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QUESTION 1
What is an element in UML 2.0?
A. member of a set
B. instance of a class
C. constituent of a model
D. abstract metaclass with only one superclass
E. substance not separable by ordinary chemical means

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
What is a relationship in UML 2.0?
A. the state of being related
B. an element that has no derived union
C. an element that has no derived composition
D. an element that must have two owned elements
E. an element that specifies a connection between elements

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 3
What is true about a comment in UML 2.0? (Choose two)
A. is shown as a note symbol
B. must be attached to at most one element
C. contains only machine-readable symbols
D. can be attached to more than one element
E. connections are always shown with a dashed line
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
What is true about every named element that is a member of a namespace?
A. It is owned by the namespace.
B. It has one unique name within the namespace.
C. It is identified by its name within the namespace.
D. It can be distinguished from other members in the namespace.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
What is true of the import example in the exhibit?

A. Webshop is imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into Auxiliary and Types.
B. Auxiliary and Types are imported into ShoppingCart, but neither can be further imported into WebShop.
C. Public members of WebShop are imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into Auxiliary or Types.
D. Public members of Types and Auxiliary are imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into WebShop.
E. Public members of Types and Auxiliary are imported into ShoppingCart and those from Types are further imported into WebShop.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 6
What does an {ordered} designator do for a multiplicity?
A. specifies that values are sequentially ordered
B. specifies an inclusive interval of non-negative integers
C. indicates the correct sequence of messages in a sequence diagram
D. indicates that the upper bound must be greater than the lower bound for the multiplicity

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
What is an expression in UML 2.0?
A. comment placed on a diagram
B. symbol or symbols signifying a set of value
C. graphical addition to a diagramming element
D. language-specific string used to describe the meaning of a diagram
E. language-specific text string used to describe the contents of a diagram
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Constraints are shown using what symbols?
A. [ ]
B. ( )
C. { }
D. ?”
E. ” ”

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
The instance diagram in the exhibit contains father and son without underlines. What is the meaning of this?

A. The Don class is a superclass of the Josh class.
B. An association having end names father and son.
C. The diagram is a mixture of class and instance diagrams.
D. A link of an association having end names father and son.
E. The names are incorrectly specified, because underlined names are required.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
In the exhibit, what is the meaning of size in these two diagrams?

A. Only one or the other should be used, not both, in order to avoid a name conflict.
B. The size end name on the association indicates data storage and the attribute does not.
C. There is one size property diagrammed both as an attribute and as an association end.
D. There are two size properties that have no name conflict as long as each size is private.
E. The size attribute in the class indicates that it will be stored within the class and the end name does not.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
What does an association specify?
A. tuples that are not links
B. relationship among models
C. links between associated types
D. links between instances of associated types
E. links between instances of untyped classes

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
What are the association end names in the exhibit?

A. Person and Order
B. customer and Order
C. 1 and *
D. 1, *, customer, and Order
E. 1, *, customer, order, Person, and Order

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
What is the meaning of the subsets constraint in the diagram?

A. D is a subclass of B.
B. D contains a subset of instances of C.
C. The collection of b is a subset of the collection of d for each A.
D. The collection of d is a subset of the collection of b for each C.
E. The collection of c is a subset of the collection of b for each D.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
What is true of the black diamond on the diagram? (Choose two)

A. A Line Item cannot be removed from its Order.
B. A Line Item may only be included in one Order at a time.
C. If an Order is deleted, its Line Item instances normally still remain.
D. If an Order is deleted, its Line Item instances are normally deleted.
E. A Line Item may only be included in more than one Order at a time.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 15
A property is a feature that can be represented in what ways? (Choose two)
A. as an association
B. as an association end
C. as an attribute in a class
D. as an operation in a class
E. as an indication of whether the feature is public or private

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 16
What does it mean when a classifier rectangle is labeled as an <<eration>>?
A. The list of all public and private features is provided.
B. The classifier is an iterator for traversing a collection.
C. The list of all public and private structural features is suppressed.
D. The classifier is a data type whose values are possibly listed in the bottom compartment.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
What are some of the important semantics of packages? (Choose three)
A. A class may be owned by multiple packages.
B. An element may be owned by at most one package.
C. The public contents of a package are accessible outside the package.
D. The public contents of a package are not accessible outside the package.
E. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are removed.
F. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are reassigned.

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 18
What does the arrow end of a dependency relationship indicate?
A. more general classifier
B. element initiates communication
C. whole in a whole-part relationship
D. client element is affected by a change in the supplier element
E. supplier element is unaffected by a change in the client element
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 19
What does a <<use>>endency mean in a relationship between one element and another?
A. specifies how it uses another element
B. specifies how it realizes another element
C. specifies how one element implements another element
D. requires another element for its full implementation or operation
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
What statements are true of the <<it>>endency in the exhibit? (Choose two)

A. X can access only the baz property of W.
B. X can access the baz and quux properties of W.
C. X can access only the quux property of W.
D. W can access only the foo property of X.
E. W can access the foo and bar properties of X.
F. W can access only the bar property of X.

Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 21
What statements are true about the <<titute>>endency? Choose two)
A. denotes runtime substitutability requiring specialization
B. denotes runtime substitutability not requiring specialization
C. implies inheritance of structure and compliance to publicly available contracts
D. implies neither inheritance of structure nor compliance to publicly available contracts
E. does not imply inheritance of structure, but implies compliance to publicly available contracts

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 22
What is the notation for a provided interface?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
What statements are true about interfaces? (Choose two)
A. Interfaces are directly instantiable.
B. Interfaces are not directly instantiable.
C. A classifier may realize only one interface, but an interface may be realized by multiple classifiers.
D. A classifier may realize more than one interface, but an interface may be realized by only one classifier.
E. A classifier may realize more than one interface, and an interface may be realized by different classifiers.

Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit. n that class A realizes interfaces X and Y, and that class B realizes interface Y and uses interface Z, what operations must class A support?

A. union of the operations in interfaces X and Y
B. union of the operations in interfaces X, Y, and Z
C. intersection of the operations in interfaces X and Y
D. intersection of the operations in interfaces X, Y, and Z
E. not required to support any operations specified by the interfaces shown

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
What statements are true about implementation relationships? (Choose two)
A. A classifier may only implement one interface.
B. An interface may implement multiple classifiers.
C. A classifier implementing an interface conforms to its contract.
D. The set of interfaces implemented by a classifier are its required interfaces.
E. The set of interfaces implemented by a classifier are its provided interfaces.

Correct Answer: CE

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following TOGAF components was created to enable architects to design architectures addressing Boundaryless Information Flow?
A. The Architecture Repository
B. The Enterprise Continuum
C. The Integrated Information Infrastructure Model
D. The TOGAF Technical Reference Model

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which of the following best describes the TOGAF Technical Reference Model?
A. It is a detailed data model that can be tailored to specific industries
B. It is an example of a Common Systems Architecture
C. It is a fundamental architecture upon which more specific architectures can be based
D. It is a model of application components and application services software, including brokering applications

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which one of the following statements about the structure of the TOGAF 9 document is true?
A. Part I, the Enterprise Continuum, describes a model for structuring a virtual repository
B. Part II, the Architecture Development Method, describes the definitions of terms used in TOGAF, and the changes between versions of TOGAF
C. Part III, Tools and Support, describes a collection of guidelines and techniques used in the other parts of TOGAF
D. Part VI, TOGAF Reference Models, includes a model for release management of the TOGAF specification
E. Part VII, the Architecture Capability Framework, describes processes and skills to establish an enterprise function
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Which phase of the ADM ensures that implementation projects conform to the defined architecture?
A. Requirements Management
B. Phase D
C. Phase F
D. Phase G
E. Phase H
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Complete the sentence. The Requirements Management Phase .
A. addresses and resolves requirements between ADM phases
B. is a central process that prioritizes requirements for all ADM phases
C. is used to dispose of resolved requirements for all ADM phases
D. generates new requirements and passes them to all ADM phases
E. stores requirements and manages their flow into relevant ADM phases

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 6
Which one of the following is an objective of the Preliminary Phase of the ADM?
A. To define the Baseline Architecture for this cycle of the ADM
B. To define the application systems for the Target Architecture
C. To define the framework and methodologies to be used
D. To define the relevant stakeholders and their concerns
E. To define and prioritise work packages

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
According to TOGAF, when creating views for a particular architecture, what is the recommended first step?
A. Design a viewpoint to address all stakeholder concerns
B. Develop views for the target architecture first
C. Ensure completeness of the architecture
D. Refer to existing libraries of viewpoints, to identify one for re-use

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which of the following architectures in the Architecture Continuum contains the most re-usable architecture elements?
A. Common Systems Architectures
B. Foundation Architectures
C. Industry Architectures
D. Organization-Specific Architectures

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Which of the following describes the Architecture Vision document?
A. A description of individual change increments showing progression from the baseline to target architecture
B. A detailed schedule for implementation of the target architecture
C. A high level description of the baseline and target architectures
D. A joint agreement between the development team and sponsor on the deliverables and quality of an architecture
E. A set of rules and guidelines to support fulfilling the mission of the organization

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
According to TOGAF, which of the following best describes how the Enterprise Continuum is used in organizing and developing an architecture?
A. It is used to coordinate with the other management frameworks in use
B. It is used to describe how an architecture addresses stakeholder concerns
C. It is used to identify and understand business requirements
D. It is used to provide a system for continuous monitoring
E. It is used to structure re-usable architecture and solution assets

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 11
What document is sent from the sponsoring organization to the architecture organization to trigger the start of an ADM cycle?
A. Architecture Contract
B. Architecture Definition Document
C. Architecture Vision
D. Request for Architecture Work
E. Statement of Architecture Work

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
According to TOGAF, which of the following best describes Architecture Governance?
A. A categorization mechanism for architecture and solution artifacts
B. A framework for operational and change activity
C. A method for designing an information system in terms of a set of building blocks
D. The lifecycle management of information and related technology used by an organization
E. The practice by which enterprise architectures are controlled at an enterprise-wide level

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 13
Which component within the Architecture Repository holds best practice or template materials that can be used to construct architectures?
A. Architecture Capability
B. Architecture Landscape
C. Architecture Metamodel
D. Governance Log
E. Reference Library

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 14
Complete the sentence. According to TOGAF, all the following are responsibilities of an Architecture Board, except .
A. Allocating resources for architecture projects
B. Decision making for changes in the architecture
C. Enforcing Architecture Compliance
D. Improving the maturity of the organization’s architecture discipline
E. Production of governance materials
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
According to TOGAF, which of the following best describes the purpose of a Compliance Assessment?
A. To ensure that architecture information is communicated to the right stakeholders at the right time
B. To govern the architecture throughout its implementation process
C. To provide a high-level view of the end architecture product
D. To show progression of change from the Baseline Architecture to the Target Architecture

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which of the following describes a key objective of the Technology Architecture Phase?
A. To define the solution architecture needed to support the Application Architecture
B. To define technology components into a set of technology platforms
C. To define the Transition Architectures needed to achieve the Target Architecture
D. To develop a migration plan to deliver incremental capabilities
E. To select a set of technology products that will form the basis of a solution architecture

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Which one of the following statements best describes why the ADM should be adapted?
A. To align it closer to the business
B. To make the use more realistic
C. To move through the cycle faster
D. To suit the specific needs of the enterprise

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
In which phase of the TOGAF ADM are Gap Analysis results from earlier phases consolidated?
A. Phase D
B. Phase E
C. Phase F
D. Phase G
E. Phase H

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Which of the following best describes the purpose of a business scenario?
A. To define and plan an enterprise architecture transformation based on Capability- Based Planning
B. To develop a set of general rules and guidelines for the architecture being developed
C. To develop a set of security guidelines for the architecture being developed
D. To help identify and understand the business requirements that an architecture must address
E. To identify and mitigate the risks when implementing an architecture project

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
According to TOGAF, which of the following best describes the classification of architectural change in the case where multiple server systems are being consolidated to a single system?
A. A bottom-up change to enhance operational capability
B. An incremental change handled via change management techniques
C. A re-architecting change that puts the whole architecture through an ADM cycle
D. A revision change of the enterprise architecture
E. A simplification change handled via change management techniques

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 21
Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of enterprise architecture?
A. To allow an enterprise to exploit the latest trends in technology
B. To enable the CIO to take effective control of the business units across an enterprise
C. To ensure compliance in an enterprise to corporate auditing standards
D. To optimise an enterprise into an environment that is responsive to business needs
E. To provide a set of standards that all actors must adhere to within an enterprise

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Which of the following statements best describes how Architecture Principles are used within the ADM?
A. They are used to define the framework and detailed methodologies
B. They are used to define stakeholders and their concerns
C. They are used to determine the readiness factors impacting the organization
D. They are used to guide decision making within the enterprise
E. They are used to resolve and dispose of requirements

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Which of the following statements about TOGAF Building Blocks and their use in the ADM cycle is correct?
A. Building Blocks become more implementation-specific in Phase E
B. Building Blocks in phases D, E and F are evolved to a common pattern of steps
C. Building Blocks should be identified in abstract form as part of the Preliminary Phase
D. Building Blocks should be first selected in Phase D

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Which one of the following is an objective of Phase A of the TOGAF ADM?
A. To allocate the resources needed to implement the architecture project
B. To define the framework that is going to be used to develop the enterprise architecture
C. To define an IT Strategy that maps out the technology infrastructure
D. To prepare a Solution Architecture for the enterprise
E. To secure formal approval to proceed

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 25
Complete the sentence. TOGAF 9 Part III provides a set of resources that can be used to adapt and modify the .
A. Architecture Capability
B. Architecture Development Method
C. Architecture Landscape
D. Architecture Repository
E. Enterprise Continuum

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
According to TOGAF, Which of the following are the architecture domains that are commonly accepted subsets of an overall enterprise architecture?
A. Application, Business, Data, Technology
B. Capability, Segment, Strategic
C. Context, Definition, Governance, Transformation
D. Definition, Realization, Transition, Vision

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which one of the following statements about the structure of the TOGAF 9 document is true?
A. Part I describes the TOGAF approach to Enterprise Architecture
B. Part II describes the definitions of terms used and the changes between versions of TOGAF
C. Part III describes requirements management and is considered to be the core of TOGAF
D. Part IV describes the ADM: a collection of guidelines and techniques used in TOGAF 9

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
According to TOGAF, Which one of the following best describes an enterprise architecture?
A. An architecture of a commercial organization
B. An architecture that consists of more than one subsidiary company
C. An architecture that crosses multiple systems, and multiple functional groups within the enterprise
D. The highest level of architecture that can be achieved in a given organization

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
In TOGAF, What is the difference between an artifact and a deliverable?
A. An artifact contains one or more deliverables
B. Artifacts and deliverables are synonymous; there is no difference between them
C. Deliverables are prepared by the Project Manager, whereas artifacts are defined by the Architect
D. Deliverables are reusable, whereas artifacts are unique to a given architecture project
E. Deliverables are specified as contractual outputs from a project, whereas artifacts are not
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 5
Which one of the following lists the main components within the TOGAF Architecture Repository?
A. Organizational Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, Best Practices, Reference Library, Compliance Strategy
B. Architecture Metamodel, Organizational Capability Model, Application Landscape, SIB, Reference Library, Governance Model
C. Business Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library, Governance Log
D. Architecture Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library, Governance Log
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 6
According to the TOGAF Document Categorization Model, Which category describes a technique that is referenced by processes categorized as TOGAF Core and TOGAF Mandated?
A. TOGAF Guidelines and Techniques
B. TOGAF Recommended
C. TOGAF Supporting
D. TOGAF Extension

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Which of the following reasons best describes why the ADM numbering scheme for versioning output is an example and not mandatory?
A. To show the evolution of deliverables
B. To permit adaptation as required
C. To enable use with the Architecture Content Framework
D. To support change management

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
According to TOGAF, where should architecture governance artifacts be stored?
A. In the Integrated Information Infrastructure Reference Model
B. In the Standards Information Base
C. In the Foundation Architecture
D. In the Architecture Repository

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Which one of the following best describes the implications of TOGAF being a generic framework?
A. The organization must utilize an architecture tool in order to tailor the templates for use
B. It must be adapted to satisfy organization specific requirements
C. It can be utilized by most enterprises without further customization
D. It can only be used for enterprise level architecture projects
E. It should only be employed under the supervision of highly trained consultants

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which of the following is the architecture domain that describes the logical software and hardware capabilities?
A. Application Architecture
B. Business Architecture
C. Data Architecture
D. Technology Architecture

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Which section of the TOGAF document describes the processes, skills and roles to establish and operate an architecture function within an enterprise?
A. Part II: Architecture Development Method
B. Part III: ADM Guidelines and Techniques
C. Part IV: Architecture Content Framework
D. Part VI: TOGAF Reference Models
E. Part VII: Architecture Capability Framework

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 12
Which one of the following is NOT an element of an architecture framework?
A. A common vocabulary
B. A list of recommended standards
C. A method for designing an information system in terms of building blocks
D. A set of structuresWhich can be used to develop a broad range of architectures
E. A system development lifecycle method for software engineering

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 13
Which one of the following describes classification methods for architecture and solution artifacts within the Architecture Repository?
A. Architecture Landscape
B. Architecture Vision
C. Enterprise Continuum
D. Governance Log
E. Standards Information Base

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Complete the sentence. To promote effective architectural activity within the enterprise, TOGAF 9 recommends the establishment of a(n) _____
A. Enterprise Architecture Capability
B. IT Governing Board
C. Program Management Office
D. Quality Assurance department
E. Service Management department

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
According to the TOGAF Document Categorization Model, Which category is for resources NOT referenced by content within the other categories?
A. TOGAF Core
B. TOGAF Extension
C. TOGAF Mandatory
D. TOGAF Recommended
E. TOGAF Supporting
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 16
Which phase of the ADM is used to finalize a set of transition architectures that will support
implementation?

A. Phase D
B. Phase E
C. Phase F
D. Phase G
E. Phase H

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Complete the sentence. TOGAF 9 Part III provides techniques, such as developing principles and gap analysis, to support tasks within the ______
A. Architecture Capability Framework
B. Architecture Continuum
C. Architecture Development Method
D. Architecture Landscape
E. Architecture Repository

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
According to TOGAF, the recommended dimensions used to define the scope of an architecture include all the following, except:
A. Architecture Domains
B. Enterprise Focus
C. Level of Detail
D. Subject Matter
E. Time Period

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
What level of the Architecture Landscape provides a long-term summary view of the entire enterprise?
A. Capability Architecture
B. Operational Architecture
C. Segment Architecture
D. Strategic Architecture
E. Tactical Architecture
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
What part of the Architecture Repository holds specifications toWhich architectures must conform?
A. Standards Information Base
B. Enterprise Continuum
C. Governance Log
D. Architecture Landscape
E. Reference Library
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
An association of companies has defined a data model for sharing inventory and pricing information.

Which of the following best describes where this model would fit in the Architecture Continuum?
A. Foundation Architecture
B. Common Systems Architecture
C. Industry Architecture
D. Organization Specific Architecture
E. Product Line Architecture

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
In the Solutions Continuum, Which of the following is the correct order of Solutions from most- specific to most-generic?
A. Common Systems, Foundation, Industry, Organization-Specific
B. Organization-Specific, Industry, Foundation, Common Systems
C. Foundation, Common Systems, Industry, Organization-Specific
D. Industry, Foundation, Common Systems, Organization-Specific
E. Organization-Specific, Industry, Common Systems, Foundation

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 23
Which one of the following is a key objective of Phase A of the TOGAF ADM?
A. To create a roadmap that describes the evolution of the architecture over time
B. To prepare a Solution Architecture for the enterprise
C. To define an IT Strategy that maps out the technology infrastructure
D. To allocate the resources needed to implement the architecture project
E. To articulate an Architecture Vision

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 24
What document is used to initiate a TOGAF ADM cycle?
A. Architecture Roadmap
B. Statement of Architecture Work
C. Architecture Landscape
D. Request for Architecture Work
E. Architecture Vision

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
According to TOGAF, Which of the following is the usual approach for developing the Baseline Business Architecture if no architecture or few architecture assets exist?
A. Bottom up
B. Envisioning
C. Extensive
D. Refactoring
E. Top down
Correct Answer: A

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Topic 1, Part 1 Questions QUESTION 1
Consider the following diagram, which represents a migration from a Baseline to a Target Architecture:

Which of the following answers best interprets the unlabeled symbol in the middle of the diagram?
A. It represents a relatively stable intermediate state during the migration from the Baseline to the Target Architectures
B. It represents a project that progresses the architecture from Baseline to Target
C. It represents the deliverables necessary to transform the architecture from Baseline to Target
D. It represents a conceptual point of transition between the two architectures, but one that is unlikely to exist in reality for more than an instant

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2
Which application layer concept is defined as a passive element?
A. Application component
B. Application function
C. Data object
D. Business object

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
The following diagram shows an example of the use of the Migration viewpoint:

Which of the following best describes a reason for using this viewpoint?

A. To model the management of architecture change
B. To help determine the priorities of implementation projects
C. To relate programs and projects to the parts of the architecture that they implement
D. To help in planning the transition from the current architecture to a desired future architecture

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Consider the following diagram, in which CSR stands for Customer Service Representative:

Which of the following statement is expressed by the diagram?
A. CSR Training has four key modules, each focusing on a different topic
B. The CSR Training business service is valuable in four different ways
C. CSR Training is a basic service, upon which four sub-services depend
D. CSR Training accesses four different types of information

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
Which ArchiMate concept describes the behavior of a business collaboration?
A. A business interaction
B. A business event
C. A business process
D. A business service

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
Consider the following symbol, which represents information about a transformation project at ArchiSurance involving systems and business processes:

Which of the following statements correctly expresses the meaning of the symbol?
A. TheArchiSurance legal department has determined the impact of the new regulations
B. The project must satisfy requirements for additional reporting
C. The additional reporting requirements in new insurance regulations are driving change at ArchiSurance
D. The project’s systems must be flexible enough to accommodate any future changes in reporting requirements

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 7
Consider the following diagram:

What does the diagram express about the Underwriting Application?
A. It has three distinct components
B. It processes three different types of data objects
C. It performs three different functions
D. It groups together three components that are not a part of the Underwriting Application

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 8
All ArchiSurance divisions use a Claims Adjudication Process specific to their lines of business to determine whether a claim should be paid as well as the payment amount, Consider the following diagram: Which of the following statements is expressed by the diagram?

A. The Claims Adjudication Process realizes the Claim File
B. Claims are filed after the Claims Adjudication process is complete
C. The Claims Adjudication team relies on the Claim File to get its work done
D. The Claims Adjudication process accesses the Claim File

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 9
What Implementation & Migration Extension concept is used to model the outcome of an analysis of the differences betweentwo architectural states?
A. Transition
B. Gap
C. Work Package
D. Deliverable

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 10
The ArchiMate modeling language can be used to describe different types of architecture and the relationships between them.
Which of the following lists the three main layers of the ArchiMate language?
A. Business, Information, and Application
B. Application, Data, and Technology
C. Business, Application, and Technology
D. Business, Integration, and Infrastructure

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 11
Consider the following diagram with four relationships modeled: Which relationship modeled in the diagram is not allowed to connect the application layer with the technology layer?

A. Relationship 1
B. Relationship 2
C. Relationship 3
D. Relationship 4

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
Consider the following diagram:

What does the diagram express about the structure of the Underwriting Application?
A. The Underwriting Application groups together a number of modules that are either free- standing or part of other applications
B. The Underwriting Application is composed of three application components
C. The Underwriting Application invokes three other modules
D. The Underwriting Application performs three functions

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 13
The following diagram shows a typical group of stakeholders: Which ArchiMate viewpoint abstraction level would support these stakeholders for the purpose of change management?

A. Coherence
B. Designing
C. Details
D. Overview

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 14
Consider the following diagram:

Which of the following best describes the relationship between the four objects in Group A?
A. The objects share information
B. The objects are collaborating on a key initiative
C. The objects were instantiated at the same time
D. The objects belong together based on some common characteristic

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 15
Consider the following symbol, which represents information about a transformation project at ArchiSurance involving systems and business processes:

Which of the following statements correctly expresses the meaning of the symbol?
A. The Board of Directors will use the transformed systems
B. The Board of Directors has a business role in the project
C. The transformed systems will store information of interest to the Board of Directors
D. The Board of Directors has concerns about the project

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
According to the ISO/IEC 40210 standard, which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A. A view conforms to a viewpoint
B. A viewpoint always addresses one or more stakeholders
C. A concern is always important to one or more stakeholders
D. A viewpoint always covers exactly one concern

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 17
Consider the following statement:
1.
A business actor is a structural passive entity from the ArchiMate business layer.

2.
A business object is a structural passive entity from the ArchiMate business layer that can perform behavior such as business processes or functions,
Which of the following answers is correct regarding statements 1 and 2?
A. Only statement 1 is correct
B. Only statement 2 is correct
C. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 18
Which of the following answers contain only concepts within the scope of the ArchiMate Motivation extension?
A. Principle, Requirement, Work Package
B. Business Object, Business Process, Assessment
C. Program, Project, Plateau
D. Stakeholder, Driver, Principle

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 19
Which Implementation and Migration Extension viewpoint is used to model the management of architecture change?
A. Migration viewpoint
B. Implementation and Migration viewpoint
C. Business Function viewpoint
D. Project viewpoint

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Consider the following diagram, which shows a relationship between two business objects:

Which of the following best describes the relationship shown in the diagram between Insurance Policy and Insured Individuals?
A. Insurance policy is composed of insured individuals
B. Insurance policy is used by insured individuals
C. All required information about insured individuals is stored within the insurance policy record
D. Insurance policy groups insured individuals

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 21
Consider the following three graphical notations:

Which of the three graphical notations represent the concept of a network?
A. Only notation 1 represents the network concept
B. Only notation 2 represents the network concept
C. Notations 1 and 3 represent the network concept
D. All three notations represent the network concept

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Consider the following diagram, which conforms to a standard ArchiMate viewpoint that uses a simplified notation:

To which standard ArchiMate viewpoint does this diagram conform?
A. Elementary viewpoint
B. Introductory viewpoint
C. Coherence viewpoint
D. Deciding viewpoint

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 23
Consider the following example view: Which of the following best describes how this view could be used?

A. To help infrastructure engineers design necessary increases in server capacity to improve the financial reporting
B. To assign software developers to the work packages needed to address problems with the financial reporting
C. To familiarize managers and enterprise architects with the motivations of the Corporate Controller
D. To put in place changes to business processes to address requirements of the Corporate Controller

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 24
Consider the following diagram: Which of the following answers best interprets the diagram?

A. The Claims Entry application service realizes the Take Claim Over Telephone business process
B. The Claims Entry application service is used by the Take Claim Over Telephone business process
C. Information flows from the Claims Entry application to the Take Claim Over Telephone business process
D. The Claims Entry business service is used by the Take Claim Over Telephone team

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION NO: 1
Daniel is designing a Suggestions application and wants to minimize replication conflicts. Which one of the following will accomplish this?
A. Assign users Editor access to the database. Create a form of type Document and name the form “Suggestion”. Create a form of type Comment and name the form “Comments”. Use Authors fields on both forms.
B. Assign users Author access to the database. Create a form of type Document and name the form “Suggestion”. Create a form of type Comment and name the form “Comments”. Use Readers fields on both forms.
C. Assign users Author access to the database. Create a form of type Document and name the form “Suggestion”. Create a form of type Response and name the form “Comments”. Use Authors fields on both forms.
D. Assign users Editor access to the database. Create a form of type Document and name the form “Suggestion”. Create a form of type Response and name the form “Comments”. Use Readers fields on both forms.

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 2
Mac is planning a Change Control application that will be used by thousands of staff located in 10 different countries. What is one thing Mac can do to help optimize the performance of the application for his users?
A. On the Advanced tab of Database properties, enable “Support specialized response hierarchy” and enable “Allow simple search”
B. On the Advanced tab of Database properties, enable “Don’t support specialized response hierarchy” and disable “Allow simple search”
C. Use File > Application > New Copy to create a copy of the application on a server in each country, and have users access the application from a local server.
D. Use File > Replication > New Replica to create a replica of the application on a server in each country, and have users access the application from a local server.
Answer: D QUESTION NO: 3
Joe wants to display a company logo in the background of a view in his sales application. How can he do this?
A. Use an Image Resource as the background graphic for the view
B. Use a URL as the background graphic for the view, where the URL points to the logo
C. Display the view in a frameset, and set the background of the view’s frame to an Image Resource or URL depicting the logo
D. He can’t do this. Views cannot have background graphics.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 4
Kelly supports the Inventory application. This application is accessed by staff in India, the UK, Brazil, and the USA. For reasons of performance and contingency planning, the office in each country has its own server. Kelly needs the Inventory application to reside on each of these servers, and she needs to ensure that the application data and design is kept in sync among all of these locations. How can Kelly meet this requirement?
A. Select the Inventory application. For each server, create a synchronized copy of the application by selecting File > Synchronization > New Copy.
B. Select the Inventory application. For each server, create a mirror of the application by selecting File > Application > New Mirror, and specify the target Server.
C. Select the Inventory application. For each server, create a replica of the application by selecting File > Replication > New Replica, and specify the target Server.
D. Select the Inventory application. For each server, create a copy of the application by selecting File > Application > New Copy. Specify the target Server, and select the Synchronize option.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 5
Hassan has been emailed a spreadsheet with information about new training opportunities at his company. He has been asked to update the company’s Announcements application with a link that, when clicked, will open the spreadsheet. How can Hassan accomplish this?
A. Import the presentation as a new File Resource, assigning an alias of “New Training”. Add a new entry to the application outline, selecting Action as the Content Type, and setting the Content Value to @Command([OpenResource]; “New Training”).

B. Embed the presentation on a new page, setting the page Auto Launch property to First OLE Object. Add a new entry to the application outline, selecting Named Element as the Content Type and selecting the new page as the Content Value.
C. Attach the presentation on the About application document. Set the database launch property to launch the first attachment in the About database. Add a new entry to the application outline, selecting Action as the Content Type and setting the Content Value to @Command([HelpAboutDatabase]).
D. Import the presentation as a new Image Resource, retaining the filename extension as part of the resource name. Add a new entry to the application outline, selecting Named Element as the Content Type and selecting the new image resource as the Content Value.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 6
Richard’s form includes a field that causes a document to be mailed when the document is saved. Which of the following is the reserved field name that Richard assigned to the field?
A. MailSend
B. ForceMail
C. SaveOptions
D. MailOptions
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 7
Donna created a full-text index for the PerformanceReview database, and she was careful to select the “Index encrypted fields” option. But the HR managers, who all have the secret key that they use to encrypt the data, have reported that their search results are not yielding the expected results. What is one possible reason for this?
A. The full-text index was created with an id that did not include an encryption key capable of decrypting fields before indexing.
B. The “Index encrypted fields” setting applies only to documents added after the full-text index is created or to documents edited and saved after the index is created.
C. The “Index encrypted fields” setting enables the indexing. The next step before creating the index is to designate the specific encrypted fields that are to be indexed.

D. Encrypted fields can be indexed only from a database replica residing on the administration server as specified on the Advanced tab of the database ACL. Donna had indexed the database on the application server.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 8
Marcello wants to create a custom startup page for his customer database, using different buttons and values from profile and normal documents. How can he achieve this?
A. Create an outline with calculated entries, and display this directly through a frameset.
B. Create a view with custom actions that calculate what actions the user might want to take.
C. Create a page with calculated text and actions, and display this using a frameset. Create a frameset, and display that page with dynamic text.
D. Create a form and use action buttons, only calculated for display fields and computed text to display all available options to this specific user. Set the database properties to start with a doclink in the about database document to any document created with this form.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 9
In the past, Lloyd has copied an existing application if he needed to create a new application. This time, however, Lloyd wants to create a new application on his own hard drive, and he does not want the application to include any design elements from existing applications. How can he do this?
A. From the menu bar, select File > Application > New. Specify “_blank.nsf” for the new application’s filename.
B. From the menu bar, select File > Application > New. Leave the Server option set to “Local”, and ensure that the Template option is set to “-Blank-“.
C. From the menu bar, select File > Application > New. Leave the Server option set to “Local”, and specify “_blank.nsf” for the new application’s filename.
D. From the menu bar, Select File > Application > New. Set the Server option to “Local”, and specify “_blank.nsf” for the new application’s filename. Ensure that the Template option is set to “-Default-“.

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10
Management has asked Bob to post an introductory Welcome page when Notes users first open the Video application. In which one of the following places should Bob put the Welcome message?
A. In a document named $Welcome
B. In the application About Document
C. In the application Using Document
D. In the first Page in the application design
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 11
Bernhard is having trouble with an application, and he wants to allow users to save their work while they are editing. What does he need to do?
A. Select the “Allow Auto Save” in the document properties
B. Select the “Autosave document” in the document properties
C. Nothing; Notes autosaves any document in Edit mode in Notes 8.5 by default
D. Create a timerevent, and save the document periodically through UiDocument.Save
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 12
Herman has created a new design for his Video application. He would like to post the design to the server and make it available so other applications can automatically inherit the design changes when the DESIGN server tasks runs. Which one of the following should Herman to do make the new design available on the development server?
A. Copy the application to the development server, name it “newvideo.ntf”, and select “Update on DESIGN task” in the application Design properties.

B. Copy the application to the development server, name it “newvideo.ntf”, and select “Allow inheritance” in the application Design properties.
C. Copy the application to the development server, name it “newvideo.ntf”, select “Inherit design from master template”, and give it a template name in the application Design properties.
D. Copy the application to the development server, name it “newvideo.ntf”, select “Database file is a master template”, and give it a template name in the application Design properties.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 13
Malik needs to find all the design elements that reference a particular field in his database. How could he accomplish this?
A. Edit – Find Next
B. Edit – Find/Replace
C. File – Application – Analyze Design
D. File – Application – Design Synopsis
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 14
Cheryle would like to have access to her mail file while she is traveling and disconnected from the network. Once she arrives at her destination, she wants to connect to the network and synchronize her mail file updates with the server version of her mail file. How can she accomplish this?
A. Create a local copy of her mail file.
B. Create a local replica of her mail file.
C. Create a local mirror copy of her mail file.
D. Create a local synchronized copy of her mail file.
Answer: B QUESTION NO: 15
Susan has deployed a template, “sales.ntf”, for the Sales Tracking application on the test server. Fred wants to create a new Sales Tracking application using Susan’s template, and Fred wants his new application to inherit future design changes from the template. How can Fred do this?
A. Create a replica of the “sales.ntf” template, but make its file name end in “.nsf” instead.
B. Select File>Application>New, choose the test server as the template server, and choose the “sales.ntf” template.
C. Select File>Application>New, choose the test server as the template server, and give the application “sales.nsf” as a file name.
D. Create a blank application, right-click the new application icon, and choose the “Copy From Template” option. Select the “sales.ntf” file as the template, and the design elements will be copied to the new application.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 16
A system administrator needs to give Web users access to databases on DomServer1/Acme. Presently, only Lotus Notes clients are allowed to access the database using TCP/IP. What should the system administrator do?
A. Add HTTP access to the DomServer1/Acme Domino directory.
B. Add WebService access to the DomServer1/Acme Domino directory.
C. Add HTTP to the list of server tasks in the DomServer1/Acme Notes.ini file.
D. Add WebService to the list of server tasks in the DomServer1/Acme Notes.ini file.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 17
Which one of the following formulas does Cheng use to change the value of the ReleaseDate field to today’s date?
A. ReleaseDate := @Today
B. SET ReleaseDate := @Today
C. FIELD ReleaseDate := @Today
D. @ChangeField(ReleaseDate;@Today)

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 18
What type of element CANNOT be embedded into a page?
A. View
B. Editor
C. Navigator
D. Date picker
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 19
Roberto has been asked to modify the Membership view in the Video Rental application. A green checkmark should appear in the Approved view column for each document where membership has been approved. He set the view column property to “Display values as icons”, and now he needs to write a column formula. What is the column formula he needs to use?
A. @If(Approved = “Yes”; 82; 0)
B. @If(Approved = “Yes”; @OpenImageResource(“checkmark.gif”); “”)
C. @If(Approved = “Yes”; @Icon(82); @Icon(0))
D. @If(Approved = “Yes”; @Column(82); @Column(0))
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 20
Which one of the following describes the use of hidden column formulas?
A. Views can be hidden based on a formula.
B. Hidden columns are not a supported feature.
C. Table columns can be hidden based on a formula.
D. View columns can be displayed or hidden based on a formula.

Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 21
Adam is trying to update the design of a production database with changes from a design template that was tested on a special environment during development. What does he need to know before he uses the design on the production database?
A. Nothing, design changes from development can be put on the production system without additional research.
B. He needs to know if the production database is signed with a special id, to prevent ECL warnings for the users.
C. He needs to resign only the documents with the production server id; all design elements don’t need to be signed.
D. He needs to put a replica of the production database on the test environment, change the design there, and replicate it back.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 22
Norita has a form with a field that allows the user to choose the background color of a particular document. How has she set up the field to accomplish this?
A. It is a Dialog List field that allows the user to choose a color to use.
B. It is a Text field that allows the user to type the name of a color to use.
C. It is a Color field that allows the user to choose a color from the palette.
D. It is a Rich Text field that allows the user to highlight text and select a font color.
Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 1
Calvin needs to add a field to his form that allows a user to save one or more file attachments. What type of field should he use for this requirement?
A. Rich text
B. Attachment
C. Extended text
D. Text+Attachment
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
Ted is in a group that has Author access in the Review application’s ACL. However, he cannot edit a review that he created. Which one of the following is the most likely reason?
A. Authors can only create documents.
B. He must have Editor or higher access to modify documents.
C. The developer neglected to include an Authors field to the Review form.
D. The developer neglected to select the modify documents option in the ACL.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3
Joe wants to display a company logo in the background of a view in his sales application. How can he do this task?
A. Use an Image Resource as the background graphic for the view.
B. Use a URL as the background graphic for the view, where the URL points to the logo. C. Display the view in a frameset, and set the background of the view’s frame to an Image Resource or URL depicting the logo.
D. He can’t do this. Views cannot have background graphics.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 4
Lynne created a Book Review application that has a default access level of Author. She created a
Review document, but was unable to edit the document later. Why would this problem occur?
A. The document form design does not include a Readers type field.
B. The document form design does not include an Authors type field.
C. Her ACL entry needs to have the Edit document option selected.
D. She needs at least Author access with the Create Documents option selected.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 5
Shantillehas written an agent to send a nightly report of all new change control documents
created during the workday. The Change Control application exists on multiple servers, and
Shantille needs to ensure that only one report is sent each night, reporting all new change
controls, regardless of the server on which they were created. How should Shantille schedule her
agent?
A. Trigger: OnscheduleRuntime: DailySet Run on to be one specific server
B. Trigger: OnscheduleRuntime: Daily – run onceSet Run on to be -Any Server-
C. Trigger: OnscheduleRuntime: DailyFrom the hub server, set Run on to be Local
D. Trigger: OnscheduleRuntime: Daily – run onceFrom the hub server, set Run on to be Local

Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 6
Susan has deployed a template, sales.ntf, for the Sales Tracking application on the test server.
Fred wants to create a new Sales Tracking application using Susan’s template, and Fred wants
his new application to inherit future design changes from the template. How can Fred do this
task?
A. Create a replica of the sales.ntf template, but make its file name end in .nsf instead.
B. Select File > Application > New, select the test server as the template server, and select the sales.ntf template.
C. Select File > Application > New, select the test server as the template server, and give the application sales.nsf as a file name.
D. Create a blank application, right-click the new application icon, and select the Copy From Template option.Select the sales.ntf file as the template, and the design elements are copied to the new application.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 7
Nancyused a rich text field on a form to capture data. She would like to display the data in a view. What can Nancy do to accomplish this task?
A. Use @TextToRichText
B. Use aRichText lite field
C. Use @Text (fieldname) in the column formula
D. Nothing. Rich text cannot be displayed in views.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 8
Robert is adding an editable field called CountryLocation to the Member form in the Video Rental application. The field should show a value of USA when the document is first created. What formula would accomplish this behavior?
A. “USA” in the field’s Default Value object B. “USA” in the field’s Input Enabled object C. “USA” in the field’s Input Validation object
D. “USA” in the field’s Input Translation object
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 9
Eduardo chose Native OS style when he created an editable text field on a form. In which one of the following ways does the field appear to Notes users?
A. An outlined rectangle.
B. Blank space marked off by red brackets.
C. Blank space marked off by black brackets.
D. The field does not display to Notes users. It is only visible to Web users.

QUESTION NO: 10

Erica has created a Registration form for the Customer Orders application. She has set the Type
option of the Pwd field to Password. What do users see displayed as they populate the Pwd field?
A. An asterisk displays for each character that is typed.
B. The encrypted value of each character is displayed as the user types.
C. The user sees nothing displayed, but the typed characters are captured and stored as an encrypted value.
D. As the user types in thePwd field, the typed characters display. When focus leaves the field, asterisks display, and the typed characters are stored as an encrypted value.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 11
When Robert created a Response form, he set the Formulas inherit values from selected document option on the form properties. The Status field on the Review form is also named Status on the inheriting form. However, the form does not inherit any data. Which one of the following most likely caused this problem?
A. He failed to specify the form type.
B. The inheriting form is not a Response form.
C. He specified the same field names on both forms.
D. He failed to provide inheritance formulas for each field.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 12
Cheryle would like to have access to her mail file while she is traveling and disconnected from the network. After she arrives at her destination, she wants to connect to the network and synchronize her mail file updates with the server version of her mail file. How can she accomplish this task?
A. Create a local copy of her mail file.
B. Create a local replica of her mail file.
C. Create a local mirror copy of her mail file.
D. Create a local synchronized copy of her mail file.

QUESTION NO: 13

Tyrone is working on the branding of the company’s Registration application, and he needs to add the company logo to each form. How can he do this task and minimize potential future maintenance if the logo changes?
A. Add a computed link to the logo in each form.
B. Add the logo from the Resources > Files area.
C. Add the logo from the Resources > Images area.
D. Add the logo from the Resources > Style Sheets area.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 14
Jared would like to change the default database icon that was created for his new Invoice application. Where can he find the icon design element in Designer?
A. Resources > Icon
B. Resources > Images
C. Resources > Files > Icon
D. Resources > Images > Icon

Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 15
.When Marc creates a new document in the Suggestion database, he sees short descriptions of
the fields at the bottom of the form. What design feature has been used to create this behavior?
A. Default Value for the Field
B. Field Hint in the Field Properties window
C. Help Description in the Field Properties window
D. Field Assistance in the Field Properties window
Answer: C QUESTION NO: 16

Robert needs to use the document locking feature in his application. He has asked the server administrator to enable it. What must he also do to his application to enable the feature?
A. Select Allow document locking on the Basic tab of the Application properties.
B. Enable the Allow document locking Form property for each form that should allow locking.
C. Nothing. After document locking is enabled on the server, all the applications on that server automatically use document locking.
D. Enable the Allow document locking Application property and select each form that requires document locking from the list.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 17
Jonas has created a section on the Site Visit form and he would like it to be collapsed when the
form is opened in the Notes client. How can he configure his application to accomplish this task?
A. There is no way to do this; sections always open expanded.
B. Modify the section property Opened forReading to auto-hide.
C. Change the section type from standard to controlled access.
D. Modify the section property Opened forReading to auto-collapse.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 18
Rosa created a formula for a shared action. The code is supposed to set the value of an existing
field called Surname. She used the following formula:
Surname := @Propercase(Surname);
After the formula runs, the Surname field still has the original value. Which one of the following is
the reason?

A. There is no @Save command in the formula that would allow the field value to be updated.
B. When setting the value of a field, the formula must be in the field’s Input Translation event.
C. The text string in the formula is set to null, so Notes does not permanently change the field value.
D. The formula does not specify that Surname is an existing field, so it is interpreted as a temporary variable.

QUESTION NO: 19
Richie has created an administrative view in the Video Rental application to show when each document was created. What @Function can he use to show the date and time that the document was created?
A. @Created
B. @NewDate
C. @OriginalDate
D. @CreationDate
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 20
Francis has written an agent that updates the video documents in the Video Rental application.
What are some of the agent trigger events that Francis can use to cause his agent to execute?
A. onLoad, onUnload, onClick
B. onClick, onMouseover, onExit
C. Postsave, Postopen, Querysave
D. When documents are pasted,When server starts, Action menu selection
Answer: D

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QUESTION NO: 1

The ABC Company site gets redesigned and content creators are required to edit the site framework by moving some site areas from one section of the site framework to another. How can this task be done?
A. Content authors must navigate to a site area list and select a site area, click move, then select a library and the the site area to move to.
B. You cannot move a site area from one library to another.
C. Content authors must navigate to a site area list and select a site area, click Save As, then select a library and the site area, to save to the new library. Then, delete the site area in the old library.
D. A site area must not have any content to be moved to another library.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 2
Matt is the administrator of a Workplace Web Content Management-based website. The infrastructure consists of a development server and two production servers in a cluster. The Marketing site consists of three libraries (Marketing_Events, Marketing_News, and Marketing_Technical). What does Matt need to do to get the data from all the Marketing libraries from the development server to the production servers?
A. Create a separate Syndicator on the development server for each library. Create a subscriber on each of the production servers that references the Syndicator.
B. Create a Syndicator on the development server that references all three libraries. Create a subscriber on each of the production servers that references the Syndicator.
C. Create a Syndicator on the development server that references all three libraries. Create a subscriber on one of the production servers that references the Syndicator.
D. Create a Subscriber on the development server that references all three Libraries. Create a Syndicator on one of the production servers that references the Subscriber.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 3

Stephen’s Lotus Web Content Management website contains a variety of company events within the Events site area. He needs to give his content creators choices to organize events as corporate, public, or private. Which one of the following options does Stephen need to create to allow this action?
A. Keywords
B. Categories
C. A Taxonomy and a list of Keywords
D. A Taxonomy and a list of Categories
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 4
Adam works as the web content management administrator within the Finance department. One of the authoring templates within his library is called Results. Within this authoring template, his content authors enter how many products, such as teddy bears, have been purchased. Currently all fields within this authoring template have been created as text fields. How can Adam ensure that his content authors enter whole numbers?
A. Adam must change the fields within the Results authoring template from Text to Number.

B. Adam must change the fields within the Results authoring template from Text to Currency.

C. Adam must change the fields within the Results authoring template from Text to Currency.
Within the field properties, he should set the
minimum and maximum values.

D. Adam must change the fields within the Results authoring template from Text to Numbers.
Within the field properties, he should select the
Whole Numbers Only radio button.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 5
Cindy has created a Style Sheet component named “corp_style” within the component library. This stylesheet needs to be added to each of her site’s presentation templates. Which of the following options is the appropriate way to reference a stylesheet within a presentation template?

A. [component name=”corp_style”]
B. [element name=”corp_style”]
C. <link rel=”stylesheet” href='[element name=”corp_style”]’>
D. <ink rel=”stylesheet” href='[component name=”corp_style”]’>
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 6
Kylie created an Authoring Tool component named CreateNewsItems. She wants to reference this component in the menu component that she is developing. What is the correct syntax that will accomplish this task?
A. [Component name=”CreateNewsItems” ]
B. [AuthoringTool name=”CreateNewsItems” ]
C. [Component name=”CreateNewsItems” compute=”always” ]
D. [AuthoringTool name=”CreateNewsItems” compute=”always” ]
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 7
Peter’s content authors need to reference preloaded Adobe Flash objects within their content items. His content authors do not have the ability to write the HTML object tags needed for the Flash components, so Peter creates HTML objects to reference. Peter’s users need the ability to easily reference these HTML library components on their content item. How can this task be accomplished?
A. Peter needs to create Alternate Design fields on his authoring template, so that his users are able to reference the different HTML objects.
B. Peter needs to create Conditional fields on his authoring template, so that his users are able to reference the different HTML objects.
C. Peter needs to create Component Reference fields on his authoring template, so that his users are able to reference the different HTML objects.
D. Peter needs to create User Selection fields on his authoring template, so that his users are able to reference the different HTML objects.
Answer: C QUESTION NO: 8
Martin is creating a Custom launch page for web content management authoring and wants to display a link to create content. Which of the following options describes the code that he should use?
A. <a href=” [Plugin:RemoteAction action=”new” type=”com.ibm.workplace.wcm.api.WCM_Content”]”>New Content</a>
B. <a href=” [Plugin:RemoteAction action=”new” type=”com.ibm.workplace.wcm.api.Content”]”>New Content</a>
C. <a href=”?wcmAuthoringAction=new&type=com.ibm.workplace.wcm.api.WCM_Content”>Create new Content</a>
D. <a href=”?wcmAuthoringAction=new&type=com.ibm.workplace.wcm.api.Content”>Create new Content</a>
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 9
Laura is a Workplace Web Content Management developer. She is creating a presentation template that needs to display the following:
–
A content element (Body)

–
A navigator (SiteNav)
-The company’s corporate logo (CorpLogo), which is an Image component in the Component library
Which one of the following answers best describes how she can accomplish this task?
A. [element type=”content” context=”current” key=”Body”/]
<br><br>
[component name=”SiteNav”/]
<br><br>
[element name=”CorpLogo”/]

B. [element type=”content” context=”current” key=”Body”/]
<br><br>
[element name=”SiteNav”/]
<br><br>
[element name=”CorpLogo”/]

C. [element type=”content” context=”current” key=”Body”/]
<br><br>
[component name=”SiteNav”/]
<br><br>
[component name=”CorpLogo”/]

D. [component type=”content” context=”current” key=”Body”/]
<br><br>
[component name=”SiteNav”/]
<br><br>
[component name=”CorpLogo”/]

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 10
AT Corp’s website contains a number of Terms and Conditions statements. Each of these statements contains the date through which the statements are valid. Sam, a developer, does not want to hard code this value in each of the Terms and Conditions statements. What can Sam do to centralize the management of this date?
A. Use the [date] tag within each Terms and Conditions component.
B. Use the [calendar] tag within each Terms and Conditions component.
C. Create a Calendar component. Reference this component in each Terms and Conditions statement.
D. Create a Date and Time component. Reference this component in each Terms and Conditions statement.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 11
When using the Element tag, the type parameter allows you to use any of the following values, except which one?
A. Content
B. Selected

C. Parent
D. Top Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 12
The AT Printer Corp is a manufacturer of computer printers. They are building a new website using Lotus Web Content Management. The site contains pages that describe each of their product lines. When content creators are creating a product content item, they are required to include one of five preformatted company slogans as a part of the content. Which of the following action can Jim, a developer, do to facilitate this requirement easily?
A. Jim creates an authoring template and adds all five slogans as HTML components to the
authoring template. The HTML components are then
referenced in an Option Selection element on the authoring template.

B. Jim first creates an Option Selection component in the Component library with all five slogans.
Jim then adds this Option Selection component
to the authoring template using Manage Elements.

C. Jim gives content creators the Contributor role on the authoring template. Content Creators can
then use Manage Elements to add a new field
to each content item for the slogan.

D. Jim first creates five HTML components in the Component library; one for each slogan. Jim can
add a Component Reference element to the
authoring template.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 13
What is the default content form layout for all authoring templates?
A. Tabbed
B. Labeled sections
C. Collapsible sections
D. The default can be changed for each library.
Answer: A QUESTION NO: 14
When using the Component tag, the parameter compute is applicable to all of the following components, except which one?
A. Menu component
B. Taxonomy component
C. Navigator component
D. Search component
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 15
Julie is a developer. In creating a series of Terms and Conditions statements, she always needs to reference the company’s Tax Identification Number (for example, 09291966). Because this number needs to be reused repeatedly, Julie chooses to create this Tax Identification Number as its own element. Which element type is best suited for this need?
A. Text
B. Number
C. Integer
D. Rich text
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 16
Joe is a building a website using Lotus Web Content Management. He is tasked with setting up the authoring template and presentation template so that his team can create content for new products when it is available in the company website. Each product has its own image. These are stored as Image components by the media group and content authors must use these images. What can he do to enable the authors to reference the corresponding image when creating the content with product details?

A. A component-reference element can be added to an presentation template. This action then allows content creators to select an existing Image component from the component library with the appropriate image when creating content.
B. An Image-reference element can be added to an authoring template. This action then allows content creators to select an existing Image component from the component library with the appropriate image when creating content.
C. A component-reference element can be added to an authoring template. This action then allows content creators to select an existing Image component from the component library with the appropriate image when creating content.
D. A Image element can be added to an authoring template. This action then allows content creators to upload the image directly when creating content. The media group must deliver the images directly to content authors instead of creating an Image component.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 17
Which of the following author time search queries is invalid?
A. +content -draft
B. -draft
C. +content +draft
D. draft*
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 18
Fred wants to use a custom rich text editor as the default for the Authoring portlet of his Lotus Web Content Management server. Which statement best describes the steps that he must follow to carry this out?
A. He cannot; only the default editors can be used.
B. Fred copies the JSP file supplied by the independent rich text editor to his portal and references it in the Authoring portlet.
C. Fred copies the JavaScript file supplied by the independent rich text editor to his portal and references it in the Authoring portlet
D. Fred references the JSP file supplied by the independent rich text editor and references it in the

Authoring portlet. There is no need to copy
any files because the file does not need to be deployed to the portal.

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 19
Belinda would like to use Lotus Web Content Manageent Taxonomy components with menus to allow users to filter content items with the site. Belinda creates a form and when testing her form, she appends the following Query String to the URL so that the URL shows to users as:
http://host/wps/wcm/connect/site/home/NorthAmerica?Year=2011&Template=Publications
Which of the following settings would the Menu component need to be set to use the above parameters?
A. The Menu Element Query should be set to Categories and Authoring Templates.
In Categories > Further Options, Current Content should be selected, the restrict to parameter
should be selected and should be set to Year.
In Authoring Template > Further Options, Current Content should be selected.

B. The Menu Element Query should be set to Categories and Authoring Templates.
In Categories > Further Options, the field Query String should be selected, with the Parameter set
to Publications.
In Authoring Template > Further Options, the field Query String should be selected, with the
Parameter set to 2011.

C. The Menu Element Query should be set to Categories and Authoring Templates.
In Categories > Further Options, Query String should be selected, with the Parameter set to Year.
In Authoring Template > Further Options, Query String should be selected, with the Parameter set
to Template.

D. The Menu Element Query should be set to Categories and Authoring Templates.
In Categories > Further Options, Current Content should be selected.
In Authoring Template > Further Options, Current Content should be selected.

Answer: C

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Question: 1
Which of the following descriptions about dynamic routing protocol is correct? ( )
A. The fundamentals of RIPng are the same as those of RIP, but RIPng speeds up convergence compared with RIP.
B. The packet format of OSPFv3 is the same as that of OSPF, but OSPFv3 can support IPv6.
C. MBGP is the unique EGP routing protocol in the IPv6 network.
D. IS-IS supports multiple protocols so that it can support IPv6 without any modification.

Answer: C
Question: 2
We usually do not choose the equipment with key module redundancy to backup at the access layer. And dual-uplink backup should be used instead of dual-system backup.
A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Question: 3
We usually choose the equipment with key module redundancy to backup at the convergence layer. Dual-uplink backup and dual-system backup should be used. Ring topology can be adopted connecting the convergence layer devices.
A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Question: 4
The equipment with carrier-class reliability refers to the equipment that supports large capacity, non-stop running, key module redundancy, and high stability.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question: 5
VPNs that provide data encryption include IPSec VPN, SSL VPN, DVPN 1.0 and DVPN 2.0.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Question: 6
Which of the following descriptions about VPN is correct? ( )
A. VPN indicates that the user leases a line by itself and the line shall be secure and separated from the public network completely and physically.
B. VPN refers to a temporary and secure connection established by the user over the public network.
C. VPN cannot provide information authentication or identity authentication.

Exam Name:  Designing Enterprise-level Networks
Exam Type:  Huawei
Exam Code:  GB0-363  Total Questions:  91

D. VPN provides identity authentication only and does not offer data encryption.

Answer: B
Question: 7
The security services in the Open System Interconnection security architecture include ( ) and anti-DoS.
1) Authentication 2) Access control 3) Data privacy service 4) Data integrity service
A. 1) and 2)
B. 1), 2) and 3)
C. 2) and 4)
D. 1), 2), 3) and 4)

Answer: D
Question: 8
During the IP address planning for an enterprise network, we should use the private addresses in principle. In case of insufficiency of the private address space, we can use the public addresses as long as NAT is applied for Internet access.
A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Question: 9
Which of the following should be taken into consideration during the IP planning? ( )
A. Uniqueness
B. Continuity
C. Expandability
D. Saving IP address

Answer: A, B, C, D
Question: 10
If the external path cost of the imported external route is comparable with the internal path cost of OSPF, or the internal path cost of OSPF can influence the selection of the egresses to reach the external network, the type of the imported external route should be set to Type 2.
A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Question: 11
If the data link layer protocol in the OSPF P2P network is PPP, two OSPF routers whose interface addresses are in different subnets can still establish adjacency and learn the routing information correctly.

Exam Name:  Designing Enterprise-level Networks
Exam Type:  Huawei
Exam Code:  GB0-363  Total Questions:  91

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Question: 12
The ABR is defined in OSPF as ( ).
A. A router configured with multiple areas
B. A router configured with multiple areas, including the backbone area
C. A router configured with multiple areas, including the backbone area where there is at least one peer in the FULL state
D. A router configured with multiple areas, including the backbone area, and with at least one peer in each area

Answer: C
Question: 13
Which of the following IPv6 tunnels is/are automatically established? ( )
A. ISATAP
B. 6to4 tunnel
C. NAT-PT
D. SIIT

Answer: A, B
Question: 14
The difference between Stub area and Total Stub area in OSPF is the different processing of ( ).
A. Type 1 LSA
B. Type 2 LSA
C. Type 3 LSA
D. Type 5 LSA
E. Type 7 LSA
Answer: C
Question: 15
The maximum number of routers in an OSPF area should be ( ).
A. 30
B. 60
C. 90
D. 100
Answer: A
Question: 16
The static routing can provide backup and load balancing for the dynamic routing.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B Question: 17

Exam Name:  Designing Enterprise-level Networks
Exam Type:  Huawei
Exam Code:  GB0-363  Total Questions:  91

Which of the following descriptions about VLSM is wrong? ( )
A. VLSM can be used in the hierarchical network that supports route aggregation.
B. VLSM can use the existing IP address resources more effectively.
C. VLSM does not define masks strictly in accordance with the IP address classes.
D. All the classfuld and classless routing protocols support VLSM.

Answer: D
Question: 18
If the branches of a central-and-branch network use 2Mbps Frame Relay links, what technology should be used at the center for the sake of scalability? ( )
A. PPP
B. FR
C. ATM
D. SDH
Answer: C
Question: 19
Which is the descending sequence of the ATM services in terms of the service quality? ( )
A. CBR ABR rt-VBR nrt-VBR UBR
B. rt-VBR nrt-VBR CBR ABR UBR
C. CBR rt-VBR nrt-VBR ABR UBR
D. rt-VBR CBR nrt-VBR UBR ABR

Answer: C
Question: 20
The dialing line is used in ( ).
A. Remote access
B. Remote management
C. Line backup
D. Backbone link
Answer: A, B, C
Question: 21
Frame Relay is a packet switching technology, while ATM is a circuit switching technology.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Question: 22
The DLCI numbers at both ends of the Frame Relay network must be identical.
A. True
B. False

Exam Name:  Designing Enterprise-level Networks
Exam Type:  Huawei
Exam Code:  GB0-363  Total Questions:  91

Answer: B
Question: 23
An enterprise has only one public address and uses Email, DNS and Web servers to provide external services, which of the following should be used to solve the problem? ( )
A. Static NAT
B. Static port NAT
C. IP-based dynamic NAT
D. Port-based dynamic NAT

Answer: B
Question: 24
Compared with SNMPv1, SNMPv2c has made the improvements including ( ).
A. Supporting more operations, such as getbulk_request and inform_request
B. Supporting more data types, such as counter64
C. Providing more error processing codes
D. The community name is transmitted in cryptograph

Answer: A, B, C
Question: 25
Which of the following can be used to solve the BGP route flapping problem during the BGP deployment in a large-sized network? ( )
A. Router reflector
B. Route confederation
C. Route suppression
D. Route filtering
E. Route aggregation

Answer: C, E
Question: 26
Which of the following should be taken into consideration to choose the routing protocol for a large-sized network? ( )
A. Network scalability
B. Maturity and whether supported by different vendors
C. Overhead of the protocol packets
D. Convergence time and whether routing loop may arise
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question: 27
Which of the following is/are correct when deploying BGP in a large-sized network? ( )
A. In case of overlarge routing table (over 100 thousand routes), route aggregation should be used.
B. In case of overmany IBGP connections, route reflector or confederation should be used.
C. In case of route flapping in a complex network, BGP damping should be used.

Exam Name:  Designing Enterprise-level Networks
Exam Type:  Huawei
Exam Code:  GB0-363  Total Questions:  91

D. In case of relatively low performance of the network equipment, BGP routes should be only sent, not received.

Answer: A, B, C, D
Question: 28
BGP MED attribute or Local Preference attribute can be used to select the egress for the inter-AS traffic.
A. True
B. False

Answer: A
Question: 29
BGP sends route update through UDP.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Question: 30
The black hole route cannot be imported into BGP.
A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Question: 31
The common security equipment includes the Firewall, Intrusion Detection System (IDS) and Intrusion Prevention System (IPS). The IDS serves as the gateway and is deployed on the path of main service traffic, while the Firewall and IPS are deployed on the bypass.
A. True
B. False

Answer: B
Question: 32
Which of the following descriptions about the POS, ATM and fast Ethernet technologies is/are correct? ( )
A. ATM was once regarded the core technology to realize broadband communication in virtue of its flexibility and multimedia service support.
B. Compared with ATM, POS provides higher transmission rate and farther transmission distance.
C. Compared with fast Ethernet, ATM takes dominance in LAN and MAN by its simple realization, high bandwidth and high performance price ratio.
D. An advantage of ATM is that it can provide better QoS.
Answer: A, B, D
Question: 33
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Question: 1
STP is a routing protocol.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

Question: 2
Which of the following statements is right about 802.1x ports? ( )
A. 802.1x supports the port-based authentication only.
B. The ports of authenticator fall into controlled ports and uncontrolled ports.
C. Uncontrolled ports always forward bi-directionally whether the authentication is passed or not.
D. Controlled ports transmit EAPOL protocol packets only.
Answer: B, C

Question: 3
By default, among the switches in a bridging network, the one with the minimum MAC address will be selected as the Root bridge.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Question: 4
By default, among the switches in a bridging network, the one with the best performance will be selected as the Root bridge.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

Question: 5
On H3C middle-end/low-end switches, once a bridge receives two BPDUs with the same Root bridge ID, the same root path cost and the same transmitting bridge ID, there are two parallel links between the two bridges. ( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Question: 6
On an H3C middle-end/low-end switch, once a bridge receives two BPDUs with the same Root bridge ID, the same root path cost, and the same transmitting bridge ID, there are two ports of the transmitting bridge connected to one physical segment. ( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: A Question: 7

Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP) is defined in ( ).
A. 802.1d
B. 802.1q
C. 802.1w
D. 802.1s
Answer: D

Question: 8
MSTP implements load balance on multiple trunk links for different VLANs. ( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Question: 9
Which of the following MST instances can be processed by MSTP? ( )
A. CIST
B. IST
C. MST
D. MSTI
Answer: B, D

Question: 10
In MSTP, one VLAN can be mapped to multiple MSTIs. ( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

Question: 11
Which of the following statements is right about unicast, multicast and broadcast? ( )
A. Unicast is applicable to point-to-point communications, and the receiver of unicast packets can be a single host or a gateway.
B. Multicast is applicable to point-to-multipoint communications, and the receiver of multicast packets can be multiple hosts or gateways.
C. Broadcast is applicable to point-to-multipoint communications, and the receiver of broadcast packets can be all hosts or gateways in the network.
D. A host just passively receives the unicast, multicast or broadcast packets.
Answer: A, B, C

Question: 12
In a point-to-multipoint network, either unicast or multicast can be adopted. In comparison, which of the following advantages does multicast provide? ( )
A. Multicast uses less IP address resources.

B. Multicast lowers the performance requirement to servers.
C. Multicast can reduce network traffic and save network bandwidth.
D. Multicast is more reliable in packet transmission.
Answer: B, C

Question: 13
Which of the following methods cannot be used to configure H3C middle-end and low-end switches? ( )
A. Console
B. Xmodem
C. Telnet
D. Dial-up with Modems
Answer: B

Question: 14
In a point-to-multipoint network, either unicast or multicast can be adopted. In comparison, which of the following disadvantages does multicast provide? ( )
A. Based on UDP, multicast transmission is less reliable.
B. Multicast adopts Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF), which increases the burden of the router.
C. Multicast exchanges packets without sequence garantee, and a special mechanism is needed for sequenced packets transmission.
D. Multicast is lack of security mechanism, and is not applicable for the transmission of +confidential data.
Answer: A, B, C

Question: 15
Compared with unicast, multicast provides many advantages. Which of the following applications adopts multicast? ( )
A. Dynamic routing protocols
B. Multimedia conference
C. Data distribution
D. Games and simulation
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question: 16
Presently, common multicast routing protocols are ( ).
A. PIM-SM
B. PIM-DM
C. IGMP
D. DVMRP
Answer: A, B, D
Question: 17
Multicast protocols fall into group member management protocols and multicast routing protocols. Which of the following is a multicast routing protocol? ( )

A. PIM
B. GMRP
C. IGMP
D. DVMRP
E. MOSPF
Answer: A, D, E
Question: 18
To deploy multicast services between different ASs, intra-AS multicast protocols are far from enough. Which of the following is mainly used for the inter-domain multicast? ( )
A. MBGP
B. MSDP
C. MASC
D. BGMP
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question: 19
In the Layer-3 routing network, the multicast routing protocol and the group member management protocol implement multicast distribution. However, in the Layer-2 network, Layer-2 switching equipment does not support the multicast routing protocol and the group member management protocol. Which of the following can be used for the Layer-2 multicast forwarding? ( ).
A. PIM-SM
B. GMRP
C. IGMP
D. IGMP Snooping
E. DVMRP
Answer: B, D

Question: 20
A multicast address indicate a special group of members. Which of the following statements is right about multicast address? ( )
A. 224.0.0.0239.255.255.255 are available multicast addresses, which can be used freely by anyone or any organization.
B. 239.0.0.5 is the address of a local management group.
C. 224.0.0.0224.0.0.255 are reserved addresses for multicast, which cannot be used freely by anyone or any organization.
D. 224.0.1.100 is a multicast address, which can be used freely by anyone or any organization.
Answer: B, C

Question: 21
Some multicast addresses have been reserved for some special applications. Which of the following statements is right about these specialmulticast addresses? ( )
A. 224.0.0.1 means all the multicast members, including the routers.
B. 224.0.0.2 means all the multicast members, but not including the routers.
C. 224.0.0.13 means all the PIM routers.
D. 224.0.1.1 means all the NTP members.

Answer: A, C, D

Question: 22
In the Ethernet, the first 3 bytes of all the multicast MAC addresses are 01-00-5e. ( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

Question: 23
For multicast MAC addresses, only 23-bit of them can be allocated freely. For multicast IP addresses, 28-bit of them can be allocated freely. Therefore, in the mapping relationship between the multicast IP address and MAC address, each MAC address corresponds to 32 IP addresses. ( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Question: 24
On the H3C switch, VRRP can be used to implement ( ).
A. Gateway backup of the LAN
B. Gateway backup of the WAN
C. Load balance
D. Port monitoring for improving network reliability
Answer: A, C, D

Question: 25
Which of the following statements is right about the multicast IP address and the multicast MAC address? ( )
A. One multicast IP address is mapped to one multicast MAC address.
B. The last 23-bit of the multicast IP address and that of the multicast MAC address are mapped one-to-one.
C. The last 24-bit of the multicast IP address and that of the multicast MAC address are mapped one-to-one.
D. None of the above
Answer: B

Question: 26
The kernel technology of multicast forwarding is RPF. Which of the following statements is right about RPF? ( )
A. RPF is the abbreviation of Reverse Path Forwarding.
B. RPF is based on the destination address of the packet and the unicast routing table.
C. RPF is based on the source address of the packet and the unicast routing table.
D. RPF is independent of any unicast routing protocol.
Answer: A, C, D Question: 27

The RPF of multicast checks the source address of the packet. If the inbound interface of the packet is the same as the outbound interface of a unicast route which matches the source address, the reverse check is successful. The multicast packet will be forwarded according to the multicast forwarding table. ( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Question: 28
The RPF of multicast checks the source address of the packet. If the inbound interface of the packet is not the same as the outbound interface of any unicast route which matches the source address, the reverse check fails. The multicast packet will be dropped. ( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Question: 29
Different Layer-2 switching equipments process the multicast packet differently. Which of the following statements is right about multicast packet processing of Layer-2 switching equipments? ( )
A. All Layer-2 switching equipments broadcast the received multicast packets.
B. The switches that support the Layer-2 multicast protocols can set up forwarding entries for multicast packets through snooping IGMP packets. In this way, the packets are forwarded to the desired ports.
C. The Layer-2 switches that support IGMP Snooping provide only IGMP packet snooping, and do not make any improvement in multicast packet forwarding.
D. None of the above
Answer: B
Question: 30
The last ( ) of the multicast MAC address is mapped to that of the multicast IP address.
A. 22-bit
B. 23-bit
C. 24-bit
D. 25-bit
Answer: B

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Question: 1
STP is a routing protocol.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

Question: 2
Which of the following statements is right about 802.1x ports? ( )
A. 802.1x supports the port-based authentication only.
B. The ports of authenticator fall into controlled ports and uncontrolled ports.
C. Uncontrolled ports always forward bi-directionally whether the authentication is passed or not.
D. Controlled ports transmit EAPOL protocol packets only.
Answer: B, C

Question: 3
By default, among the switches in a bridging network, the one with the minimum MAC address will be selected as the Root bridge.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Question: 4
By default, among the switches in a bridging network, the one with the best performance will be selected as the Root bridge.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

Question: 5
On H3C middle-end/low-end switches, once a bridge receives two BPDUs with the same Root bridge ID, the same root path cost and the same transmitting bridge ID, there are two parallel links between the two bridges. ( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Question: 6
On an H3C middle-end/low-end switch, once a bridge receives two BPDUs with the same Root bridge ID, the same root path cost, and the same transmitting bridge ID, there are two ports of the transmitting bridge connected to one physical segment. ( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: A Question: 7

Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP) is defined in ( ).
A. 802.1d
B. 802.1q
C. 802.1w
D. 802.1s
Answer: D

Question: 8
MSTP implements load balance on multiple trunk links for different VLANs. ( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Question: 9
Which of the following MST instances can be processed by MSTP? ( )
A. CIST
B. IST
C. MST
D. MSTI
Answer: B, D

Question: 10
In MSTP, one VLAN can be mapped to multiple MSTIs. ( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

Question: 11
Which of the following statements is right about unicast, multicast and broadcast? ( )
A. Unicast is applicable to point-to-point communications, and the receiver of unicast packets can be a single host or a gateway.
B. Multicast is applicable to point-to-multipoint communications, and the receiver of multicast packets can be multiple hosts or gateways.
C. Broadcast is applicable to point-to-multipoint communications, and the receiver of broadcast packets can be all hosts or gateways in the network.
D. A host just passively receives the unicast, multicast or broadcast packets.
Answer: A, B, C

Question: 12
In a point-to-multipoint network, either unicast or multicast can be adopted. In comparison, which of the following advantages does multicast provide? ( )
A. Multicast uses less IP address resources.

B. Multicast lowers the performance requirement to servers.
C. Multicast can reduce network traffic and save network bandwidth.
D. Multicast is more reliable in packet transmission.
Answer: B, C

Question: 13
Which of the following methods cannot be used to configure H3C middle-end and low-end switches? ( )
A. Console
B. Xmodem
C. Telnet
D. Dial-up with Modems
Answer: B

Question: 14
In a point-to-multipoint network, either unicast or multicast can be adopted. In comparison, which of the following disadvantages does multicast provide? ( )
A. Based on UDP, multicast transmission is less reliable.
B. Multicast adopts Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF), which increases the burden of the router.
C. Multicast exchanges packets without sequence garantee, and a special mechanism is needed for sequenced packets transmission.
D. Multicast is lack of security mechanism, and is not applicable for the transmission of +confidential data.
Answer: A, B, C

Question: 15
Compared with unicast, multicast provides many advantages. Which of the following applications adopts multicast? ( )
A. Dynamic routing protocols
B. Multimedia conference
C. Data distribution
D. Games and simulation
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question: 16
Presently, common multicast routing protocols are ( ).
A. PIM-SM
B. PIM-DM
C. IGMP
D. DVMRP
Answer: A, B, D
Question: 17
Multicast protocols fall into group member management protocols and multicast routing protocols. Which of the following is a multicast routing protocol? ( )

A. PIM
B. GMRP
C. IGMP
D. DVMRP
E. MOSPF
Answer: A, D, E
Question: 18
To deploy multicast services between different ASs, intra-AS multicast protocols are far from enough. Which of the following is mainly used for the inter-domain multicast? ( )
A. MBGP
B. MSDP
C. MASC
D. BGMP
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question: 19
In the Layer-3 routing network, the multicast routing protocol and the group member management protocol implement multicast distribution. However, in the Layer-2 network, Layer-2 switching equipment does not support the multicast routing protocol and the group member management protocol. Which of the following can be used for the Layer-2 multicast forwarding? ( ).
A. PIM-SM
B. GMRP
C. IGMP
D. IGMP Snooping
E. DVMRP
Answer: B, D

Question: 20
A multicast address indicate a special group of members. Which of the following statements is right about multicast address? ( )
A. 224.0.0.0239.255.255.255 are available multicast addresses, which can be used freely by anyone or any organization.
B. 239.0.0.5 is the address of a local management group.
C. 224.0.0.0224.0.0.255 are reserved addresses for multicast, which cannot be used freely by anyone or any organization.
D. 224.0.1.100 is a multicast address, which can be used freely by anyone or any organization.
Answer: B, C

Question: 21
Some multicast addresses have been reserved for some special applications. Which of the following statements is right about these specialmulticast addresses? ( )
A. 224.0.0.1 means all the multicast members, including the routers.
B. 224.0.0.2 means all the multicast members, but not including the routers.
C. 224.0.0.13 means all the PIM routers.
D. 224.0.1.1 means all the NTP members.

Answer: A, C, D

Question: 22
In the Ethernet, the first 3 bytes of all the multicast MAC addresses are 01-00-5e. ( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

Question: 23
For multicast MAC addresses, only 23-bit of them can be allocated freely. For multicast IP addresses, 28-bit of them can be allocated freely. Therefore, in the mapping relationship between the multicast IP address and MAC address, each MAC address corresponds to 32 IP addresses. ( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Question: 24
On the H3C switch, VRRP can be used to implement ( ).
A. Gateway backup of the LAN
B. Gateway backup of the WAN
C. Load balance
D. Port monitoring for improving network reliability
Answer: A, C, D

Question: 25
Which of the following statements is right about the multicast IP address and the multicast MAC address? ( )
A. One multicast IP address is mapped to one multicast MAC address.
B. The last 23-bit of the multicast IP address and that of the multicast MAC address are mapped one-to-one.
C. The last 24-bit of the multicast IP address and that of the multicast MAC address are mapped one-to-one.
D. None of the above
Answer: B

Question: 26
The kernel technology of multicast forwarding is RPF. Which of the following statements is right about RPF? ( )
A. RPF is the abbreviation of Reverse Path Forwarding.
B. RPF is based on the destination address of the packet and the unicast routing table.
C. RPF is based on the source address of the packet and the unicast routing table.
D. RPF is independent of any unicast routing protocol.
Answer: A, C, D Question: 27

The RPF of multicast checks the source address of the packet. If the inbound interface of the packet is the same as the outbound interface of a unicast route which matches the source address, the reverse check is successful. The multicast packet will be forwarded according to the multicast forwarding table. ( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Question: 28
The RPF of multicast checks the source address of the packet. If the inbound interface of the packet is not the same as the outbound interface of any unicast route which matches the source address, the reverse check fails. The multicast packet will be dropped. ( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Question: 29
Different Layer-2 switching equipments process the multicast packet differently. Which of the following statements is right about multicast packet processing of Layer-2 switching equipments? ( )
A. All Layer-2 switching equipments broadcast the received multicast packets.
B. The switches that support the Layer-2 multicast protocols can set up forwarding entries for multicast packets through snooping IGMP packets. In this way, the packets are forwarded to the desired ports.
C. The Layer-2 switches that support IGMP Snooping provide only IGMP packet snooping, and do not make any improvement in multicast packet forwarding.
D. None of the above
Answer: B
Question: 30
The last ( ) of the multicast MAC address is mapped to that of the multicast IP address.
A. 22-bit
B. 23-bit
C. 24-bit
D. 25-bit
Answer: B

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