brainstorming
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 7
Your organization offers an employees’ retirement benefit program that is covered by the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974. The administrative responsibility for enforcement of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 is divided among three government agencies. Which one of the following is not a government agency that helps to enforce ERISA?
A. IRS
B. Department of Labor
C. Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation
D. FDIC
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 8
You are the HR Professional for your organization. You are discussing the status of your company’s employees to determine who may be considered nonexempt versus exempt. Which one of the following types of employees can never be considered exempted from overtime provisions?
A. Manual workers
B. Sales people
C. Managers
D. Administrative assistants
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 9
Holly and Gary are HR Professionals in their organization and they are working to develop the strategic plan for their organization. Holly and Gary are using SWOT analysis to help understand the needs of human, financial, technological, capital, and other aspects of their organization. What is SWOT?
A. SWOT is an analysis to define the strengths, weaknesses, openness, and timeliness of an organization.
B. SWOT is an analysis to define the schedule, weaknesses, opportunities, and timetable of a project endeavor.
C. SWOT is an analysis to define the seriousness, weaknesses, openness, and timetable of organization development.
D. SWOT is an analysis to define the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats an organization may face.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option D is correct.SWOT is an analysis that can be used to determine the strengths, weaknesses,
opportunities, and threats.SWOT analysis is a strategic planning method used to evaluate the Strengths,
Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats involved in a project or in a business venture. It involves
specifying the objective of the business venture or project and identifying the internal and external factors

that are favorable and unfavorable to achieving that objective. A SWOT analysis may be incorporated into the strategic planning model. It is a part of business policy that helps an individual or a company to make decisions. It includes the strategies to build the strength of a company and use the opportunities to make the company successful. It also includes the strategies to overcome the weaknesses of and threats to the company.Answer option A is incorrect. This is not a valid definition of SWOT so this choice is incorrect.Answer option B is incorrect. This is not a valid definition of SWOT so this choice is incorrect.Answer option C is incorrect. This is not a valid definition of SWOT so this choice is incorrect. Chapter: Core Knowledge Requirements for HR Professionals Objective: Environmental Scanning Concepts
QUESTION 10
There are many different types of organizations that people create to accomplish business goals. Which business organization has just one person who is responsible for all decisions in the business, retains all profits, and has unlimited personal liability for all business decisions?
A. Partnerships
B. Sole proprietorship
C. Limited liability company
D. Corporation
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 11
The human resource professional fulfills three core roles in any organization. These three roles help propel the company’s success. Which of the following statements best describes the roles of an HR professional?
A. Human resource professionals fulfill strategic, operational, and administrative roles.
B. Human resource professionals fulfill legal, operational, and administrative roles.
C. Human resource professionals fulfill strategic, operational, and logistical roles.
D. Human resource professionals fulfill functional, operational, and logistical roles.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 12
Each collective bargaining agreement outlines the process to file a grievance. Most agreements define a four-step approach to the grievance procedure. During which one of the following steps of the grievance procedure, might the president of the local union meet with the manager of the plant at which the employee with the grievance works?
A. Initiate the complaint
B. Escalate the complaint internally
C. Reach the highest level of internal escalation
D. Participate in binding arbitration
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 13
A business professional must plan on the direction and mission of the organization. Questions that direct the business ask where is the business now, where does the business want to go, how will the business get there, and how will we know when it has arrived. What term is assigned to this business introspection?
A. Planning
B. Mission building
C. Strategic planning
D. Vision
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 14
What plan captures and projects how human resources will contribute to achieving the organization’s strategic plan?
A. Human capital management plan
B. HR Staffing Plan
C. Resource Development Plan
D. Change management plan
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
References:
QUESTION 15
An HR audit is designed to help management do what?
A. Improve employee morale.
B. Analyze HR policies, programs, and procedures against applicable legal requirements.
C. Improve HR effectiveness.
D. All of the above.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option D is correct.An HR audit is an organized process designed to identify key aspects of HR in the organization such as employee morale, HR policies, programs and procedures, and HR effectiveness. See Chapter 3 for more information. Chapter: Business Management and Strategy Objective: Strategic Management
QUESTION 16
What term is best described as examining the entire organization to simplify or eliminate unnecessary processes with the goal of increasing customer satisfaction through improvements in efficiency?
A. Reengineering
B. Corporate restructuring
C. Workforce reduction
D. Mergers and acquisitions
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 17
You need to participate in enterprise risk management and complete an HR-audit. Which of the following is the best definition of an HR-audit in regard to risk management?
A. Identify the total number of employees in the organization
B. Identify the competency of employees in each areas of the organization
C. Identify the total number of employees by years of employment in the organization and verify their experience, education, and skills
D. Identify the HR areas that may be out of compliance with legal requirements
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 18
As an HR Professional, you must be familiar with many laws and the process of how laws come into existence. One type of law is an administrative law. Which of the following is NOT an example of an administrative law?
A. Agency rules and regulations
B. Executive orders
C. Agency orders
D. Corporate governance
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 19
John is the Senior HR Professional for his organization and he’s reviewing his company’s code of conduct. Which of the following statements best describes a code of conduct?
A. A code of conduct is a statement of behaviors that the organization expects from its employees.
B. A code of conduct is a statement of ideal standards that the organization is committed to uphold in its business practices.
C. A code of conduct is a statement of ideal standards that the shareholders are expected to uphold in its business practices.
D. A code of conduct is a statement of behaviors that the employees expect from its management. Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: References:
QUESTION 20
As a Senior HR https://www.pass4itsure.com/sphr.html Professional, you may have to work with the board of directors on some organizational issues and goals. How does the board of directors come into existence?
A. The founder of the organization chooses the members of the board.
B. The members of the board are hired just like all employees.
C. The shareholders of the company elect the board of directors.
D. Regulations, laws, and policies determine who is eligible to serve on the board of directors. Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: References:

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QUESTION 1
A technician would like to ensure that when users connect to a web server in a server farm, they connect to the server with the lowest CPU utilization. Which of the following technologies would accomplish this?
A. Load balancing
B. High availability
C. Virtual machine
D. Reverse proxy
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2
Changing the boot order of devices can be configured from which of the following?
A. DIP switches
B. BIOS
C. Chipset
D. Control Panel
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
Which of the following is an advantage of using non-ECC memory over ECC memory?
A. ECC is faster than non-ECC
B. Non-ECC is faster than ECC
C. Non-ECC is more expensive than ECC
D. Non-ECC checks for memory errors

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
Before installing a new device, a technician checks to make sure the device is on the HCL. Which of the following is the advantage of having an HCL device?
A. It is supported by other vendors
B. Increases performance
C. Decreases cost
D. Meets vendor standards

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 5
When building a computer with a 32 bit processor, which of the following is the MAXIMUM amount of memory supported?
A. 1GB
B. 2GB
C. 4GB
D. 8GB
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
A technician has installed an additional NIC on a server. Which of the following can now be setup?
A. Teaming
B. VLANs
C. Port forwarding
D. Full duplex

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
A technician is setting up a network and wants to automatically assign IP addresses. Which of the following will need to be configured to automatically assign IP addresses?
A. WINS
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. NTP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
A technician is building a Windows 2008 server and has installed a motherboard, processor, and power supply. Which of the following optical drives should the technician install?
A. Flash Drive
B. DVD-RW
C. CD-ROM
D. SSD
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Typically, warranty information can be found on a vendor’s website by looking up which of the following?
A. Original hardware configuration
B. Service manual
C. Service tag
D. Model number
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
When purchasing a UPS for a server room, which of the following are important factors to consider? (Select TWO).
A. Network card configuration
B. Remote access procedures
C. Estimated runtime
D. Maximum load
E. Power cord length
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 11
A new server must be configured to provide fault tolerant connectivity to the DMZ and the backend database. Which of the following is the MOST cost effective way to accomplish this?
A. A total of six NICs: two pairs of teamed NICs for the DMZ and two NICs for the backend database.
B. One NIC can be configured with VLANs for the DMZ and backend database.
C. A total of eight NICs to be teamed with the appropriate VLANs configured for the DMZ and backend database.
D. A total of four NICs: two NICs for the DMZ and two NICs for the backend database.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Which of the following is TRUE about a caching name server? (Select TWO).
A. They must have a trusted SSL certificate
B. They can be authoritative
C. They cannot be load-balanced
D. They can be recursive
E. They require DHCP
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 13
A technician needs to deploy a new Internet facing web server and internal database server. The web server will use the database backend to retrieve shopping cart information. Which of the following configuration utilizes the LEAST resources?
A. Both servers will be virtualized on the same host server. The web server will be configured with an Internet facing NIC connected to the host’s hardware NIC and a backend NIC connected to a virtual switch. The database server NIC will be connected to the same virtual switch.
B. The database server will be created on the existing virtual farm and configured with one physical NIC. The web server will be installed on new hardware and will utilize two physical NICs to separate backend traffic from frontend Internet communication.
C. The web server will be created on the existing virtual farm and configured with two physical NICs, one NIC for backend and one for backend communication. The database server will be installed on new hardware to ensure maximum performance.
D. Both servers will be virtualized on a pair of redundant host servers. Both the web server and the database server will share the same hardware resources. The web server will be configured with one NIC for both frontend and backend communication and the databases server will also have one NIC.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
A technician has fixed a reported issue with a heavily used software program and users have verified that the program is working correctly. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
A. Document the process and update the baseline.
B. Test the theory of probable cause and verify with the software vendor.
C. Establish a plan of action to be included in the business impact analysis.
D. Implement the software manufacturer workaround.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
After installing a new hard drive into a server for the purpose of mirroring the data from the first drive to the second one, the server displays an “operating system not found” error. Which of the following should the technician do to boot the server from the original drive?
A. Replace the second drive with a hot swappable one.
B. Swap the drive boot order in the BIOS.
C. Make the second disk active under the disk management tool.
D. Rebuild the array using the hardware RAID tool at boot.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which of the following MUST be done when imaging a Windows Server that will be used as a template?
A. Remove software
B. Run Windows Updates
C. Update drivers
D. Sysprep

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
A technician works for a company that has recently been affected by a virus. The virus entered the network by using port 6000. Port 6000 is used by an application located on a server. The technician has been asked to block this port on all servers and computers except for the one server which uses this port. Which of the following should the technician do?
A. Update the antivirus application
B. Install critical update security patches
C. Adjust the software firewall settings
D. Replace the current antivirus program

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
A technician manages a server that contains sensitive data. The server currently has two hard drives, one hosting the operating system and other generic files and the second hosting sensitive data. The technician needs to implement a technology that would guard against data loss for only the sensitive data, while adding only one additional hard drive. Which of the following should the technician implement to avoid reformatting any drives?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 5
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
When planning for redundant power sources in a server deployment, which of the following should be purchased? (Select TWO).
A. RAID controllers
B. Multiple UPSs
C. Redundant cooling
D. Dual NICs
E. Redundant power supplies
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 20
Which of the following is an advantage of RAID 0?
A. Mirrors data
B. Redundancy
C. Speed
D. Automatic hot spare

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 21
A technician is installing a server with sixteen 1 TB drives. They want the benefit of both speed and redundancy. Which of the following RAID configurations should be used?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 50
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 22
Which of the following types of UPS would be used with equipment that is very sensitive to power fluctuations?
A. Offline / Standby
B. Line interactive
C. Rackmount
D. Online / Double Conversion

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 23
When a technician left the server room Monday evening everything was operational. When the technician returned Tuesday morning, the front bezel was off of the mail server, and it had been powered off. Which of the following should be checked FIRST?
A. TCP/IP settings
B. RAID configuration
C. Whether the power cord is attached
D. Server room access log

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 24
Which of the following server roles allows a server to translate fully qualified domain names into IP addresses?
A. Directory services server
B. NTP server
C. DHCP server
D. DNS server

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 25
A technician has just finished installing a new server into a server rack. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT to complete the installation documentation?
A. Update drivers, update operating system (e.g. Windows Update), create server baseline, create a new network diagram, update change management procedures
B. Create server baseline, label server, store vendor-specific documentation, update network diagrams, update asset tracking information
C. Create server baseline, assign server roles, install tape drive, delete network diagram, label server, update operating system (e.g. Windows Update)
D. Install applications on server, install external drives, toss vendor-specific documentation, update network diagrams

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 26
A small business has had unauthorized people enter their server room and damage their servers. Which of the following locks for the door would BEST prevent unauthorized people from accessing the server room?
A. Biometric
B. Keypad
C. Barcode
D. Key lock

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 27
A technician is troubleshooting a lack of Internet connectivity affecting their entire office. The technician suspects the issue is with their Internet Service Provider failing to provide service. Which of the following command line tools should the technician use to BEST test this theory?
A. tracert
B. ipconfig
C. netstat
D. nslookup

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 28
An administrator needs to install a 2U server into a rack. Which of the following shows how much space, in height, needs to be available for the server to fit in the rack?
A. 1.75 inches (4.45 cm)
B. 2.5 inches (6.35 cm)
C. 3.5 inches (8.89 cm)
D. 4.25 inches (10.8 cm)

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 29
A customer has purchased a triple channel memory kit containing three DDR3 RAM modules. The server the RAM is intended for only has a dual channel capable motherboard. Which of the following is the BEST action to perform?
A. Install only two modules as the RAM has to be installed in pairs
B. Purchase one additional RAM module to make it even. Three modules will function as triple channel and the additional module will be for parity
C. Purchase dual channel memory. The triple channel memory may be incompatible with the server motherboard
D. Install the RAM. Two modules will perform as dual channel and one as single channel

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 30
Which of the following processor technologies is typically supported on current enterprise class UNIX servers but not enterprise class Windows Servers?
A. RISC
B. CISC
C. Multi-threading
D. 64-bit
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which architecture allows system-to-system communication and user level DMA with as little CPU interaction as possible, most particularly for clustering?
A. FAIS B. FC-VI C. FC-CT D. FC-SW
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 2
Which SMB security entity provides locking?
A. Share ACL
B. NFS export
C. Deny modes
D. CIFS authorization
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3
Which three options are benefits of using storage based replication? (Choose three.)
A. Minimal or no host load
B. Host platform independent
C. Minimal client network load
D. Storage platform independent
E. Minimal storage network load
Answer: B,C,D QUESTION NO: 4
Which three standards are the responsibility of the Internet Engineering Task Force?
(Choose three.)
A. IEEE
B. SNMP
C. NDMP
D. Policy for QoS
E. IP over Fibre Channel
Answer: B,D,E
IETF (www.ietf.org) — Internet Engineering Task Force. The standards body responsible for a wide variety of TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) standards, including: SNMP, Simple Network Management Protocol – A protocol for monitoring and managing systems and devices in a network. The data being accessed is defined by a MIB (Management Information Base, also defined in the IETF). The functions supported by the protocol are the request and retrieval of MIB data, the setting or writing of data, and traps to signal the occurrence of events. IP over Fibre Channel Policy for QoS (quality of service)
QUESTION NO: 5
What is the minimal iSCI security level needed to protect against man-in-the-middle insertion, modification or deletion?
A. None
B. Encryption (IPsec)
C. Initiator and Target Authentication
D. Digest for header and data integrity
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 6

kilometersfrom their production facility. Which proposal should they use?
A. Synchronously replicate data between the two sites using DWDM.
B. Asynchronously replicate data between the two sites using DWDM.
C. Synchronously replicate data between the two sites using a completely fibre solution.
D. Asynchronously replicate data between the two sites using a completely fibre solution.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 7
Which SMI-S related acronym describes an object-oriented description of the entities and relationships in a business management environment, divided into core and common models?
A. CIM B. SRM C. DRM D. DMTF
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 8
Which virtualization technique requires the addition of an agent to each host for the purpose of managing storage allocation?
A. Host-based LVM
B. In-band appliance
C. Out-of-band appliance
D. Array-based LUN masking
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 9
Which concept includes considerations such as data placement, deletion, repurposing, and regulatory archiving.
A. Tiers of management
B. Backup and recovery
C. Common data usage model
D. Information lifecycle management
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 10
What are three advantages of NAS? (Choose three.)
A. File services can be extended to hundreds of devices
B. Easy to implement using the same protocols as file servers
C. Provides a high-speed data path between servers and storage
D. Clients running different operating systems can share the same files
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 11
What is the SNIA Shared Storage Model?
A. Description of storage components and their differences
B. Framework that captures the functional layers and properties of a storage system
C. Specification, a design, a product, a recommendation of a storage infrastructure
D. Systems architecture that describes partitioning of physical elements and their complex interactions
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 12

A. SBus
B. ATAPI
C. PCI bus
D. SCSI bus
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 13
A customer with a split mirror backup infrastructure requires an emergency restore of a database. The data files and archive logs are co-located in the same file system. What is your first step after stopping the database?
A. Restore
B. Bring up the database in recovery mode
C. Copy archive logs to an alternate location
D. Change the database state to no archive logs
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 14
A stock trading application requires disaster tolerant storage for both transactional and analytical processing. The implementation resulted in both a database and a data warehouse.
A. As initial storage is extended to match capacity changes, remote storage is added dynamically.
B. The storage administrator creates a series of policies that specify remote and local replication at the policy client.
C. The storage administrator creates a series of policies that specify remote and local replication at the policy provider.
D. As local storage is extended to match capacity changes, remote storage is reconfigurated within the capabilities of the storage pool.
Answer: A,B QUESTION NO: 15
Where is the virtualization performed that masks physical data layout?
A. Network B. FC switch C. Host/server
D. Storage device
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 16
Which architectural model in the SCSI Architectural Model defines the objects, function and Behavior independent of the physical interface used to transport those objects or perform the functions?
A. FC-4
B. iSCSI
C. SCSI-3
D. SCSI-FCP
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 17
What type of Fabric switch ports are joined to form an ISL?
A. F_Port to F_Port
B. N_port to F_Port
C. E_Port to E_Port
D. NL_Port to E_Port
Answer: C

Which two are characteristic of mid-tier DAS? (Choose two.)
A. Requires specialized training to manage
B. Storage must be located near the server
C. Data is not readily shared over many servers
D. Storage is accessible by any host anywhere on the network
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 19
What occurs when iSCSI has been implemented in software?
A. FCIP is automatically enabled.
B. Host CPU overhead increases.
C. Network bandwidth increases to 10Gb/s.
D. Performance is equal to Fibre Channel host bus adapters.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 20
Which two recovery risks exist, given backup of a multi-protocol NAS device taken from a client System through an active share? (Choose two.)
A. Loss of SMB files
B. Loss of NFS meta data
C. Loss of CIFS meta data
D. Loss of ACL information
Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 21
What are two disadvantages of using a parallel interface? (Choose two.)

A. As the bus length increases, the chance of skew increases
B. As the bus speed increases, the chance of skew increases
C. As the number of devices attached to the bus increases, bus length decreases
D. As the number of devices attached to the bus increases, bus queue depth increases
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 22
Which Storage solution supports remote mirroring of FC switch attached storage arrays in geographically dispersed data centers?
A. iFCP
B. FCIP
C. iSNS
D. iSCSI
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 23
Which type of storage management product would be used to perform LUN creation, mapping, And configuration without advanced integration of heterogeneous storage platforms?
A. Device manager
B. Logical data manager
C. Storage network manager
D. Network management system
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 24
Which storage management component typically contains proprietary interfaces and is vendor supplied?

A. Device manager
B. Logical data manager
C. Storage network manager
D. Network management system
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 25
Which utility typically enables abstraction of storage within a server?
A. LVM
B. Switch zoning
C. SAN appliance
D. SMI-S monitoring tool
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 26
Which two performance criteria are used to determine the selection of a device for a tiered storage level? (Choose two.)
A. User profile
B. Age of data
C. Speed (IOPs)
D. Raid and availability
Answer: C,D

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which two default administrative user accounts are created during the installation of Symantec Security Information Manager? (Select two.)
A. Root Administrator
B. Domain Administrator
C. SES Administrator
D. System Administrator E. Local Administrator
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 2
When are the effective privileges of the SES Administrator role and Domain Administrator role equivalent?
A. when there is only one domain in the system
B. when the administrator is assigned the SES Administrator role
C. when the system is newly installed and a domain has not yet been created
D. when the Domain Administrator role is given permission to create users and roles
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 3
Which role is able to modify permissions within the Symantec Security Information Manager solution?
A. DB2 Administrator
B. Root Administrator
C. System Administrator
D. Domain Administrator
Answer: D QUESTION NO: 4

How many days of data is stored in the archives before it is purged?

A. 10
B. 30
C. 60
D. unlimited
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 5
When configuring the Event Archive settings of an Information Manager appliance, which two options can be configured? (Select two.)
A. Auxiliary Storage Device
B. Max Archive Quota
C. Free disk space
D. Purge Start Time
E. Purge certain events
Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 6
Which is commonly used to view archived events?
A. Information Manager Event Viewer
B. Archive Management Console tab
C. Event Viewer API
D. Incident Management Console tab
Answer: A QUESTION NO: 7

Which two user actions can be executed by the Information Manager Event Viewer by default? (Select two.)
A. Finger
B. ping
C. touch
D. nslookup
E. whois
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 8
Which two search templates are pre-defined by Information Manager? (Select two.)
A. Host Activity
B. Internal Activity
C. IDS Activity
D. Firewall Activity
E. Port Activity
Answer: A,E
QUESTION NO: 9
When querying archived event data, how can you make a query available to other users of the system?
A. Save it in Published Queries.
B. Save it in Public Templates.
C. Grant Read Query permission to the domain.
D. Check the Shared option on the saved query.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 10
What is the common way in which new entries can be added to the Assets Table of a Symantec Security Information Manager solution?
A. through the Lookup Tables pane of the Information Manager Console
B. importing from HP OpenView through the OpenView Integration feature
C. importing from a rule that is monitoring traffic on the network
D. automatic population through a supported vulnerability scanner
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 11
Which statement is true about rules in a Symantec Security Information Manager solution?
A. Rules can be created that escalate events to incidents, based on policies defined on each asset.
B. The Rules Editor can create policies on each asset to determine what rules are executed when an event occurs.
C. Rules can be configured on each asset that will launch a vulnerability scan when a specific type of event occurs.
D. The Rules tab can be used on the console to automatically identify available ports on an asset.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 12
Which two ratings does the Information Manager Assets Table use to quantify the importance of the device and help determine how to escalate security incidents related to that device? (Select two.)
A. Confidentiality
B. Criticality
C. Severity
D. Priority
E. Integrity
Answer: A,E
QUESTION NO: 13
What are two ways the Assets Table can reduce the reporting of false positive security incidents using built-in functionality? (Select two.)
A. assigns proper CIA values to each asset in the table
B. schedules daily updates of vulnerability information from Symantec’s LiveUpdate service
C. populates the Policies tab with policies that apply to each asset
D. uses a supported vulnerability scanner to help prioritize incidents
E. configures normalization of event data captured by the collectors
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 14
How can you determine which ports are potentially vulnerable on a given host in the Assets Table?
A. by running the NetScan user action on the asset
B. by looking at the Services tab on the asset
C. by viewing the Details tab for the asset
D. by running the Host Information report on the asset
Answer: B

QUESTION NO:15
What information is reported by the Nessus scanner when it scans a range of network addresses?
A. configuration data of discovered devices
B. vulnerabilities of discovered network devices
C. patch levels installed on discovered devices
D. the SANS risk level of each discovered device
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 16
Which service provides Symantec Security Information Manager with updated intelligence about threats?
A. Symantec Security Information Manager
B. DeepSight Global Intelligence Network
C. Symantec Enterprise Security Manager
D. Symantec Endpoint Protection
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 17
What type of data that comes from DeepSight is mapped to vulnerability, exposure, malicious code, and safeguard mitigation strategies?
A. normalized event signatures
B. correlated incident activities
C. relationships between events
D. correlated event activities
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 18
Which option allows events to be ignored by the Correlation Rules and no longer be processed?
A. Bypass Rules
B. Conditions
C. Criteria
D. Event Filters
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 19
Which option in the Rules Monitors list allows for follow-up actions that are required to resolve the incident?
A. Monitors list
B. Actions
C. Properties
D. History
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 20
Which source is used by Symantec Security Information Manager to create incidents?
A. SANS Internet Storm Center
B. Assets Table
C. analyst input
D. Correlation Rules
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 21
What is the correct Symantec Security Information Manager incident identification pipeline?
A. collection –> normalization –> rule processing –> attack tracing –> correlation to vulnerabilities
–> incident prioritization
B. normalization –> collection –> rule processing –> attack tracing –> correlation to vulnerabilities –> incident prioritization
C. rule processing –> normalization –> collection –> attack tracing –> correlation to vulnerabilities –> incident prioritization
D. attack tracing –> rule processing –> normalization –> collection –> correlation to vulnerabilities –> incident prioritization
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 22
What is the purpose of normalization?
A. to minimize the number of events affecting multiple devices for the Correlation Manager to strategize the events more quickly
B. to correlate events across multiple devices for the Correlation Manager to compare all events equally
C. to standardize events across multiple devices for the Correlation Manager to compare all events equally
D. to process the events across multiple devices for the Correlation Manager to strategize the events more quickly
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 23
What is the unique identifier that normalization provides for each type of event?
A. adds Correlation Manager-specific data to the translated incident
B. adds Correlation Manager-specific data to the translated event
C. maps events to a device-specific signature
D. maps incidents to a device-specific signature
Answer: B

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