CompTIA SG0-001 Study Guide, Latest Updated CompTIA SG0-001 Free Dumps With Low Price

Posted by on

CompTIA SG0-001 exam will get as a single  Adobe 9A0-803 PDF or complete  CompTIA SG0-001 testing engine as well as over 1000 other technical exam PDF and exam engine downloads. Tired of choosing CompTIA SG0-001 Configuration and Maintenance Exam material for preparing your CompTIA https://www.pass4itsure.com/sg0-001.html exam, just come to Flydumps CompTIA SG0-001 exam sample questions page for all the real Q&As. Flydumps Cisco experts and specialists have created 84 real CompTIA SG0-001 exam Q&As for your learning. More, with our customers’ feedback, we have helped many candidates pass CompTIA SG0-001 exam easily.

Topic 1, Volume A
Question No : 1 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following is an indication of acceptable storage array performance?
A. High cache hit ratio
B. Low MTTF
C. Low buffer-to-buffer credits
D. High I/O wait

Answer: A
Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)
When setting up replication for application spanning multiple LUNs, which of the following replication features should be utilized?
A. Clone
B. Snapshot
C. Semi-synchronous Replication
D. Consistency Group

Answer: D
Question No : 3 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following is the difference between a Tape Library and a Tape Auto-loader?
A. A Tape Library supports a tape access door.
B. A Tape Library supports multiple tape drives.
C. A Tape Library supports a tape robot.
D. A Tape Library supports multiple tapes.

Answer: B
Question No : 4 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following requires a MINIMUM of three drives and can survive the loss of up to any two drives?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 0+1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 6

Answer: D
Question No : 5 – (Topic 1)
An IP-based datacenter is adding SCSI tape and disk assets to be used by multiple servers. Which of the following will need to be added?
A. Router
B. Bridge
C. GiGE switch
D. 10/100 switch

Answer: B
Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following terms refers to the storage infrastructure as a whole?
A. Fabric
B. Connection
C. SAN
D. NAS

Answer: C
Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following is the NATIVE capacity of an LTO-4 tape cartridge? A. 200 GB
B. 400 GB
C. 800 GB
D. 1TB

Answer: C
Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following is the BEST media to quickly backup a portable 30 GB file?
A. LTO
B. Flash Drive
C. DVD
D. Blu-Ray

Answer: B
Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following is a meshed topology of server nodes, switches, and storage nodes?
A. Arbitrated loop
B. FCoTR
C. Fabric
D. Zone

Answer: C
Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)
Given the below system requirements:
-Two Fabrics
-Each fabric has 4 switches, 1 core director and 3 edge switches
-A new storage array is being added
-HA environment that is fully redundant
Where would a storage administrator MOST likely place the storage and how many connections would the administrator need to connect the array to the environment?
A. Connected to the core; all connections from the storage array controller 1 go to fabric A and controller 2 goes to fabric B.
B. Connected to the edge switches; each controller has its connections balanced between all edge switches on both fabrics.
C. Connected to the edge switches; controller 1 has its connections balanced between all edge switches on fabric A, controller 2 has its connections balanced between all edge switches on fabric B.
D. Connected to the core; half of the connections to each storage array controller connects to each of the fabrics.

Answer: D
Question No : 11 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following is recommended for mirroring data over long distances when the transaction rate is high and impact to the performance on the main site must be minimized?
A. Replication Consistent
B. Synchronous
C. Symmetric
D. Asynchronous

Answer: D
Question No : 12 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following replication types is the FASTEST?
A. Synchronous
B. Asynchronous
C. Incremental
D. Differential

Answer: A Question No : 13 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following would a company implement in order to ensure that critical system data backups are available in case the datacenter is lost due to a natural disaster?
A. Snapshots
B. e-vaulting
C. OnsiteD2D
D. OnsiteD2D2T

Answer: B
Question No : 14 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following provides a point-in-time, copy-on-write copy of storage data?
A. RAID hot spare
B. LUN Migration
C. Clone
D. Snapshot

Answer: D
Question No : 15 – (Topic 1)
An IT Administrator needs to have which of the following devices in order to share an FC storage system with multiple servers on a SAN?
A. FC router
B. FC switch
C. FC hub
D. FC HBA

Answer: B Question No : 16 – (Topic 1)
After a cleaning person left the network room, one of the paths to the SAN from Server A is no longer working. The redundant path is working fine. The cables are all connected securely but the HBA fault light is on. The switch shows no light on that port. Which of the following MOST likely occurred?
A. The HBA was unseated.
B. The Ethernet connection was briefly lost.
C. The ISL was broken.
D. The cable was damaged

Answer: D
Question No : 17 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following Fibre Channel feature allows Virtual Machines to be seen individual^ on the fabric?
A. VLAN
B. Virtual Fabric
C. NPIV
D. Virtual Storage

Answer: C
Question No : 18 – (Topic 1)
A SAN administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between a new server and a FC switch. The link is running at 8Gbps and uses a 90 meter (295 feet) optical cable. Which of the following is the FIRST item the administrator should check or perform?
A. Upgrade the switch firmware to the latest level.
B. Verify the cable is OM-3 and not OM-2
C. Run a temporary cable to bypass a patch panel.
D. Replace the server’s host bus adapter.

Answer: B
Question No : 19 – (Topic 1)
An administrator notices an occasional spike in disk IOPS beyond what the disks can handle. Worried about application performance, the administrator talks with users, but the effect seems to have gone unnoticed. Which of the following is MOST likely preventing the users from experiencing the effects of the spikes?
A. Redundant Fabric
B. Fiber Channel
C. Inter-Switch Links
D. Controller Cache

Answer: D
Question No : 20 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following technologies provides an abstraction of physical drives within a storage array?
A. Fabric virtualization
B. Disk virtualization
C. SAN virtualization
D. Server virtualization

Answer: B
Question No : 21 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following are requirements for having an ISL between two FC switches? (Select TWO).
A. Both switches have to be the same model.
B. The connecting ports need to be E-ports.
C. The connecting ports need to be F-ports.
D. Each switch has to have a unique domain ID.
E. Both switches need to be running the same firmware level.

Answer: B,D
Question No : 22 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following features can automatically facilitate a vendor service call in the event of a SAN component failure?
A. Predictive trending
B. SMS alert to administrator
C. Call home
D. SNMP

Answer: C
Question No : 23 – (Topic 1)
In order to protect the storage area network, a new firewall has been installed at the company’s datacenter. Once installed, all servers lost the remote storage and crashed. Which of the following will restore communication between the servers’ network and the SAN?
A. UDP port 6320 must be permitted between the two networks.
B. TCP port 3260 must be permitted between the two networks.
C. All servers must be configured to use hardware iSCSI initiators.
D. All servers must rescan the LUNs which have been masked by the firewall

Answer: B
Question No : 24 – (Topic 1)
An administrator would like to employ a strategy to use SAN space more efficiently. Data that has a high I/O and is accessed often should be moved to SSD and Fiber Channel drives while data accessed less often should be moved to the higher capacity SATA drives. Which of the following features describes this strategy?
A. SAN snapshot
B. Storage base lining
C. Data tiering
D. Capacity planning

Answer: C
Question No : 25 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following describes an ISL connection?
A. Between an initiator and a target
B. Between a specific node (NL-port) and an a switch
C. From any Loop port within a Loop
D. Between two fabric switches

Answer: D
Question No : 26 – (Topic 1)
Two single-port 2Gb HBAs can support up to which of the following?
A. 200MB/S
B. 320MB/S
C. 400MB/S
D. 4200MB/S

Answer: C
Question No : 27 – (Topic 1)
How many disks are required to create RAID 3 utilizing five data drives with a hot spare?

A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 10 Answer: C
Question No : 28 – (Topic 1)
To provide increased storage availability, the system administrator purchased a storage array with two controllers. Which of the following is a reason a server would lose its storage when only one of the storage controllers fails?
A. Improper multipathing configuration
B. Hard zoning has been implemented
C. The switch fabric is not redundant
D. SCSI disks have not been properly terminated

Answer: A
Question No : 29 – (Topic 1)
An administrator would like to combine several ISLs into a single virtual connection. Which of the following technologies should be implemented to accomplish this?
A. LUN Masking
B. Trunking
C. Flow Control
D. VLAN Trunking

Answer: B
Question No : 30 – (Topic 1)
An array has five drives, and each drive is 300GB in capacity. If an administrator applies RAID 5, which of the following is the usable capacity of the five drives?
A. 600 GB
B. 900 GB
C. 1.2 TB
D. 1.5 TB

Answer: C
Question No : 31 – (Topic 1)
When connecting power for switches and storage equipment with two or more redundant power supplies in a rack?
A. Power supplies from a single component should be connected to the same PDU
B. There should be a separate PDU for each device in the rack.
C. Power supplies from a single component should be connected to different PDUs.
D. Each rack should have only one PDU.

Answer: C
Question No : 32 – (Topic 1)
Queue Depths can be defined as which of the following?
A. A value of the FICON status menu
B. The number of pending SCSI commands
C. A type of issue with large bandwidth
D. The number of Layer 2 processes on the fiber

Answer: B
Question No : 33 – (Topic 1)
An administrator cannot get the initiator to discover an iSCSI target. The switch displays all green lights on the port but by moving the cable from one port on the switch to another, the initiator discovers the target. Which of the following is MOST likely the issue?
A. Incorrect VLAN setting on the switch
B. Switch port was shutdown
C. Incorrect configuration of the target NIC
D. Incorrect configuration of the initiator NIC

Answer: A Question No : 34 – (Topic 1)
A host-based logical volume manager is used to migrate data from an old array to a newer one. The storage administrator has completed the physical connections, zoning, and masking, but the storage volumes from the new array are still not visible on the host. Which of die following steps should be performed NEXT?
A. Change the HBA driver topology configuration
B. Replace failed HBA
C. Run fcping
D. Bus rescan

Answer: D
Question No : 35 – (Topic 1)
One of the disks in a RAID 5 configuration on a NAS device has failed. Which of the following technologies would BEST allow a technician to replace the failed disk without interrupting service to the device?
A. Fibre channel array
B. Hot spare disk
C. Disk enclosure
D. Hot pluggable disk

Answer: D
Question No : 36 – (Topic 1)
A pair of SAN-attached servers will be clustered using host clustering, which of the following should the storage administrator do to support that configuration?
A. Volumes should be mapped to one server and then the second server will provide redundancy
B. Shared volumes should be mapped to both servers via a single storage interface.
C. Storage volumes from separate storage arrays should be mapped to each server via separate fabrics.
D. Shared volumes should be mapped to both servers via multiple storage interfaces.

Answer: D
Question No : 37 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following cable types has the HIGHEST possible throughput?
A. Single-mode fiber
B. CAT6
C. CAT5
D. TwinAX

Answer: A
Question No : 38 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following data security types would be used to enforce access management policies? (Select TWO)
A. Disk encryption
B. ACL
C. Physical security
D. Network encryption
E. Checksums

Answer: B,C
Question No : 39 – (Topic 1)
An administrator would like to implement a storage appliance that is able to provide access to NFS mounts and CIFS shares. Which of the following solutions would MOST likely provide this type of access?
A. vSAN
B. iSCSI target
C. FCoE SAN
D. NAS

Answer: D
Question No : 40 – (Topic 1)
A security administrator wants to set up various alerts on critical systems to be sent to the administrator’s email and cell phone. Which of the following options would need to be configured to ensure the delivery of those alerts?
A. TFTP
B. SMTP
C. SNMPv1
D. telnet

Answer: B
Question No : 41 – (Topic 1)
Data on a storage system was last replicated at 8:00 AM and the storage system had a major failure at 9:33 AM. The failure caused all changes to the data between 8:00 AM and
9:33
AM to be lost. The data loss was deemed acceptable based on the 2 hour:

A.
Mean Time to Data Loss (MTDL)

B.
Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)

C.
Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

D.
Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

Answer: C
Question No : 42 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following can be used lo provide storage lo multiple virtual servers through a single interface?
A. Virtual fabric
B. Virtual storage
C. LVM
D. NPIV

Answer: D
Question No : 43 – (Topic 1)
An administrator wants to select a SAN with high availability features. Which of the following would be MOST applicable to high availability?
A. Hot swappable components
B. Solid state drive support
C. Snapshot support
D. Email alerting

Answer: A
Question No : 44 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following copper cables provides the fastest MAXIMUM bandwidth to and from storage devices?
A. CAT3
B. CAT5
C. CAT5e
D. CAT6

Answer: D
Question No : 45 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following are classified as management protocols? (Select TWO)
A. WBEM
B. iSCSI
C. FCoE
D. Syslog
E. SMI-S

Answer: A,E
Question No : 46 – (Topic 1)
When installing a disk array, which of the following is MOST important to consider with placement in a storage rack? (Select TWO).
A. Fire suppression
B. Weight consideration
C. Power supply
D. Rack stabilization
E. Placement of front door

Answer: B,D
Question No : 47 – (Topic 1)
A storage array has a mixture of 150GB, 300GB, 400GB, 500GB, and 1TB drives. Which of the following drives can a 300GB hot spare protect? (Select TWO).
A. 150GB
B. 300GB
C. 400GB
D. 500GB
E. 1TB

Answer: A,B
Question No : 48 – (Topic 1)
A fibre channel fabric needs to be portioned into smaller subsets to restrict actual communication throughout a fabric and must work on fibre channel level 2. Which of the following implementations must be physically setup to satisfy these requirements?
A. Hard Zoning
B. Soft Zoning
C. E-port Replication
D. LUN Masking

Answer: A
Question No : 49 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following scenarios is the BEST candidate for thin provisioning?
A. A database application that grows and contracts several times per day
B. Storage utilization patterns that are slow and/or predictable
C. Many high-utilization applications that tend to grow at the same time of every month
D. Unexpected storage usage patterns are common

Answer: B
Question No : 50 – (Topic 1)
A systematic shutdown of a storage array may be caused by which of the following?
A. Datacenter ambient temperature is not maintained
B. Inadequate weight distribution is not balanced
C. Service processor inaccessibility
D. Disk cabinet left unsecured

Answer: A
Question No : 51 – (Topic 1)
A SAN administrator in a large datacenter has a number of racks with devices alerting for high temperatures randomly in the datacenter. There is sufficient cooling capacity for the datacenter. Which of the following design elements will address the random overheating issue?
A. Cooling unit relocation
B. Air dams under the raised floor
C. Incorporate hot-cold isles
D. Adequate power circuits

Answer: C
Question No : 52 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following are hot-pluggable devices in a storage array? (Select TWO)
A. HBA
B. Power supply
C. Disk
D. Drive chassis
E. ISL

Answer: B,C
Question No : 53 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following is an open management standard specifically for storage?
A. SNMP
B. SLP
C. SMI-S
D. SMTP

Answer: C
Question No : 54 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following are block level transports? (Select TWO)
A. EXT3
B. FCoE
C. iSCSI
D. NTFS E. NFS

Answer: B,C
Question No : 55 – (Topic 1)
A user’s remote connection halts every time large sequential files are transferred to and from a specific server running 1 Gb/s iSCSI. The administrator has found no fault with the network, and during these transfers the network utilization of the switch port is very high. After the transfer is complete the user is able to reconnect to the server via terminal services. Which of the following would prevent this problem in the future? (Select TWO).
A. Use a Dedicated iSCSI network and NIC instead of the production network.
B. Set up IPSec and CHAP authentication for the iSCSI connection.
C. Modify firewall rules to prevent terminal session starvation,
D. Increase the time out of the Buffer to Buffer Credits on the NIC.
E. Implement QoS or Class of Service features

Answer: A,C
Question No : 56 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following storage types is BEST suited for data immutability?
A. DAS
B. SAN
C. CAS
D. NAS

Answer: C
Question No : 57 – (Topic 1)
After installing a server based application, an administrator is failing to connect from their desktop. The administrator is able to ping the server by both IP and DNS name. Which of the following is causing the problem?
A. Incorrect firewall settings
B. Incorrect duplex setting
C. Incorrect VLAN configuration
D. Incorrect NIC configurations

Answer: A
Question No : 58 – (Topic 1)
An application database is operating slowly and no faults have been detected on the storage or host. Which of the following will determine if the storage device is performing outside of its normal operating expectations?
A. Current performance versus recorded baseline
B. Thorough review of the audit logs of the device
C. Forecast and capacity planning trend
D. Thorough review of the switch and storage event logs

Answer: A
Question No : 59 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following tape drive features allows multiple devices to be backed up simultaneously?
A. Compression
B. Shoe-shining
C. Multi-streaming
D. Multiplexing

Answer: D
Question No : 60 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following storage technologies makes use of E-ports and F-ports?
A. FC-AL
B. SATA
C. FCP
D. SAS

Answer: C

Flydumps CompTIA SG0-001 Exam Materials including the real questions and the answers, is complete by our senior IT lecturers and the Certified Specialist product experts. CompTIA SG0-001 dumps is unparalleled in quality and is 100% guaranteed to make you pass your CompTIA https://www.pass4itsure.com/sg0-001.html exam. Whether you decide to use our CompTIA SG0-001 dumps you can rest assured that you will pass the exam and get the certification that you want.

RSA SEPROAUTH-02 PDF-Answers, Latest Release RSA SEPROAUTH-02 Vce Dumps Is Your Best Choice

Posted by on

The service establishes the baseline for ongoing sup-port and security management operations of the new environment. The key RSA  https://www.pass4itsure.com/050-seproauth-02.html exam sample questions benefit of this service is providing the capability for security organizations to internalize and adapt quickly to the FLYDUMPS RSA SEPROAUTH-02 virtualized and cloud platforms to minimize transition risk. Analysts expect RSA SEPROAUTH-02 to beat expectations aided by the new RSA SEPROAUTH-02 Foundation contracts as the company holds a dominating position in this segment. Moreover, increasing adoption of cloud computing technology and expansions in the FLYDUMPS database will boost RSA SEPROAUTH-02 demand for RSA SEPROAUTH-02 exam sample questions, which in turn is RSA SEPROAUTH-02 exam expected to drive top-line growth going forward.

The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
1.If a Replica instance is taken out of service by shutting it down but it is NOT removed from the
Operations Console instance list,
A.the Primary server will continue periodic attempts to communicate with the Replica.
B.the Primary server will assume the Replica is dead and will automatically change the status to inactive.
C.it could potentially be used to attack a network by adding a user and token to the Replica that would not
be validated by the Primary.
D.it cannot be restored to service without performing a Replica Installation Update procedure with a new
Replica Package from the Primary.
Answer:A

2.When an RSA Authentication Agent for Internet Information Services is first installed, access to web
site files and directories
A.is allowed by default until the web server host computer is re-booted.
B.is not changed until the ISM snap-in service is started using the system control panel.
C.is allowed by default but can be configured to require authentication to access certain objects.
D.initially requires authentication but can be configured to allow unauthenticated access to certain
objects.
Answer:C

3.Which of the following devices features the ability to restore its initial state from the host boot menu?
A.RSA Web Tier server
B.RSA Authentication Agent host
C.RSA SecurID hardware appliance
D.RSA Authentication Manager virtual appliance
Answer:C

4.Which of the following tasks are associated with a Web Tier deployment for Risk-Based
Authentication?
A.integration script creation
B.user mobile phone registration
C.enable Windows password integration
D.verify there is no web Agent installation
Answer:A

5.When preparing for setup of RSA Authentication Manager, it is important to ensure
A.an accurate time source for the system.
B.that DHCP is enabled to assign a valid IP address to the host.
C.the correct sdconf.rec file is moved from an Agent to the server host.
D.that Agents and the host equipment are on the same network subnet.
Answer:A

The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
6. A user can not successfully authenticate using a local Agent installed on their Windows Workstation.
Log entries indicate a “Node secret mismatch”. What actions will likely re-establish a node secret match?
(Choose two)
A.Reset or clear the Agent node secret file or registry key.
B.Purge the Offline Authentication “Dayfiles” from the user’s workstation.
C.Clear “Node Secret Sent” in the Agent record of the RSA Security Console.
D.Delete the “Node32.rsa” file (Windows) or “node_set.dat” file (UNIX) on the Agent computer.
E.Instruct the user to enter their RSA SecurID tokencode without a PIN to trigger a “Node Secret Sent”
action.
Answer:AC

7.If manual load balancing has just been set up for an Authentication Agent and it appears that the Agent
is not contacting the desired servers, it might be helpful to verify the contents of the
A.sdopts.rec file.
B.sdconf.rec file.
C.sdstatus.12 file.
D.sdagent.rec file.
Answer:A

8.Ninety (90) days after installation, if the initial Super Admin user’s password is not changed, the initial
Super Admin user
A.is required to change their password before accessing the Operations Console.
B.is allowed to access the Security Console but is required to change their password.
C.can access only the Security Console to view information but cannot add or edit any records.
D.is locked out of the Security Console until another administrator unlocks the account and re-sets the
password.
Answer:B

9. If all users or a majority of users suddenly experience authentication failures, A.an Authentication Agent may have lost its configuration file.
B.a Replica instance has taken over authentication for the users. C.LDAP accounts may have expired or are locked out (disabled).
D.a problem relating to the authentication server is usually indicated. Answer:D
10.For purposes of troubleshooting, the most detailed log is
the A.Trace log.
B.System log.
C.Runtime Audit log.
D.Administrative Audit log.
Answer:A

Known as RSA SEPROAUTH-02 exam, it is the most hottest exam of Microsoft certification. Flydumps has the actual and new version for RSA https://www.pass4itsure.com/050-seproauth-02.html exam candidates, which is written to coincide with the real test by the experienced IT experts and specialists. In the RSA SEPROAUTH-02 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Microsoft certifications helping to ready you for your successful.

VMware VCP510-DT Exam Questions , Offer VMware VCP510-DT Certification Sale

Posted by on

You must read the VMware VCP510-DT exam sample questions provided by FLYDUMPS related to the subjects, which will help you to be prepared for clearing the VMware https://www.pass4itsure.com/vcp510-dt.html exam in the shortest possible time. In order to help the candidates become certified professionals, Flydumps provides you a comprehensive VMware VCP510-DT exam sample questions. Passing VMware VCP510-DT exam is one of the core requirements. On one hand, Flydumps VMware VCP510-DT exam sample questions helps you acquire the certification; on the other hand, it gives you the capacity to absorb the VMware VCP510-DT technology fully and very well.

QUESTION 1
Which two steps are part of the View Composer installation process? (Choose two.)
A. select the Enable View Composer checkbox in the View Administrator
B. install the View Composer on the vCenter Server system
C. register View Composer service on the Windows system
D. configure ODBC connection to the View Composer database
Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Explanation:
-Ab Version 5.1 nicht mehr zwingend auf dem vCenter
-braucht eine DB (Oracle oder SQL-Server) inkl. ODBC-DSN
QUESTION 2
The View Composer Database stores information about which three components and connections? (Choose three.)
A. Active Directory Connections
B. View Connection Broker Connections
C. Replicas created by the View Composer
D. Disposable data disk created by View Composer
E. Linked-clone desktops deployed by View Composer
Correct Answer: ACE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 3
Which two platforms are supported by VMware View Composer in a VMware View 5 environment? (Choose two.)
A. VMware vCenter 4.0 Update 3 running on Windows Server 2008 R2
B. VMware vCenter 4.1 Update 1 running on Windows XP Pro 64-bit
C. VMware vCenter 4.1 Update 1 running on Windows Server 2003 64-bit
D. VMware vCenter 5.0 running on Windows Server 2008 R2
Correct Answer: AD Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
What are three supported Database Servers for VMware View Composer in a VMware View 5 environment? (Choose three.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Express with vCenter Server 4.1 U1
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Express with vCenter Server 5.0
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 SP3 Standard with vCenter Server 5.0
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2008 R2 Express with vCenter 4.0 U3
E. Microsoft SQL Server 2008 R2 Express with vCenter Server 5.0 Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 5
What is the proper syntax to use when adding a domain user to the View Composer configuration?
A. DOMAIN\USER
B. DOMAIN.COM\USER
C. OU=DOMAIN, CN=USER
D. [email protected]
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
What are three required permissions that need to be assigned to the View Composer user account? (Choose three.)
A. Create User Accounts
B. Create Computer Objects
C. Delete Group Accounts
D. Delete Computer Objects
E. Write All Properties
Correct Answer: BDE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 7
Which two operating systems are supported for the View Connection Server? (Choose two.)
A. Windows Server 2003 R2 64-bit Standard or Enterprise
B. Windows Server 2003 R2 32-bit Standard or Enterprise
C. Windows Server 2008 R2 32-bit Standard or Enterprise
D. Windows Server 2008 R2 64-bit Standard or Enterprise
Correct Answer: BD Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which two ports must be opened in the firewall to enable communication between a Security Server and a Connection Server? (Choose two.)
A. 4001
B. 8443
C. 3389
D. 8009 Correct Answer: AD
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 9
Which two ports must be opened in the firewall to enable communication between a View Connection Server and the vCenter Server running View Composer? (Choose two.)
A. 18443
B. 443

C. 389
D. 4172
Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: 389 LDAP, 4172 PCoIP

QUESTION 10
Click the Exhibit button.

A proposed configuration of three replica servers is shown. What can result from this configuration?
A. Three replica servers can result in client connection problems.
B. Multiple connections to Active Directory can cause a performance problem.
C. Replication over WAN connections can cause inconsistencies in the LDAP database.
D. Multiple ADAM instances can cause a performance problem. Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
An administrator is preparing to install a View Connection Server 5.x for the first time.
Which two server prerequisites are required for a proper installation on Windows Server 2003? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a SSL certificate for use with the Connection Server.
B. Configure a static IP address on the server.
C. Configure a domain administrator account for installation.
D. Configure the firewall with the appropriate open ports. Correct Answer: BD
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Explanation:
Only on Win 2008 R2 the setup configures Firewall
SSL certificate is not required, setup will install a self signed

QUESTION 12
An Administrator is upgrading to View Connection Server 5.x from a previous release.
Which component is omitted from installation automatically during an upgrade?
A. VMware Message Bus Component
B. VMware Script Host
C. VMware PCoIP Secure Gateway
D. VMware VDMDS Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
What is the minimum required level of privileges required to install the View Connection Server?
A. Domain User
B. Domain Administrator
C. Local Power User
D. Local Administrator Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
An administrator is adding a replicated instance of View Connection Server to the environment silently. Which MSI property would be used to identify the instance being replicated?
A. ADAM_PRIMARY_INSTANCE
B. ADAM_PRIMARY_NAME
C. VDM_INSTANCE_NAME
D. VDM_SERVER_INSTANCE Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which two operating systems are supported for a View Transfer Server installation? (Choose two.)
A. Windows Server 2008 32-bit
B. Windows Server 2003 R2 SP2 32-bit
C. Windows Server 2003 SP2 64-bit
D. Windows Server 2008 R2 64-bit Correct Answer: BD
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
How many disks can a View Transfer Server concurrently transfer?
A. 15
B. 60
C. 4
D. 30 Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which TCP port must be open on the firewall of the View Transfer Server?
A. 443
B. 21
C. 389
D. 4172 Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
An administrator is creating a new virtual machine for use as a View Transfer Server. Which SCSI controller should be selected?
A. Buslogic Parallel
B. LSI Logic Parallel
C. LSI Logic SAS
D. VMware Paravirtual Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 19
Which three items must be configured prior to installing a View Security Server? (Choose three.)
A. Connection Server
B. Security Server External URL
C. Security Server Firewall Exceptions
D. Security Server Pairing Password
E. Security Server Static IP address
Correct Answer: ACD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
An administrator is installing a View Security Server on a Windows Server 2003 R2 system. Which three Windows Firewall ports must be pre-configured prior to installation to enable remote access? (Choose three.)
A. 443
B. 3389

C. 4001
D. 4172
E. 8009
Correct Answer: ABD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Change from B/D to C/E b’c if you install a security server at least port 443 must be open from untrusted to the security server and from the DMZ to internal ports 4001 and 8009 RDP (3389) don’t have to be opened, this is tunneled via 443

QUESTION 21
An administrator has installed the View Security Server and needs to verify all the services have started
after the installation is complete.
Which three services should be started? (Choose three.)

A. VMware Message Bus Component
B. VMware View Framework Component
C. VMware View Security Gateway Component
D. VMware View Security Script
E. VMware View Security Server
Correct Answer: BCE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 22
An administrator would like to add a View Security Server to add external access to the environment. Which View component must be installed and configured prior to installation of the View Security Server?
A. View Agent Server
B. View Connection Server
C. View Replica Server
D. View Transfer Server
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
Which attribute is required when configuring a View Security Server Pairing Password?
A. Password complexity value
B. Password expiration value
C. Password length value
D. Password timeout value
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 24
During an installation of Security Server, a message displays that the pairing password has expired.
Where must a new password be configured?
A. View Connection Server
B. Active Directory
C. View Administrator
D. View Security Server Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 25
What is the minimum amount of memory required in order to install View Security Server on Windows Server 2003?
A. 1GB
B. 4GB
C. 2GB
D. 8GB
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 26
An organization has a View Connection Server in DomainA. Users in DomainB need to access desktops on the existing connection server in DomainA.
What must the system administrator do in Active Directory to enable users from DomainB to access desktops in DomainA?
A. set up a Security Server to proxy the connection to DomainB
B. check the multidomain authentication box in the View Manager Server Settings
C. set up a one-way trust relationship from DomainB to DomainA
D. set up a two-way trust relationship between DomainA and DomainB
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
An organization requires a higher level of security for desktops that cannot be achieved with passwords alone. A certificate has been procured from a Certificate Authority, and smart cards have been purchased for the users.
Which three tasks must the desktop administrator perform to prepare Active Directory (AD)? (Choose three.)
A. add the user principal names to the Trusted Root Certification Authorities group
B. add the root certificate to the Enterprise NTAuth store in AD
C. add the root certificate to the Trusted Root Hierarchy in AD
D. add user principal names to the AD accounts of users
E. add the root certificate to the Trusted Root Certification Authorities group policy in AD
Correct Answer: BDE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 28
An administrator creates a View Composer linked clone pool of Windows XP Desktops, and the operation fails to finish customizing the desktops. The error log below provides more detail.
2010-09-21 12:46:04,281 [836] INFO Guest – [Guest.cpp, 248] Attempting to join Test1 to the domain vmw-dc.local
f3 2010-09-21 12:46:04,562 [836] FATAL Guest – [Guest.cpp, 261] Domain join faileD. 1265 f3 2010-09-21 12:46:04,718 [836] FATAL CSvmGaService – [svmGaService.cpp, 116] Domain join failedError 1265 (0x4f1): The system detected a possible attempt to compromise security. Please ensure that you can contact the server that authenticated you.
What is the cause of the error?
A. Active Directory encryption levels
B. Active Directory group policy
C. Active Directory permissions
D. Active Directory root certificate
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 29
The domain administrator account permissions are limited to one user in an organization. An account for View Composer is needed with the proper permissions. The user needs Write All Properties, Create Computer Objects, and Delete Computer Objects. Which three additional permissions are required? (Choose three.)
A. Delete Contents
B. Read Permissions
C. Create All Properties
D. List Contents
E. Read All Properties
Correct Answer: BDE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Flydumps.com VMware VCP510-DT study guides are patterned into Questions and Answers pdf format and test engine and it will sharpen your skills and expand your knowledge to obtain a definite success. Everything you need to prepare and quickly pass the VMware https://www.pass4itsure.com/vcp510-dt.html certification exams the first time, VMware VCP510-DT can be found in Flydumps.com study guides.

OMG UM0-200 Exam Download, Best Quality OMG UM0-200 Preparation Materials With Low Price

Posted by on

OMG UM0-200 exam will get as a single OMG UM0-200 PDF or complete OMG UM0-200 testing engine as well as over 1000 other technical exam PDF and exam engine downloads. Tired of choosing OMG UM0-200 Configuration and Maintenance Exam material for preparing your OMG https://www.pass4itsure.com/um0-200.html exam, just come to Flydumps OMG UM0-200 exam sample questions page for all the real Q&As. Flydumps Cisco experts and specialists have created 84 real OMG UM0-200 exam Q&As for your learning. More, with our customers’ feedback, we have helped many candidates pass OMG UM0-200 exam easily.

QUESTION 1

In the exhibit, if the incoming arrows provide three control values, how many control
values are provided to the outgoing arrow?
Exhibit:
A. none
B. one
C. two
D. three
Answer: B
QUESTION 2
What does via foo in the exhibit designate?
Exhibit:
A. the sending of a foo message on the transition
B. transient pseudostate named foo
C. a transition terminating on the foo entry point
D. a Boolean guard equal to the logical value of foo
E. an action foo associated with the transition
Answer: C QUESTION 3 Assume component A provides an interface P and requires an interface R. In order for a component B to be substituted for component A, what must be true?

A. The interface that B requires must be type conformant with respect to the interface that A provides.
B. The interface that B requires must be type conformant with respect to the interface that A requires, and the interface that B provides must be type conformant with respect to the interface that A provides.
C. The interface that A requires must be type conformant with respect to the interface that B provides.
D. Components must be related to each other via a dependency.
Answer: B
QUESTION 4
What symbol depicts a CallBehaviorAction?
Exhibit:
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
Answer: E
QUESTION 5
What situation results from performing a CreateObjectAction on an abstract class?

A. undefined behavior
B. arbitrary object of one of its subclasses being created
C. exception being raised
D. error log entry being created
E. object of the specified class being created
Answer: A
QUESTION 6
What is NOT true about a roles and role bindings?
A. A role binding is an association.
B. A role binding maps a connectable element to a role in a collaboration occurrence.
C. The same object may play roles in multiple collaborations.
D. A role typed by an interface specifies a set of features required by a participant in a collaboration.
E. The same connectable element may be bound to multiple roles in a single collaboration occurrence.
Answer: A
QUESTION 7 What is implied when a transition terminates on the outer border of a composite state that has an initial and a history pseudostate?
A. The outgoing transition from the final pseudostate is taken.
B. The state is not entered.
C. The outgoing transition from the initial pseudostate is taken.
D. The outgoing transition from the history pseudostate is taken.
Answer: C
QUESTION 8
What stereotype notation is NOT correct?
Exhibit:
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: D.
QUESTION 9
In a state machine, what is true for a “do” activity of a state?

A. starts executing when the state is entered
B. specifies a condition that must always be true when the state is active
C. can only appear in a composite state
D. executes repeatedly as long as the state is active
E. is equivalent to an entry action of a state Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What is the notation for gates?

A. circular disc at the interaction frame
B. small arrow either into or out from the fragment frame
C. point on the fragment frame with an optional name
D. small rectangle on the fragment frame with associated name
Answer: C
QUESTION 11
What represents the deployment target of a deployed artifact?

A. the location of the deployed artifact
B. a shared aggregation relationship
C. a node instance, but never a property instance
D. the deployed artifact’s output data stream
Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Which is true of a provided interface associated with a port?

A. identifies the services that the object owning the port expects of objects connected via that port
B. represents an interface that must be defined within the classifier that owns the port
C. represents an interface that must be defined in the same package in which the classifier owning the port is defined
D. identifies the services that the object owning the port can offer to other objects connected via that port
Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Which list contains only connectable elements?

A. behavior, connector end, and port
B. behavior, port and property
C. port and connector end
D. connector end, port and part
E. property, port, and parameter
Answer: E

QUESTION 14
What situation results from performing a CreateObjectAction on an abstract class?

A. arbitrary object of one of its subclasses being created
B. object of the specified class being created
C. undefined behavior
D. error log entry being created
E. exception being raised
Answer: C
QUESTION 15
What most accurately describes the semantics modeled by the exhibit?
Exhibit:
A. HeaderGenerator and LineItemGenerator are Invoicer ports.
B. An Invoicer component is composed of a HeaderGenerator component and a LineItemGenerator component.
C. HeaderGenerator and LineItemGenerator realize Invoicer.
D. Invoicer realizes HeaderGenerator and LineItemGenerator.
Answer: C
QUESTION 16
Where is an interaction constraint placed?

A. either on the top of an operand or at the bottom of an operand
B. always at the top of an interaction
C. above the first event within an interaction operand
D. directly outside the combined fragment
Answer: C
QUESTION 17
What does a run-to-completion processing for state machines mean?
A. No other event will be processed until the current event is fully processed.
B. The thread executing the state machine cannot be pre-empted by the scheduler.
C. The executions of orthogonal regions are serialized.
D. Interrupts are disabled while the state machine is running.
Answer: A
QUESTION 18
What situation results from an ApplyFunctionAction?

A. reads objects and produces output values
B. produces output values
C. writes objects and produces output values
D. reads objects, write objects, and produces output values
E. performs any set of UML actions
Answer: B

A. r can be sent whenever p has been sent.
B. Whenever q and p have been sent, r can be sent.
C. There are legal traces according to Mcritical where r is absent.
D. The reception of p must precede sending of r.
Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Assume that !p means sending message p and ?p receiving it. In the exhibit, what is true
about Mneg?
Exhibit:
A. <!p, !q, ?p, ?q> is an invalid trace according to Mneg.
B. Neither p nor q should be sent between a and b.
C. p and q should not be sent concurrently from a to b.
D. <!p, ?q, ?p, !q> is an invalid trace according to Mneg.
Answer: A
QUESTION 21
What is true of a completion transition?

A. is executed when the state machine is terminated
B. is only triggered by a completion event
C. has no trigger defined
D. is executed when the final state is reached
Answer: B
QUESTION 22
What is the meaning of a required extension?

A. An instance of the extending stereotype must always be linked to an instance of the extended metaclass.
B. This extension has a higher priority than the other defined in the same profile.
C. An instance of the extending stereotype must never be linked to an instance of the extended metaclass.

D. The extension must be applied at least once in a model. Answer: A
QUESTION 23
What most accurately describes the semantics modeled by the exhibit?
Exhibit:
A. HeaderGenerator and LineItemGenerator realize Invoicer.
B. An Invoicer component is composed of a HeaderGenerator component and a LineItemGenerator component.
C. Invoicer realizes HeaderGenerator and LineItemGenerator.
D. HeaderGenerator and LineItemGenerator are Invoicer ports.
Answer: A
QUESTION 24
What is true about a pseudostate?

A. a state that can be specialized for different purposes
B. a state entry or exit point
C. a specification of a potential state
D. not a state but a vertex
Answer: D
QUESTION 25
A protocol state machine can be used to describe which aspect of a component?

A. internals of a component
B. signal flow among connectors
C. external contract of a component
D. configuration of an assembly
Answer: C

QUESTION 26
What is NOT a valid VariableAction?

A. RemoveVariableValueAction
B. AddVariableValueAction
C. ClearVariableAction
D. ReadVariableAction
E. SetVariableAction
Answer: E

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: C
A. either two p messages or two q messages
B. either p followed by q or q followed by p
C. only a p message followed by a q message
D. any combination of two p messages and two q messages
Answer: B

A. The OrderEntity component is part of the internals of the Invoicer component.
B. The Invoicer has a complex connector that connects the GenerateInvoice interface with the Order interface.
C. This is an illegal diagram.
D. The Invoicer has a complex port that provides the interface GenerateInvoice and requires the interface Order.

Answer: D

A. A
B. B
C. C

D. D
E. E
F. F
G. G
Answer: A.D.E

Get yourself composed for Microsoft actual exam and upgrade your skills with Flydumps OMG UM0-200 practice test products. Once you have practiced through our assessment material, familiarity on OMG https://www.pass4itsure.com/um0-200.html exam domains get a significant boost. Flydumps.com practice tests enable you to raise your performance level and assure the guaranteed success for OMG UM0-200 exam.

OMG UM0-100 Exam, 100% Pass Rate OMG UM0-100 Vce & PDF With Low Price

Posted by on

Easiest way to get OMG UM0-100 certification is to log on to the OMG UM0-100 FLYDUMPS and purchase the OMG UM0-100 exam sample questions to do OMG UM0-100 exam questions and answers to obtain your OMG UM0-100 Information Security certification. FLYDUMPS GIAC Information Security OMG UM0-100 Exam is paired with OMG UM0-100 for use on simulator. To help with these preparations there are plenty of FLYDUMPS OMG UM0-100 exam sample questions available on the Internet that can dispel all these fears and nervousness. These OMG UM0-100 Information Security OMG https://www.pass4itsure.com/um0-100.html Exam Questions range from the official GIAC Certification Training courses and official OMG UM0-100 Certification Self Study Training Guides from HP HP2-Z31 Press, to the FLYDUMPS OMG UM0-100 exam sample questions.

QUESTION 1:
What does an association specify?
A. links between associated types
B. relationship among models
C. tuples that are not links
D. links between instances of untyped classes
E. links between instances of associated types
Answer: E

QUESTION 2:
What is true of an interaction?
A. An interaction always contains states and transitions.
B. An interaction can be used as types for ports.
C. An interaction is defined by a use case.
D. The semantics of an interaction are defined by event traces. Answer: D

QUESTION 3:
What can be captured by use cases? (Choose two)
A. changes in state over time of the system
B. data and control flow of the system
C. user-interface specification of the system
D. requirements of the system
E. behaviors offered by the system
Answer: D,E

QUESTION 4:
What does the symbol in the exhibit represent in UML 2.0 activity diagrams?
A. control node
B. behavior
C. state
D. object node
E. activity
F. action
Answer: D
QUESTION 5:
Let us denote sending of p as !p and receiving p as ?p. Which trace defines the interaction N in the exhibit?

A. <!q, !p, ?p, ?q>
B. <!p, ?p, !q, ?q>
C. <!p, !q, ?q, ?p>
D. <!p, ?q, !q, ?p>
Answer: C
QUESTION 6:
What constraint applies to a stop in a UML interaction diagram?
A. No other event occurrences may appear below a stop on a given lifeline in a simple interaction.

B. If there is a stop on one lifeline, there should be stops on all other lifelines within an interaction.
C. Only one stop may occur in one interaction.
D. If one lifeline has a stop in one interaction, it should have stops in every interaction that it appears.
Answer: A
QUESTION 7:
Which arrowhead shows that the message represents an operation call, rather than a signal, in UML 2.0?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: A
QUESTION 8:
When a customer uses a service to order books, the service contacts a commercial credit card validation service, an address verification service, and an internal client database. Assuming the Order Books process is modeled as one use case at the system level, which actors would there be?
A. Customer, Client Database
B. Customer, Credit Card Validation Service, Address Verification Service, Client Database
C. Customer, Credit Card Validation Service
D. Customer
E. Customer, Credit Card Validation Service, Address Verification Service Answer: E

QUESTION 9:
Which element in the exhibit denote a lifeline?

A. b:C2
B. C1
C. q
D. p
E. M
Answer: A
QUESTION 10:
How many of the arrows in the exhibit must provide values before the round-cornered rectangle can start?

A. one
B. two
C. three
D. none

Answer: C
QUESTION 11:
Ten employees in a department can submit an expense form to have their expenses repaid. The manager is required to approve the expense forms. How many actors have we described?
A. 2 actors
B. 10 actors
C. 0 actors
D. 12 actors
E. 1 actor
F. 11 actors
Answer: A
QUESTION 12:
What is a selector of a lifeline?
A. a specific lifeline that selects a resource from a resource pool
B. a scheduler that chooses the next lifeline on which to run
C. an expression selecting one out of a set; a general indexing mechanism
D. a construct to select one lifeline out of all the lifelines in the diagram Answer: C
QUESTION 13:
What does the symbol in the exhibit represent inside UML 2.0 activity diagrams?

A. behavior
B. state
C. action
D. activity
E. object node
Answer: C

QUESTION 14:
What is true about every named element that is a member of a namespace?
A. It can be distinguished from other members in the namespace.
B. It is identified by its name within the namespace.
C. It is owned by the namespace.
D. It has one unique name within the namespace. Answer: A
QUESTION 15:
What are some of the important semantics of packages? (Choose three) A.
The public contents of a package are accessible outside the package.
B. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are removed.
C. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are reassigned.
D. An element may be owned by at most one package.
E. The public contents of a package are not accessible outside the package.
F. A class may be owned by multiple packages.
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION 16:
What is true about constraints in UML 2.0? (Choose two)
A. can be applied to themselves
B. cannot be named
C. must be true to be satisfied
D. can result in any number of possibilities
E. can be named
Answer: C,E
QUESTION 17:
What about event order is true for simple interactions? (Choose two)
A. Events are ordered from top to bottom of a lifeline in a simple sequence diagram.
B. Events are ordered from top to bottom in a sequence diagram.
C. The start event of an execution occurrence will coincide in time with the event representing the call of that operation.
D. The send event of a complete message comes before the receive event of the same message.

E. When messages represent operation calls, their sending and receiving events coincide in time.
Answer: A,D
QUESTION 18:
There is an element identified as r in the exhibit. What does this element describe in a UML 2.0 interaction diagram?

A. found message, found by b
B. lost message originating from b
C. timing signal from b
D. synchronous message to the environment of R E. asynchronous message to the environment of R
Answer: E
QUESTION 19:
What shapes normally represent a use case? (Choose three)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
F. F
Answer: A.D.E
QUESTION 20:
What statements are true about interfaces? (Choose two)
A. A classifier may realize only one interface, but an interface may be realized by multiple classifiers.
B. A classifier may realize more than one interface, but an interface may be realized by only one classifier.
C. Interfaces are not directly instantiable.
D. A classifier may realize more than one interface, and an interface may be realized by different classifiers.
E. Interfaces are directly instantiable.
Answer: C,D
QUESTION 21:
What statements are true of the <<permit>> dependency in the exhibit? (Choose two)

A. X can access only the quux property of W.
B. X can access the baz and quux properties of W.
C. W can access the foo and bar properties of X.
D. W can access only the bar property of X.
E. X can access only the baz property of W.
F. W can access only the foo property of X.
Answer: B,D
QUESTION 22:
Which kind of behavior diagram is NOT a UML 2.0 diagram?
A. communication diagram
B. activity diagram
C. dataflow diagram
D. interaction diagram
E. sequence diagram
Answer: C
QUESTION 23:
Which multiplicity expressions are valid? (Choose three)
A. 1
B. -3..3
C. 0,,*
D. 1..0
E. 2..20
F. *
Answer: A,E,F

QUESTION 24:
In the exhibit, what is the meaning of the {unique} designator?
A. instances of Account are unique
B. each customer’s account is not an account of another customer
C. each of the customer’s accounts are distinct
D. only one account is associated with a customer
E. multiplicity cannot be multivalued
Answer: C
QUESTION 25:
Which statement is true of signals? (Choose two)
A. are handled in a manner determined by the sender
B. are handled in a manner determined by the stimulus

C. are handled in a manner determined by the receiver
D. are synchronous stimuli
E. are asynchronous stimuli
Answer: C,E

Flydumps.com never believes in second chances and hence bring you the best OMG https://www.pass4itsure.com/um0-100.html exam preparation materials which will make you pass in the first attempt. Flydumps.com experts have complied the fail OMG UM0-100 exam content to help you pass your OMG UM0-100 certification exam in the first attempt and score the top possible grades too.

VMware VCP-410 Exam, Sale Latest Release VMware VCP-410 Vce Dumps With The Knowledge And Skills

Posted by on

With Flydumps 100% guarantee, you can be assured that you will pass your VMware VCP-410 Exam. You will not be able to stay away from purchasing the ultimate VMware VCP-410. With authentic VMware VCP-410 exam sample questions make taking your new skills out of the Cisco exam classroom and into the work force increasing your value to employers everywhere.Flydumps VMware https://www.pass4itsure.com/vcp-410.html exam sample questions are backed by our 100% pass guarantee. You will definitely train faster and pass your Flydumps VMware VCP-410 exam sample questions, we guarantee it. VMware VCP-410 is indeed hot those types of Cisco examinees. What exactly things, Flydumps VMware VCP-410 exam sample questions are the right time as well as in the suitable route towards judgment.

QUESTION NO: 1
An administrator is configuring a VMware HA Cluster for three hosts and their resident VMs. The HA cluster will be configured to support a single host failure and resource reservations must be enforced during a failover event. Assuming default settings, how does HA determine the failover capacity determined?
A. Using an average of the total CPU Reservation and Memory Reservation values of all virtual machines in the cluster
B. Using the highest CPU Reservation and the Available Memory values for any given virtual machine in the cluster
C. Using an average of the total CPU Reservation and Available Memory values of all virtual machines in the cluster
D. Using the highest CPU Reservation and Memory Reservation values of any given virtual machine in the cluster
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 2
vCenter Server is running within a virtual machine (VM) that is part of a VMware HA and DRS cluster. The vCenter Server VM can migrate between all hosts in the cluster by using VMotion. DRS is configured for partial automation.
What happens if the ESX host that is currently running the vCenter Server VM experiences a power outage?
A. VMware HA will restart the vCenter Server VM on another host
B. This situation cannot occur because vCenter Server cannot be installed on a VMware HA cluster
C. vCenter Server will remain offline, but all virtual machines on the remaining hosts will continue without interruption
D. All DRS cluster operations will be unavailable until the failed ESX Host is brought back online Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3
The maximum number of failover hosts in a VMware HA cluster is:

A. 32
B. 16
C. 8
D. 4
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following is the technology used by VMware Fault Tolerance?
A. VMware vCluster
B. VMware vLockstep
C. VMware vShield
D. VMware vmSafe
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 5
When adjusting the slider to allocate resources for a Virtual Machine, the yellow indicator on the resource bar indicates:
A. a limit has been imposed by the Resource Pool or the ESX Host where the VM is running
B. the current configured limit value, if one exists
C. the maximum resources that can be reserved for the virtual machine
D. the current configured reservation value, if one exists Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 6
In the vSphere Client the Virtual Machine Resource Allocation tab shows Host Memory and Guest Memory. What is the meaning of these terms? (Choose Two):
A. Guest Memory is amount of physical memory that has been allocated to a Virtual Machine
B. Guest Memory is the actual memory usage of the Virtual Machine
C. Host memory is the amount of physical memory that has been allocated to a Virtual Machine
D. Host memory is the actual memory usage of the Virtual Machine.
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 7
A developer wishes to disable logging for a number of virtual machines used for testing purposes, in order to maximize available datastore space. The virtual machines reside on an ESX Host managed by vCenter Server. Which of the following methods can be used to disable virtual machine logging?
A. From the Configuration tab for the ESX Host running the virtual machines, choose Advanced Settings. Set the Disable Logging parameter to Yes
B. Edit the settings for each virtual machine. Under Options > Advanced > General, uncheck Enable Logging
C. Manually edit each virtual machines .vmx file and set logging=false
D. Connect a vSphere Client to vCenter Server. Under the Administration drop-down, check Disable Virtual Machine Logging
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 7
When creating an MSCS Cluster across 2 ESX 4 Hosts, what type of Virtual Disks can be used?
A. Raw Device Mapped (RDM) disks in Physical Compatibility Mode only
B. Raw Device Mapped (RDM) disks in Virtual Compatibility Mode only
C. Raw Device Mapped (RDM) disks in Physical or Virtual Compatibility Mode, or virtual disks on a shared VMFS datastore
D. Raw Device Mapped (RDM) disks in Physical or Virtual Compatibility Mode
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 8
You have a newly set up 2 node cluster with HA and DRS enabled and DRS is in fully automated mode. Following best practices guidelines, you have set up the connection types on separate physical networks. While testing DRS, you notice no virtual machines are moving from one ESX host to the other despite great disparity in resource utilization between the ESX hosts. The image shows the error and the network configuration for one of the hosts.
What should you do to fix this problem?
A. Enable the VMkernel port for vMotion.
B. Disable HA for this cluster.
C. Change the IP address to a valid address on the VMkernel network.
D. Change the vSwitch connection to the Service Console network interface.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 9
A new LUN has been presented to two ESX Servers, ESXA and ESXB. The LUN can be seen from both servers. A new VMFS-3 volume is created on the LUN using a vSphere Client attached to ESX Server B. The new datastore is visible on ESX Server B, but not on ESX Server A. What steps must be taken to make the datastore visible to ESX Server A?
A. Perform a Rescan operation on ESX Server B
B. Modify LUN masking settings on the storage array
C. Reboot ESX Server A
D. Perform a Rescan operation on ESX Server A
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 10
(Click the Exhibit button)

Users are having difficulty accessing a web server since a new web application was configured to run on sc-titanium03.vmeduc.com. The vSphere client reports the error shown in the exhibit. DRS is set to fully automated mode, but the problem has not resolved.
Which of the following actions could be taken to resolve the issue?
A. Power down one or more virtual machines on the ESX Host running the web server virtual machine and migrate them to the other ESX Host in the cluster.
B. Migrate one or more running virtual machines on the ESX Host running the web server virtual machine to the other ESX Host in the cluster.
C. Add another ESX Host to the cluster.
D. Hot add another CPU to the web server virtual machine.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 11
During peak operating hours, an Administrator finds that a business critical application is not performing as well as during normal hours. Which of the following memory management methods could be used to guarantee the application performs well at all times?
A. Set a Reservation equal to the Average Memory utilization of the virtual machine running the application
B. Set the Share level to High for the virtual machine running the application and set all other virtual machines to Low
C. Set a Limit equal to the Peak Memory utilization of the virtual machine running the application
D. Set a Reservation equal to the Configured Memory of the virtual machine running the application
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 12
What is a function of the vmmemctl driver?
A. reclaims unused memory from the guest OS
B. allows the operation of unsupported guest OS types
C. enables transparent page sharing
D. enables swapping of the virtual machines
Answer: A

VMware VCP-410 Questions and Answers Products basically comprise of the simulated VMware https://www.pass4itsure.com/vcp-410.html exam questions AND their most correct answers,accompanied with a methodical elucidation of the VMware VCP-410 exam answers and the probable wrong answers.The extent to which VMware VCP-410 exam Questions and Answers Products cover their Cisco subject is so thorough,that once you are done with a Cisco product,passing the VMware VCP-410 exam in first attempt should be a piece of cake.

VMware VCAD510 PDF Dumps, Pass the VMware VCAD510 Certification UP To 50% Off

Posted by on

At VMware VCAD510 exam sample questions Flydumps, VMware VCAD510 page all the necessary VMware VCAD510 exam guide is available which not only includes free VMware VCAD510 but it also contains VMware VCAD510 study guide and VMware https://www.pass4itsure.com/vcad510.html practice exam. As a part of our online VMware VCAD510 exam sample questions, we offer the latest VMware VCAD510 study materials and a good range of VMware VCAD510 answers. Most of our VMware VCAD510 exam sample questions for your VMware VCAD510 exam is exclusively prepared by the best brains and highly skilled professionals from the IT domain to ensure 100% pass percentage in your VMware VCAD510 Exam.

QUESTION 1
You work for a convenience store chain that has a full data center including shared storage and many small stores. You want to make sure that data in the stores gets copied to the main data center. Which solution will meet these requirements?
A. Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS)
B. Storage DRS
C. vSphere Replication (VR)
D. VSA

Correct Answer: C
Reference: http://searchvirtualstorage.techtarget.com/definition/vSphere-Replication

QUESTION 2
Which VMware product allows for non-disruptive disaster recovery testing?
A. vCenter Operations Manager
B. vSphere Replication
C. Site Recovery Manager
D. vCenter Configuration Manager

Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.vmware.com/products/site-recovery-manager/

QUESTION 3
Your manager wants to know how virtual machines are going to benefit the organization. What two statements accurately explain what virtual machines do? (Choose two.)
A. Allow users to recover deleted files themselves.
B. Reduce your application licensing costs.
C. Provide higher up time than physical servers.
D. Reduce the number of physical servers.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 4
You are the VMware administrator for your local hospital. A fellow administrator has asked what role a datastore plays in the environment. Which of the following is a good definition of a datastore?
A. A datastore is used by the hypervisor to swap local memory content if needed
B. A datastore is used as the destination for the core dump file
C. A datastore is used by the hypervisor to store logs and performance data
D. A datastore is where virtual machine’s files are stored
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 5
You are considering using virtual machines for your new corporate email servers. You are giving examples to your manager of the benefits this will provide. Which two examples are true? (Choose two.)
A. Virtual machines can be reverted to prior states to make recovery from accidents simpler.
B. Virtual machines perform faster than physical machines using the same hardware.
C. Virtual machines allow you to add components such as network cards and hard disks while the VM is running.
D. Virtual machines automatically increase and decrease their allocated memory while running.

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 6
You are explaining to your manager the different types of storage devices supported in vSphere. You explain that some devices are block-based, while others are file-based. Which of the following is a file-based storage type?
A. NFS
B. Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)
C. Fibre Channel
D. iSCSI

Correct Answer: A
Reference: http://searchstorage.techtarget.com/magazineContent/Block-vs-file-storage-to-support- virtual-server-environments
QUESTION 7
You work in a highly regulated, secure environment. You have been tasked with finding a solution that will analyze the environment and report on any changes in the environment to ensure you meet the compliance requirements in your industry. Which VMware product can help to provide this solution?
A. vCenter Operations Manager
B. vCenter Change Management
C. vCenter Configuration Manager
D. vCloud Director

Correct Answer: C
Reference: http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/VMware_vCenter_Configuration_Manager_Datasheet__English.pdf
QUESTION 8
Which vSphere feature allows for more efficient storage usage?
A. Snapshots
B. Fast Provisioning
C. Thin Provisioning
D. Storage vMotion

Correct Answer: C
Reference: http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/Storage-with-VMware-vSphere.pdf
QUESTION 9
Your manager asks you: “What is the relationship between vMotion and VMware’s High Availability (HA) feature?” What do you tell him?
A. vMotion uses VMware’s High Availability (HA) feature to move the VMs while they are running.
B. VMware’s High Availability (HA) feature uses vMotion to move the VMs after a failure.
C. There is no interdependency between these two features.
D. Either feature only functions if the VMs are powered off.

Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://communities.vmware.com/thread/405330?start=0&tstart=0
QUESTION 10
What is a scalability challenge that vSphere can address?
A. Change management processes are simplified
B. Automatic balancing of virtual machines after adding new physical servers
C. Easier disaster recovery processes
D. Users have self-service provisioning of virtual machine workloads

Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/techpaper/Whats-New-VMware-vSphere-51-Platform- (page 12)Technical-Whitepaper.pdf
QUESTION 11
You have a vSphere cluster managed by vCenter. One of the VMs is running a critical application that is very sensitive to unplanned or sudden reboots. You wish to protect this VM from potential data loss. Which of the following features will help you?
A. vSphere Replication
B. Fault Tolerance (FT)
C. High Availability (HA)
D. vMotion
Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://en.community.dell.com/techcenter/virtualization/w/wiki/vmware-vsphere-fault-tolerance.aspx
QUESTION 12
You manage a cluster of ESXi hosts using vCenter Server. You notice that some ESXi hosts are more heavily burdened than others. Which feature of vCenter server will potentially help automate the load balancing of the ESXi hosts?
A. Fault Tolerance
B. Distributed Power Management
C. Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS)
D. High Availability

Correct Answer: C
Reference: http://www.vmware.com/support/vsphere5/doc/vsp_vc50_u2_rel_notes.html (search for DRS)
QUESTION 13
You are a consultant and your newest client is concerned about the visibility of performance and capacity related information to help them manage their new VMware environment more efficiently. Which of the following will enable them to be proactive in their monitoring?
A. Scheduled PowerShell scripts to gather performance data
B. vCenter Operations Manager (vC OPS)
C. vCenter advanced performance charts
D. vCenter Site Recovery Manager

Correct Answer: C
Reference: http://www.epubbud.com/read.php?g=8MVD69ZN&tocp=25
QUESTION 14
You have a VMware environment and you have noticed that the storage capacity of your datastores varies widely. You would like to maximize the storage environment by balancing the space utilization across each of the datastores. Which of the following is a viable solution?
A. Storage I/O Control
B. vSphere APIs for Array Integration (VAAI)
C. vSphere APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA)
D. Storage Distributed Resource Scheduler (SDRS)
Correct Answer: D
Reference: http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/vmw-vsphr-5-1-stor-drs-uslet-101-web.pdf (page 5, first para)
QUESTION 15
What does virtualization do?
A. Converts hardware into software
B. Converts software into hardware
C. Causes your servers to consume less power
D. Causes your servers to run lighter workloads
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16

You are considering moving from an environment in which each physical server hosts a single application, and each application is backed up on a specified timeframe. The proposed environment will consist of virtual machines that perform the role of their physical counterparts. Your manager is trying to determine the best way to backup these applications once the project is complete. Which technology provides a backup solution for virtual machines?
A. Distributed Power Management (DPM)
B. high Availability (HA)
C. vCenter
D. vSphere Data Protection (vDP)

Correct Answer: D
Reference: http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/techpaper/Introduction-to-Data-Protection.pdf
QUESTION 17
Which vSphere feature allows for rapid provisioning of virtual machines?
A. Distributed Resource Scheduler
B. vNetwork Distributed Switches
C. Thin Provisioning
D. Templates

Correct Answer: D
Reference: http://globalsp.ts.fujitsu.com/dmsp/Publications/public/ds-vSphere-essentials-ess-plus.pdf (page 2, see vmware vcenter server for essentials)
QUESTION 18
Your management has asked you to project your anticipated virtual machine storage needs over the next 18 months. Which technology would help provide the required information?
A. vCenter Site Recovery Manager
B. vCenter Operations Manager
C. vCenter Update Manager
D. vCenter Configuration Manager
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
What is an availability challenge that vSphere can address?
A. Virtual machines can be proactively migrated when a server failure is imminent
B. Hardware maintenance can be performed at any time without application impact
C. More servers can be deployed to provide higher availability
D. Disaster recovery is greatly simplified
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 20
What are two benefits of datacenter virtualization? (Choose two.)
A. Less data to back up
B. Less CPU power required for a given application
C. More efficient use of resources
D. Same hardware footprint for every machine

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 21
Which VMware product allows for the shared use of local storage?
A. vSphere Replication
B. Site Recovery Manager
C. vSphere Storage Appliance
D. Storage vMotion

Correct Answer: C
Reference: http://www.vmware.com/products/vsphere-storage-appliance/features.html
QUESTION 22
Your company is planning to migrate your datacenter to a new location, but they wish to minimize downtime during the transition. You are entirely virtualized at your primary datacenter, and have been given funding to acquire new hardware for the new datacenter. Which of the following products can help you migrate the VMs to the new datacenter?
A. vCenter Operations Manager
B. vCenter Configuration Manager
C. vCenter Site Recovery Manager
D. vCenter Converter
Correct Answer: C
http://www.vmware.com/products/site-recovery-manager/
QUESTION 23
What is a feature of vSphere?
A. Distributed Power Management
B. Distributed Resource Management
C. Distributed Power Scheduler
D. Distributed Resource Protection
Correct Answer: A
Reference: http://www.vmware.com/products/vsphere/features-drs-dpm
QUESTION 24
Which vSphere feature allows hardware maintenance to be performed at any time without impacting application availability?
A. CPU Hotplug
B. Enhanced vMotion Compatibility
C. vMotion
D. Cold migrations

Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/vmotion_info_guide.pdf (page 6, enhanced vmotion compatibility)
QUESTION 25
What is a virtual switch used to do? (Choose two.)
A. Replace physical switches to save money.
B. Connect VMs to the physical network.
C. Connect the ESXi OS to the physical network.
D. Connect to Fibre Channel storage.

Correct Answer: AB
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-55/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vcli.examples.doc % 2Fcli_manage_networks.11.2.html
QUESTION 26
Which of the following features is a benefit of shared storage within a VMware environment?
A. Allows storage to be deployed from a single vendor
B. Provides the ability to backup data more efficiently
C. Provides the ability to view the disk I/O more efficiently
D. Allows for the deployment of DRS and HA clusters

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Your organization has a cluster of ESXi hosts that all have local storage devices, including Solid State Drives. You wish to take advantage of this storage for your VMs, but you don’t want to sacrifice the vSphere abilities granted by having shared storage. Which of the following is an appropriate solution?
A. Use Storage DRS to create a cluster of the local datastores
B. Use Storage vMotion to move the VMs to local datastores
C. Implement Storage I/O Control on the local datastores
D. vSphere Storage Appliance (VSA)
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 28
What is a feature of vSphere?
A. vSphere Availability Protection
B. vSphere Data Scheduler
C. vSphere Data Protection
D. vSphere Resource Protection

Correct Answer: C
Reference: http://www.vmware.com/products/vsphere-data-protection-advanced/
QUESTION 29
Your manager comes and asks you how the VMs will be able to connect to the outside world. You explain that there are two ways to connect to the network in vSphere. Which two options can be used for this purpose? (Choose two.)
A. Distributed Switch
B. Standard Switch
C. Virtual router
D. Enhanced Switch

Correct Answer: AB
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-55/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vcli.examples.doc % 2Fcli_manage_networks.11.2.html
QUESTION 30
You are discussing virtual networking with a colleague. She asks you which type of virtual switch supports the advanced networking option called Port Mirroring. Which of the following is the correct answer?
A. Extended virtual switch
B. Distributed virtual switch
C. Standard virtual switch
D. Enterprise virtual switch
Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://blogs.vmware.com/vsphere/2011/08/vsphere-5-new-networking-features-port-mirroring.html
QUESTION 31
You are a consultant and you have been contacted to assist in the planning for a new VMware environment. The client is concerned about the complete loss of a datacenter and the loss of production time. What option can you offer them to help resolve their concerns?
A. vSphere Replication
B. High Availability (HA)
C. vSphere Data protection (vDP)
D. Site Recovery Manager Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.vmware.com/products/site-recovery-manager/
QUESTION 32
Which vSphere feature is used to help achieve greater uptime SLAs?
A. Storage vMotion
B. Distributed Resource Scheduler
C. High Availability
D. Site Recovery Manager

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
Which VMware product will help identify mis-sized virtual machines?
A. vCenter Service Manager
B. vCloud Director
C. vCenter Configuration Manager
D. vCenter Operations Manager

Correct Answer: D
Reference: http://www.globalknowledge.ie/content/files/documents/white-papers/virtualisation/vcenter-(page 2, What is it?) ops-manager-what-it-is-and-why-you-should-us-it.pdf
QUESTION 34
You are explaining virtualization to your manager when he asks you to explain the term “hypervisor”. Which of the following statements best describes the function of the hypervisor?
A. A CPU emulator that translates old programming code into new CPU instructions.
B. Software responsible for allocating hardware resources to a virtual machine.
C. Software that simulates different operating systems.
D. A monitoring application installed within virtual machines.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35
Due to recent budget cuts, your manager has asked you to produce a list of inefficiently used resources in your vSphere environment. Which of the following products will help you produce this list?
A. vCenter Operations Manager
B. vCenter Configuration Manager

VMware VCAD510 exam only advanced and equipped with much more features,it is also not internet dependent,once installed.It enables you to see Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices in a simulated VMware VCAD510 exam environment.Working with VMware https://www.pass4itsure.com/vcad510.html exam Interactive Testing Engine is like passing an actual VMware VCAD510 exam.

OMG UM0-300 Practice Test, Provides OMG UM0-300 Exam With Low Price

Posted by on

OMG UM0-300 exam sample questions can help candidates are more successful in job. Get high technical expertise and accelerated learning capacity, not simply the OMG UM0-300 questions and answers absence of quality and values exercise materials, they are watching for your reading in Flydumps OMG UM0-300 exam sample questions. Flydumps OMG https://www.pass4itsure.com/um0-300.html exam sample questions are build for your practice of skills learned in the Adobe Certification for Adobe 9A0-702 training to answer difficult yet logical OMG UM0-300 questions.

QUESTION 1
What is true about model representation? (Choose three)

A. A model is not a complete representation of a system.
B. If several models exist for the same system, they represent different view points on the system
C. A model is a complete representation of all aspects of a system.
D. No dependencies can exist between two different models.
E. A model represents a system.
F. Only traceability dependencies can exist between two different models.
Answer: A,B,E
QUESTION 2
CORRECT TEXT
Which symbol depicts an AcceptEventAction?
Exhibit:
Answer: A
QUESTION 3 What are the names of the three compliance levels that organize the UML superstructure packages?
A. simple, intermediate, advanced
B. basic, intermediate, complete
C. basic, intermediate, advanced
D. primary, secondary, tertiary
E. partial, complete, interchange
Answer: B
QUESTION 4
What is an abstract type in OCL?

A. Integer
B. Sequence
C. Bag
D. Set

E. Collection
Answer: E
QUESTION 5 Which situations would result in errors when executing a ReclassifyObjectAction on an object? (Choose two)
A. All classifiers are removed from the object.
B. The old and new classifiers are identical.
C. An old classifier does not already classify the object.
D. No new classifiers are supplied.
E. A new classifier already classifies the object.
F. A new classifier is an abstract class.
Answer: A,F
QUESTION 6
What relationship is represented in the exhibit?
Exhibit:
A. manifestation of an artifact
B. node with deployed artifacts
C. node deployed on an artifact
D. node with annotated property values
E. node with deployment specifications
Answer: B
QUESTION 7
What determines how many values will move across an object flow edge at one time?

A. effect
B. ordering
C. upper bound
D. selection
E. weight

F. transformation
Answer: E
QUESTION 8 What can be used when the source of an object flow has values of type Customer, and the target needs the name of the customer?
A. upper bound
B. selection
C. effect
D. ordering
E. weight
F. transformation
Answer: F
QUESTION 9 What happens to the exception from a RaiseExceptionAction when used in a model that has no exception parameters declared?
A. propagated to an enclosing protected node, if any
B. appended to an exception log
C. handled by a default handler
D. sent to the “ExceptionManager” object
E. ignored
Answer: A
QUESTION 10
What does the composite structure notation show in the exhibit?
Exhibit:
A. p is a behavior port.
B. p is a hidden port.
C. p is a port providing a system service.
D. p is a port on a part of composite C, which is not shown.

Answer: B
QUESTION 11
How is a power type indicated in a diagram?

A. as an association line labeled <<powerType>>
B. as a generalization set labeled with a colon followed by a classifier name
C. as a classifier labeled <<powerType>>
D. as a generalization set labeled <<powerType>>
E. as a generalization set labeled with a colon followed by the label <<powerType>>
Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Which statements are true about OCL? (Choose three)

A. OCL is a procedural language.
B. OCL is a query language.
C. OCL is a typed language.
D. OCL is a programming language.
E. OCL is a specification language.
F. OCL is a programming and procedural language.
Answer: B,C,E
QUESTION 13
What is true about a parameterized package? (Choose two)

A. a package where all classes in the package are parameterized
B. a package with different variants, where the parameters tell how the package may vary
C. names of classes within a parameterized package can be parameters of the package
D. a package from which new packages can be defined by binding parameters
E. a package that is instantiable, and where the actual parameters are provided when creating package instances
F. a package with parameters that are names of other imported packages and a binding tells which actual packages are imported
Answer: C,D
QUESTION 14
What is true about a model in UML 2.0?

A. can represent all system structures
B. is a kind of package
C. can represent only software systems

D. cannot contain another model
E. is a kind of component Answer: B
QUESTION 15 An employee inadvertently removed all of the ownedMembers of the new BoosterMotor component from his company’s development repository. The next day, the manager was unable to find some pieces of the BoosterMotor component’s specification. What pieces could the manager no longer find? (Choose two)
A. the component’s isIndirectlyInstantiated attribute
B. the component repository
C. test scripts for the rocket sled simulation
D. failure mode use cases
E. the launch assembly housing the BoosterMotor
Answer: C,D
QUESTION 16
What does a port specification on a trigger do?

A. delay the creation of the parts of an encapsulated classifier until a specified request is received
B. restrict the trigger to events arriving through a specific port
C. create a new port after a classifier has been instantiated
D. send a request to a port
Answer: B
QUESTION 17
What is NOT true of a transition in a protocol state machine?

A. may have no associated operation
B. may have a precondition
C. may have multiple associated operation
D. may have a postcondition
Answer: C
QUESTION 18
When a component is deleted, what happens to objects in a component’s namespace?

A. objects are deleted
B. contents of the component’s namespace are promoted to its superclass
C. objects continue to exist

D. only those objects that participate in shared aggregations are retained Answer: A
QUESTION 19 If an activity is executed three times in parallel, how many executions exist? (Choose two)
A. two
B. three
C. one
D. none
E. any number
Answer: B,C
QUESTION 20
What is true of a protocol state machine?

A. may have a behavioral feature context
B. must be associated with exactly one classifier
C. may be associated with any number of classifiers
D. cannot be associated with a classifier
Answer: B
QUESTION 21
By what means can a design document be associated with the component it describes?
(Choose three)

A. import
B. dependency
C. power types
D. inheritance
E. ownership
F. association end subsets
Answer: A,B,E
QUESTION 22
What is wrong with the collaboration occurrence shown in the exhibit?
Exhibit:

A. Client and Server role names should be underlined.
B. The <<occurrence>> keyword is missing.
C. The <<role>> keywords are missing.
D. The collaboration occurrence name should be underlined.
E. Role bindings should be represented by dashed lines.
Answer: E
QUESTION 23
Which classifiers may NOT realize an InformationItem?

A. Component
B. Interface
C. ObjectNode
D. Class
E. Signal
F. InformationItem
Answer: C
QUESTION 24
The preconditions of behavioral features of an interface can be specified in what way?

A. the set of its features
B. the actions of its protocol state machine
C. the parameters of its protocol state machine
D. comments attached to the corresponding features
E. one or more guard conditions of a protocol state machine
Answer: E
QUESTION 25
Duplicates are NOT allowed in which OCL types?

A. Collection
B. Bag
C. Set
D. Sequence
Answer: C

QUESTION 26
What does a local precondition mean?

A. An activity begins executing when the precondition becomes true. B. An action begins executing when the precondition becomes true.
C. The modeler expects the precondition to be true when an activity begins executing.
D. The modeler expects the precondition to be true when an action begins executing.
E. An activity may not begin executing unless the precondition is true.
F. An action may not begin executing unless the precondition is true.
Answer: D
QUESTION 27 If a data store node has three values and one moves across an outgoing edge, how many are left?
A. one
B. two
C. none
D. three
Answer: D
QUESTION 28
What is NOT possible when a classifier receives a request via one of its ports?

A. A new port is created on the classifier.
B. The request does not trigger any behavior and is not forwarded.
C. The port routes the request to one of a number of parts depending on the content of the request.
D. A behavior of the classifier is invoked.
E. The request is forwarded to a part of the classifier.
Answer: A
QUESTION 29
To which layers in the 4-layer metamodel hierarchy for the UML metamodel (as depicted
in the exhibit) do M1 and M2 correspond?
Exhibit:

A. M2 = user model; M1 = UML metamodel
B. M2 = user model; M1 = runtime instances
C. M2 = UML metamodel; M1 = user model
D. M2 = MOF meta-metamodel; M1 = UML metamodel
E. M2 = UML metamodel; M1 = MOF meta-metamodel
Answer: C
QUESTION 30
What kind of relationship is an information flow in UML 2.0?

A. connector
B. transition
C. association
D. dependency
Answer: D

OMG UM0-300 is the composite exam associated with the Cisco Certified Network Associate certification.Candidates can prepare for this OMG https://www.pass4itsure.com/um0-300.html exam.This OMG UM0-300 exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to install, operate, and troubleshoot a small to medium size enterprise branch network.

SAP P_HCMTM_64 Exam Sample, Latest SAP P_HCMTM_64 Practice Questions With High Quality

Posted by on

At Flydumps,we are positive that our SAP P_HCMTM_64 preparation material with questions and answers pdf provide most in-depth solutions for individuals that are preparing for the https://www.pass4itsure.com SAP P_HCMTM_64 exam.Our uodated SAP P_HCMTM_64 Dumps will allow you the opportunity to know exactly what to expect on the exam day and ensure that you can pass the exam beyond any doubt.

HR wants to monitor the maintenance of Personal Development (PD) master data.
Which methods are available to audit this? (Choose two)
A. Program RPUAUD00 for logged changes to standard infotypes 0001-0999.
B. Log of report starts accessing logical database PCH.
C. Log of report starts accessing logical database PNP.
D. Transaction PPOME for organization structure changes.
E. Program RHDOC_DISPLAY for logged changes to standard infotypes 1000-1999.
Answer: D,E
QUESTION NO: 2
Which areas are used by HCM Processes and Forms? (Choose two)
A. SAP Employee Interaction Center (EIC)
B. SAP Interactive Forms
C. SAP Business Workflow
D. SAP Network Process Integration (PI)

Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 3
An organization has the need to reduce their headcount. Therefore they need to identify jobs and positions that have to be retained based on critical business processes.
How can you determine what jobs and positions are critical?
A. Execute Complete Job Description (S_AHR_61016501) from Organizational Management Info System.
B. Execute Infotype Reporting (S_AHR_61016532) from Organizational Management Info System using Spec. Position Characteristics (infotype 1958).
C. Execute Profile Matchup (PEPM) from Personnel Development Info System.
D. Execute Complete Position Description (S_AHR_61016511) from Organizational Management

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 4
After having set up structural authorizations, your customer is experiencing slow system response times.
How can you improve system response times?
A. Delete all entries of structural authorization indexes and recreate each structural authorization profile.
B. Generate indexes for users assigned to these structural authorizations using RHBAUS00.
C. Increase database storage capacity to better process the complex indexing associated with building and maintaining structural authorizations.
D. Reduce the number of structural authorization profiles to allow fewer users access to the structural authorization objects.

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 5
Your customer needs a ‘Special Exempt’ indicator on ‘Job Attributes’ (Infotype 1610).
What do you recommend?
A. Change the data dictionary definition of a standard text field.
B. Change the field attribute on Dialog Database Assignment Table (T777D).
C. Configure the Screen Modification Table (T588M) and set the field as a radio button.
D. Customize the Infotype to add a radio button for the additional field.
Answer: D
Which action is required for using structural authorizations?
A. Configure and run the profile generator.
B. Implement the organizational key.
C. Create and activate authorization objects.
D. Assign authorization profiles to users.

Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 7
A customer would like to have a batch process to automate the update of the Appraiser (new manager) on the review form based on employees’ transfer. Therefore, a custom program must be developed.
Which functionality should be implemented in a custom program to meet this requirement?
A. Update Organizational Unit assignment on the incomplete appraisal form of the transferred employees.
B. Update Appraiser assignment on the incomplete appraisal form of the transferred employees.
C. Release new appraisal form for the transferred employees with the new Organizational Unit assignment.
D. Release new appraisal form for the transferred employees with the new manager assigned as Appraiser.

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 8
The Recruiter is searching for candidates using TREX search, but the system does not return any results.
How do you test the TREX search function? (Choose two)
A. Check the free text search and the Boolean search in the E-Recruiting frontend.
B. Execute transaction KRPO IMS: Monitoring (SKPR07).
C. Execute transaction Retrieval: Search Server Relation Monitor (SRMO).
D. Check the free text search and the Boolean search in the E-Recruiting backend.

Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 9
Your customer has implemented SAP Learning Solution (LSO) with Enhancement Pack 4, Organizational Management (OM) and Performance Management (PM) and requires that the managers are able to assign courses to their team member’s performance appraisal document.
How do you provide this functionality?
A. Configure the integration of the performance appraisal template with the course catalogue.
B. Install the business package HCM_LSO_VLR and set up the parameter for the Add Course from LSO BAdI.
C. Configure the performance appraisal template using the ORG_PM_APPR and add course to PM Template BAdI.
D. Set up custom evaluation path and mandatory relationships to assign trainings to employees via selected organizational units.

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10
Your customer needs to manage their employees’ performance by developing Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) that support the Cascading Goals functionality in SAP ECC 6.0 EhP4.
How can you do this? (Choose two)
A. Install the application available in the portal for Business Package 1.40, configure the setting Organizational Goals using the wizard and assign the ‘Talent Management Specialist’ role to appropriate users.
B. Implement a BAdI to add Cascading Goals for all types of goals and three fixed enhancements for adding Corporate Goals, Team Goals and Core Values.
C. Assign the Performance Management Specialist role to appropriate users to establish the Corporate goals and Core Values, and cascade them through all levels of the company.
D. Configure the goal details and the KPI measurement on the appraisal template in the

Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 11
Your customer asks for a graphical representation of the Organizational Structure.
What options do you recommend? (Choose two)
A. Use the report Organizational Structure with Positions via S_AHR_61016494 and create the layout via SAP Report Painter.
B. Use the report Structure Navigation Instrument via S_AHR_61016529.
C. Use the Nakisa OrgChart solution.
D. Use the program HIS: Access Object via PPIS.

Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 12
Your customer needs an automatic closure of the appraisals for employees whose employment has been terminated.
How do you enhance the custom program to meet this requirement?
A. Use function module Change Document Status (HRHAP00_DOCUMENT_CHANGE_STATUS).
B. Use function module Get List (HRHAP00_DOCUMENT_GET_LIST).
C. Implement BAdI Business Check Elements (HRHAP00_BC_ELEMENTS).
D. Implement BAdI Dynamic Cell Value Event (HRHAP00_DYN_EVENT).
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 13

Therefore candidates who are non-native they must understand the questions first and then answer it. Reading exam questions twice can be very helpful for you.Due to this you can earn high salary packages and it can also increase your chances of getting promotions. With this certification you can direct your career towards a more specific path which contributes in your professional growth.

OMG OMG-OCUP-200 Exam Dumps, Latest Updated OMG OMG-OCUP-200 Tests With New Discount

Posted by on

Flydumps OMG https://www.pass4itsure.com/omg-ocup-200.html exam material details are researched and created by the Most Professional Certified Authors who are regularly using current exams experience to create precise and logical dumps.You can get questions and answers from many other websites or books, but logic is the main key of success, and Flydumps will give you this key of success.

QUESTION: 1
To what does an internal structure of a class refer?

A. the inheritance structure of that class
B. the set of nested classifiers of that class
C. the set of structural features of that class
D. class and associations owned by that class
E. the decomposition of that class in terms of interconnected parts
Answer: E
QUESTION: 2
What statements are true about a composite structure? (Choose two)

A. Collaborations are structured classifiers.
B. A structured classifier is also an encapsulated classifier.
C. Structured classifiers cannot contain instances of structured classifiers.
D. Destroying an instance of a structured classifier normally destroys instances of its parts.
E. The behavior of a structured classifier must be completely defined through the collaboration of owned or referenced instances.

Answer: A, D
QUESTION: 3
An encapsulated classifier is characterized by which fact?

A. has an encapsulation shell
B. can own one or more ports
C. hides information from other classifiers
D. acts as a package and can own one or more classifiers

Answer: B
QUESTION: 4
What interface restrictions does a port have?

A. multiple required interfaces or multiple provided interfaces
B. multiple provided interfaces and multiple required interfaces
C. equal numbers of provided interfaces and required interfaces
D. exactly one provided interface or exactly one required interface

E. exactly one required interface and exactly one provided interface

Answer: B
QUESTION: 5
What is an invocation action on a port used for?

A. sending a message to that port
B. receiving a message on that port
C. creating a link and attach it to that port
D. relaying the invocation via links connected to that port
E. invoking the behavior of the classifier that owns the port

Answer: D
QUESTION: 6
What is NOT a purpose of a port owned by a classifier?

A. serves as an end point for connectors
B. specifies an association to the classifier
C. hides the internals of that classifier from other classifiers
D. provides a distinct point of interaction between the classifier and its environment

Answer: B
QUESTION: 7
Which is true of a provided interface associated with a port?

A. represents an interface that must be defined within the classifier that owns the port
B. identifies the services that the object owning the port expects of objects connected via that port
C. identifies the services that the object owning the port can offer to other objects connected viathat port
D. represents an interface that must be defined in the same package in which the classifier owning the port is defined

Answer: C
QUESTION: 8
What does the composite structure notation in the exhibit mean?

A. Class C has internal structure.
B. Object c1 is a kind of component.
C. Port p is connected to an object called F
D. Port p realizes the features defined by interface F
E. Port p requires the features defined by interface F

Answer: E
QUESTION: 9
Which list contains only connectable elements?

A. port and connector end
B. behavior, port and property
C. connector end, port and part
D. property, port, and parameter
E. behavior, connector end, and port

Answer: D
QUESTION: 10
What is NOT true about a roles and role bindings?

A. A role binding is an association.
B. The same object may play roles in multiple collaborations.
C. A role binding maps a connectable element to a role in a collaboration occurrence.
D. The same connectable element may be bound to multiple roles in a single collaboration occurrence.
E. A role typed by an interface specifies a set of features required by a participant in a collaboration.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 11

What does the composite structure exhibit show?

A. The diagram is not valid.
B. The two F interfaces must come from different packages.
C. Requests for behavioral features of interface F through ports p1 and p2 can be distinguished.
D. Requests for behavioral features of interface F through ports p1 and p2 will always result in the same behavior.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 12
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the significance of the fact that the Administration interface symbol extends downward
rather than leftward?
A. There is no significance.
B. The interface cannot be provided via a port.
C. The interface does not require a delegation connector.
D. The interface is not publicly visible on the component.
E. The interface is the primary interface for the component.
F. The interface is the primary provided interface for the component.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 13
Refer to the exhibit.
How many interfaces does the CustomerService component make visible to its clients?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4

Answer: D
QUESTION: 14
What best describes the distinction between a delegation connector and an assembly connector?

A. A delegation connector can be used to model the internals of a component, while an assembly connector cannot.
B. Assembly connectors provide white box views of components, while delegation connectors provide black box views.
C. An assembly connector connects two components while a delegation connector connects the internal contract of a component with its external parts.
D. An assembly connector connects the required interface or required port of one component with the provided interface or provided port of another component, while a delegation connector connects the external contract of a component with its internal parts.

Answer: D
QUESTION: 15
What best describes the semantics modeled by the exhibit?

A. This is an illegal diagram.
B. The OrderEntity component is part of the internals of the Invoicer component.
C. The Invoicer has a complex connector that connects the GenerateInvoice interface with the Order interface.
D. The Invoicer has a complex port that provides the interface GenerateInvoice and requires the interface Order.

Answer: D
QUESTION: 16
What most accurately describes the semantics modeled by the exhibit?
A. HeaderGenerator and LineItemGenerator realize Invoicer.
B. Invoicer realizes HeaderGenerator and LineItemGenerator.
C. HeaderGenerator and LineItemGenerator are Invoicer ports.
D. An Invoicer component is composed of a HeaderGenerator component and a LineItemGenerator component.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 17
How can the internals of a component be presented?
A. using a complex component connector
B. component provides port or a component requires port
C. in a compartment of the component box or a component requires port
D. in a compartment of the component box or via boxes nested within the component box

Answer: D
QUESTION: 18
Which must be true in order to use a delegation connector to connect two components?

A. The components must have complex ports.
B. One component must be a subtype of the other.
C. The components must be related to each other via a dependency.
D. One component must be part of the internal realization of the other component.

Answer: D
QUESTION: 19 Assume component A provides an interface P and requires an interface R. In order for a component B to be substituted for component A, what must be true?
A. Components must be related to each other via a dependency.
B. The interface that A requires must be type conformant with respect to the interface that B provides.
C. The interface that B requires must be type conformant with respect to the interface that A provides.
D. The interface that B requires must be type conformant with respect to the interface that A requires, and the interface that B provides must be type conformant with respect to the interface that A provides.

Answer: D
QUESTION: 20
A component may legally participate in which relationship(s)?

A. dependencies
B. associations and generalizations
C. dependencies and generalizations
D. dependencies, associations, and generalizations

Answer: D
QUESTION: 21
What types of features may a component possess?
A. attributes and operations
B. attributes, but not operations
C. operations, but not attributes
D. neither attributes nor operations

Answer: A
QUESTION: 22
A protocol state machine can be used to describe which aspect of a component?

A. internals of a component
B. configuration of an assembly
C. signal flow among connectors
D. external contract of a component

Answer: D
QUESTION: 23 What must be true for a connector to be well formed if a delegation connector delegates to more than one target port?
A. The interfaces of the target ports must have no features in common.
B. The interface of each of the target ports must be signature compatible with the interface that is the type of the source port.
C. The union of the interfaces of the target ports must be signature compatible with the interface that is the type of the source port.
D. The interface of at least one of the target ports must be signature compatible with the interface that is the type of the source port.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 24 What will be deleted when performing a DestroyObjectAction on an object that participates in a composition association with many components?
A. object
B. component objects
C. object and all its links
D. object and all its component objects
E. object, all its links, and all linked objects
Answer: A

QUESTION: 25
What situation results from performing a CreateObjectAction on an abstract class?

A. undefined behavior
B. exception being raised
C. error log entry being created
D. object of the specified class being created
E. arbitrary object of one of its subclasses being created

Answer: A

FLYDUMPS give you complete info about OMG https://www.pass4itsure.com/omg-ocup-200.html certification is based on 55 questions which aim to target the practical abilities of candidates. These questions must be answered in the allotted time of 90 minutes. No additional time is allotted to the candidates and they are not allowed to consult any helping material during exam time. This certification is only held in English.