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QUESTION 1
You are a sales representative at a trade show.
A trade show attendee leaves a business card at your company’s booth.
You need to enter the attendee’s information into Microsoft Dynamics CRM for the sales team to qualify.
Which record type should you create?

A. Contact
B. Account
C. Opportunity
D. Lead

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
You own an opportunity but need to allow other users to view and edit it. What should you do?
A. Create a connection for a team, add the sales team role, and add the connection to the opportunity.
B. Add users to the access team on the opportunity.
C. Add users to the access team template.
D. Create a connection for each user, add the sales team role, and add the connection to the opportunity.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
You are adding products to an opportunity.
You want to calculate the estimated revenue based on the products added.
What should you do to enable this function?

A. Set the estimated budget.
B. Configure the exchange rate.
C. Use write-in products.
D. Add a price list

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
What is the purpose of the business process flow in the opportunity form?
A. To show other users who are collaborating on the opportunity
B. To provide a sales script for the salesperson to use when speaking to a potential customer
C. To show the current stage in the sales lifecycle
D. To enforce entry of mandatory fields

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
You need to ensure that lead qualification is automated and occurs when a field on the Lead Form is set to
a certain value.
What should you do?

A. Switch the business process flow to set the status of the lead to qualified when the condition is met.
B. Create a business process flow that automatically sets the status of the lead to qualified when the condition is met.
C. Create a dialog that automatically sets the status of the lead to qualified when the condition is met.
D. Create a workflow that automatically sets the status of the lead to qualified when the condition is met.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 6
A staff member at your client organization sends you an email message, inquiring about a product that the client might buy.
After you track the email message, what should you do?
A. Convert the email message to the opportunity.
B. Convert the email message to an account and contact.
C. Create a quote, and link the email message to the quote.
D. Create an order, and link the email message to the order.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
You are creating a goal for the number of phone calls made versus the number of phone calls scheduled.
You need to establish the number of scheduled calls for your organization.
Which value provides this information?

A. In-progress
B. Actual
C. Closed
D. Target

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
You want to share a personal chart that you created.
Who can you share your chart with? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.

A. Resource group
B. Access team
C. Team
D. User

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 9
Each member of your sales team must earn an individual sales revenue quota for the year in order to receive a bonus. You create the goal metric and identify the Metric Type as Amount and the Amount Data Type as Money.
You need to complete the configuration of the goal metric.
What should you do?
A. Add rollup fields.
B. Create goals.
C. Create fiscal years.
D. Create rollup queries.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 10
You create an Advanced Find view that consists of columns from the account entity. Which action is possible when customizing the view?
A. Adding columns from related of records
B. Creating three levels of sort criteria
C. Setting the option to filter columns to ensure it displays by default when opening the view
D. Merging two columns into one

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
You create an opportunity report by using the Report Wizard. The report returns too many records.
You need to reduce the number of records returned by the report.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

Choose two.

A. Make the report a personal report.
B. Reduce the number of columns.
C. Designate a top or bottom number.
D. Apply a filter.

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 12
You need to create a dashboard that will include an external website. Which component should you add?
A. Quick view
B. Sub-grid
C. IFRAME
D. Web resource

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 13
You create a new entitlement.
What is the initial status of the entitlement?

A. Active
B. Waiting
C. Created
D. Draft

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 14
You create a new case that includes a service level agreement (SLA). You place the case on hold because you need to wait for additional information from the customer.
What is the status of the SLA key performance indicator (KPI) instance record related to the case?
A. Failed
B. In progress
C. On hold
D. Paused

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 15
You create a new service level agreement (SLA) and enter the amount of time that is allowed for it.
You need to send an email message to the user assigned to a case when the time limit of the SLA is about to be exceeded.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Configure the Warning Actions on the SLA item record.
B. Specify the Applicable When conditions on the SLA item record.
C. Configure the SLA Item Warning on the SLA item record.
D. Configure the SLA Item Failure on the SLA item record.

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 16
You create a case and link it to a standard service level agreement (SLA) with the timer configured on the
case form.
You need to review the case status and report the information to your manager.
Which piece of information about the time of the case is available?

A. Total time the case is on hold
B. Failure time
C. Warning time
D. Total time the case is in processing

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 17
You need to specify the number of support hours a customer will receive. What should you create?
A. A service activity
B. A service level agreement (SLA)
C. An entitlement
D. A contract template

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18
You choose a case from the customer support queue. Your company mandates that all requests with customers be tracked regardless of the outcome.
You call the customer and learn that the case was submitted on your company’s customer portal by mistake.
What should you do?
A. Cancel the case.
B. Delete the case.
C. Resolve the case.
D. Reactivate the case.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 19
You work at the support desk for a software company.
When the newest version of a popular app is released, you receive an influx of support requests regarding
an issue. The research and development team identify the issue as a bug and prepare to fix it.
You need to identify existing cases in which this bug was reported and relate them to one another so that
they can be closed simultaneously when the bug fix has been released.

What should you do?

A. From the parent case, select create child case for each of the cases that reported the bug.
B. From the active cases view, select all of the cases that are reporting the bug, and then select merge cases.
C. From the child case, select similar cases to find the cases that reported the bug.
D. From the active cases view, select all of the cases that are reporting the bug, and then select associate child cases.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 20
You are responsible for creating and managing Microsoft Dynamics CRM Knowledge Base templates and
articles.
A user wants an image to be added to a Knowledge Base article.
What should you do?

A. Create a web resource, and add it to the Knowledge Base template.
B. Insert the image into the Knowledge Base template.
C. Copy and paste the image into the Knowledge Base article.
D. Drag and drop the image onto the Knowledge Base article.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 21
You are the customer service manager of a call center and are performing a daily review of your team’s cases. A case record owned by a member of your team has a flag in the research stage of the business process flow.
What does this indicate about the case?
A. The user is finished with that stage.
B. The case is at this stage.
C. The case is ready to close.
D. There is a required field at this stage.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 22
Two active case records are related to the same issue but have nothing else in common.
Your manager asks you to make an association between the records.
What should you do?

A. Merge the two case records.
B. Reference the case ID of the other case in the case ID field of each case.
C. Add one case to the sub-grid on the other case for similar cases.
D. Reference the case ID of the other case in the notes field of each case.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 23
You create a new user.
Which record will Microsoft Dynamics CRM automatically create for the user?

A. Queue
B. Account
C. Contact
D. Team

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 24
You create a chart on your personal dashboard. The chart displays the service technician’s monthly goals
for case resolution.
You need to make this chart available on another dashboard.
What should you do?

A. In the other dashboard, select the existing chart.
B. Export the chart. Import the chart into Charts under the case entity. Go to the dashboard entity, and add the chart to the dashboard.
C. Share the chart from your personal dashboard to the case entity, and add the chart to the system service dashboard.
D. Share the chart from your personal dashboard to the system service dashboard.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 25
You are the team lead in a large call center.
You want to know the originating source for the majority of your team’s cases.
You need a report that includes the following information:

The number of cases each of your team members owns by Origin (Phone, Email, Web)

The percentage of cases owned as a proportion of total cases by Origin Which report should you use?

A.
Service Analysis Report

B.
Customer Service Maintenance Report

C.
Neglected Cases

D.
Case Summary Table Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following policy categories are considered to be mufti-slot policies? (Select the two that apply)
A. Trusted Application
B. IPS Rules
C. Firewall Rules
D. IPS Protection
E. IPS Options

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 2
Firewall client rules are created in Adaptive Mode using which of the following parameters?
A. Per-user
B. Per-process
C. Per-application
D. Per-signature

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which of the following is the main log file for IPS?
A. FireTray.log
B. HipShield log
C. HipMgtPlugin.log
D. McTrayHip.log

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
The option to select Create Exception upon an Intrusion Event will only be available if the IPS Rules Policy has been configured with which of the following?
A. Adaptive Mode
B. Learn Mode
C. Create Exceptions
D. Allow Client Rules
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
What detail property includes the Local Time Zone value of a managed machine?
A. Virus Scan Enterprise properties
B. McAfee Agent properties
C. Host Intrusion Prevention properties
D. System Information properties
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Under which HIPs Policy category can IPS Engines be disabled for troubleshooting?
A. IPS Options
B. Firewall Rules
C. Trusted Applications (All Platforms)
D. Client Ul (Windows)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Which of the following is the HIPs executable for the HIPs Client Ul?
A. FireSvc.exe
B. FireTray.exe
C. McAfeeFire.exe
D. Mfefire.exe

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Which of the following are used to create custom signatures? (Select the three that apply)
A. Signature Builder
B. Signature Creation Wizard
C. Advanced Mode
D. Standard Mode
E. Expert Mode

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 9
Which of the following is a supported browser for Host IPS and ePO? (Select the two that apply)
A. Internet Explorer
B. Firefox
C. Safari
D. Chrome
E. Opera
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 10
Which of the following server services is responsible for communication with the McAfee agent?
A. Apache
B. Tomcat
C. SQL
D. Event Parser
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which of the following are the listed signature severity levels within HIPs? (Select the four that apply)
A. High
B. Major
C. Medium
D. Minor E. Low
F. Informational

Correct Answer: ACEF QUESTION 12
Which of the following items can be found under the IPS Policy tab in the HIPs Client Ul?
A. IPS exceptions from ePO Policy
B. Locally created IPS Client Rules
C. Blocked Hosts
D. Firewall traffic

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 13
Which of the following options cannot be used to define a trusted network?
A. Single Address
B. Address Range
C. Subnet Address
D. Network Protocol

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 14
Where are Host IPS custom signatures created?
A. ePO console
B. Host IPS client Ul
C. Host IPS Ul
D. Firewall Ul

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
Which of the following HIPs Client features, when enabled, allows the user to make decisions on allowing or denying traffic to the local host?
A. Adaptive mode
B. Listening mode
C. Inherit mode
D. Learn mode

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
Which of the following Firewall Rule group options is used to prevent undesirable traffic from accessing the network by only processing traffic that matches both the “allow rules” above the group in the Firewall rules list and the group criteria?
A. Unbridged traffic
B. Network quarantine
C. Connection isolation
D. Network seclusion Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Which of the following custom signature rule types are used to prevent process termination and modification?
A. Files
B. Hook
C. Services
D. Program

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 18
Which of the following items can be found under the IPS Policy tab of the HIPS Client Ul?
A. IPS exceptions from ePO Policy
B. Locally created IPS Client Rules
C. Blocked Hosts
D. Firewall traffic

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
The time period between the moment a vulnerability is identified and a patch is released is commonly referred to as the ______________window.
A. Vulnerability
B. Time to patch
C. Protection
D. Threat remediation

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 20
Which of the following is the default location for the McAfee Agent configuration files?
A. Common Framework
B. System 32
C. My Documents
D. Windows Temp

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 21
Which of the following is the main log file for Firewall?
A. FireTray.log
B. FireSvc.log
C. HipMgtPlugin.log
D. McTrayHip.log

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 22
The McAfee Framework Service is responsible for which of the following functions? (Select the two that apply)
A. Schedule Server Tasks
B. Enforce Policies
C. Collect and Send System Properties
D. Scan for Threats and Vulnerabilities
E. Policy Throttling

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 23
Which utility is used to help automate upgrades and maintenance tasks with third-party software that has been tasked with deploying HIPs on client computers?
A. ClieniControI.exe
B. fwinfo.exe
C. McAfee Installation Designer
D. Extension Manager

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Why is it recommended lo change the agent-to-server and console-to-server communication ports from their default values during installation?
A. These ports are commonly subjected to malicious exploitation
B. The default values are in the common domain
C. The default ports may already be in use inside of the network
D. To avoid technical issues with port allocation

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Which of the following ClientControl utility command line arguments force the Firewall component to allow all traffic?
A. tfwPassthru
B. /fwinfo
C. /execinfo
D. /defConfig
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
In which order are HIPs Firewall rules processed to filler incoming packets’?
A. Top to bottom
B. Bottom to top
C. Most severe rules first
D. Least severe rules first
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
Which of the following is the HIPs executable for the McAfee Validation Trust Protection service?
A. FireSvc.exe
B. FireTray.exe
C. FrameworkService.exe
D. Mfevlps.exe

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QUESTION 1
Which port needs to be opened for Alert Channel communication between Sensor and Manager through a firewall?
A. 8501
B. 8502
C. 8503
D. 8555

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
Setting a threshold to allow an IPS to react when traffic volume exceeds the set limit is an example of what type of detection method?
A. Signature based
B. Pattern matching
C. Denial of Service
D. Remediation

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
Performance debugging mode can be enabled on a sensor for a specified time duration by issuing which of the following CLI commands?
A. sensor perf-debug 100
B. sensor perf-debug on 100
C. sensor perf-debug Interface all 100
D. sensor perf-debug assert 100

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
What type of encryption is used for file transfers between the Sensor and the Manager?
A. SSL with RC4
B. SSL with MD5
C. SSL with RC4 and MD5
D. DES
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 5
When placed in Layer3 mode, a Sensor detects a Layer2 device based on which of the following?
A. MAC address
B. IP address
C. DNS
D. Subnet

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
What is the CLI command that enables the output of the MAC/IP address mapping table to the sensor debug files?
A. arp spoof status
B. arp spoof enable
C. arp dump
D. arp flush

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
DoS detection is implemented in which of the following modes? (Choose two)
A. Learning mode
B. Configuration mode
C. Threshold mode
D. Bidirectional mode
E. Inbound mode

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 8
Which port needs to be opened for Packet Log Channel communication between Sensor and Manager through a firewall?
A. 8501
B. 8502
C. 8503
D. 8555

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Which port is correctly defined for the Alert Channel on the Network Security Manager?
A. 8500
B. 8501
C. 8502
D. 8504

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
In double VLAN tagging, a second VLAN tag that is inserted into the frame is referred to as which of the following?
A. Customer Identification tag (CD)
B. VLAN Identification tag (VID)
C. Outer Identification tag (OID)
D. Inner Identification tag (HD)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which of the following information is unique to Host Intrusion Prevention alerts? (Choose three)
A. Destination IP
B. User
C. Source IP
D. Agent IP
E. Agent name

Correct Answer: BDE QUESTION 12
Which mode is used when certain hosts are located on the same network as a sensor and other hosts enter through a router or VPN?
A. Mixed
B. Hybrid
C. Enforcement
D. Prevention

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13
Which mode needs to be set to redirect an unmanaged system to the guest portal?
A. Audit
B. Simulation
C. Enforcement
D. Prevention

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
Which attack cannot be blocked when the sensor has been set for in-line mode?
A. TCP Control Anomaly
B. ICMP Echo Anomaly
C. Too Many Inbound Syn
D. SCADA Attacks

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
Which database is supported for Network Security Manager?
A. MSSQL
B. Oracle
C. MySQL
D. Sybase

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 16
Which of the following is the correct extension for a Sensor image imported into the Manager?
A. ext
B. .opt
C. jar
D. .mfe

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 17
Which CLI command is used to copy sensor SSL certificates from external flash when replacing a failed sensor?
A. Exportsensorcerts
B. Importsensorcerts
C. Exportcerts
D. Importcerts

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 18
Which of the following deployment modes is not included in standard NAC?
A. System Health based NAC
B. DHCP based NAC
C. L2 based NAC
D. L3 based NAC

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
The Network Security Manager provides the following built-in Network Access Zones. (Choose three)
A. Allow DNS Access
B. Allow Full Access
C. Public Network Only
D. Allow DHCP Access
E. Allow Intranet Access

Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 20
A sensor will redirect the host to which of the following when McAfee NAC reports the Host status as “unmanaged with an Unknown Health Level”?
A. Guest Client Portal
B. NAC Client Portal
C. Sensor Client Portal
D. DNS Server Portal

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 21
If the Health level of a Host cannot be determined. McAfee NAC assigns which of the following System Health levels to that Host?
A. Fair
B. Poor
C. Serious
D. Unknown

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 22
Reconnaissance Policies can be applied to which of the following sensor nodes?
A. Sensor name node only
B. Sensor interface node only
C. Sensor sub-interface node only
D. Sensor name, interface and sub-interface node

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
Which command is used to manually download signature tiles from the tftpserver when connectivity to the Manager is not available?
A. Loadimage WORD
B. Loadconfig WORD
C. Loadconfiguration WORD
D. Loadsigset WORD

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
When the buffer on the alert cache has been filled, what happens to current incoming alerts?
A. Incoming alerts are added to the cache and the oldest alerts are dropped
B. Incoming alerts are not added to the cache and are dropped
C. Incoming alerts are held in queue until cache space is cleared
D. Incoming alerts are added to the database directly

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Which policy is assigned to a child domain by default?
A. The default IDS policy
B. The default IPS policy
C. No default policy
D. The policy of the parent domain

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
Which of the following modes can be used to implement DoS detection? (Choose two)
A. Learning Mode
B. Threshold Mode
C. Configuration Mode
D. Adaptive Mode
E. Transition Mode
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 27
Which of the following methods are available for upgrading a Sensor image?
A. TFTP and/or through the Manager
B. PUTTY and/or through the Manager
C. Console connection and/or through the Manager
D. TFTP, console connection and/or through the Manager
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 28
Which of the following deployment modes receives a copy of the packet from a mirrored switch port?
A. Redundant
B. SPAN
C. TAP
D. In-line

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
Which of the following are the different operational modes of System Health based NAC? (Choose three)
A. Audit
B. Simulation
C. Enforcement
D. Prevention
E. Quarantine

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 30
Which of the following are considered part of the Operational mode of System Health-based NAC? (Choose three)
A. Audit
B. IPS
C. TAP
D. Simulation
E. Enforcement
F. SPAN

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 31
Policies can be configured to drop packets when which of the following has been defined?
A. The policy has been enabled
B. The underlying rule set permits dropped packets
C. The sensor is deployed in Inline mode
D. The policy has been cloned

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
Setting a threshold on a sensor to react if traffic volume exceeds the threshold limit is an example of what specific detection method?
A. Signature based
B. DHCP based
C. Pattern matching
D. Denial of Service (DoS)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is a public IP address?
A. 10.0.0.1
B. 62.10.1.1
C. 172.16.0.1
D. 192.168.1.1
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
Which of the following ports MUST be open to connect to a PC using RDP?
A. 21
B. 80
C. 443

D. 3389
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3
Which of the following is the MAXIMUM transfer speed of USB 2.0?
A. 100 Mbps
B. 400 Mbps
C. 420 Mbps
D. 480 Mbps

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 4
Which of the following display connections has 15-pins?
A. RGB
B. VGA
C. DVI
D. HDMI
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
Which of the following connector types is only used for Coaxial?
A. RJ-11
B. ST
C. F

D. RJ-45
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
Which of the following cable types has the MAXIMUM transfer rate of 1 Gbps?
A. CAT3
B. CAT5
C. CAT5e

D. CAT6
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 7
Which of the following features of Windows allows a device to have a default IP address if a DHCP server is not available?
A. APIPA
B. ARP
C. IPv6

D. DNS
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
Which of the following wireless standards is backwards compatible with 802.11g?
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11n
D. 802.1q

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 9
Which of the following types of RAM can be used in a dual channel configuration?
A. SDRAM
B. RAMBUS
C. DDR
D. DIMM
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
Which of the following is the BEST protocol to use for securely transferring large files?
A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. SFTP

D. FTP
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 11
Which type of fire extinguishing technology should be used when encountering an electrical fire?
A. Class B fire extinguishers
B. Overhead sprinkler system
C. Water-based fire extinguishers
D. Non-water based extinguishers

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
Which of the following will provide the BEST protection against power failures and data loss?
A. Auto-switching power supply
B. Uninterruptible power supply
C. Line conditioner
D. Surge suppressor

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 13
Which of the following tools are commonly used to remove dust and debris from inside a computer? (Select TWO).
A. Cotton and alcohol
B. Vacuum
C. Compressed air
D. Anti-bacterial surface cleaner
E. Feather duster

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 14
Which of the following is the BEST way to explain RAID to a non-technical user?
A. “RAID is a dynamic logical disk management system.”
B. “RAID uses multiple hard disks to increase performance and/or provide protection against data loss.”
C. “RAID uses data striping to reduce hard drive write time and parity bits to reconstruct the data from a failed hard drive.”
D. “RAID stands for Redundant Array of Independent Disks”.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
Which of the following is representative of a class C address type?
A. 10.15.1.4
B. 169.254.125.15
C. 172.20.15.5
D. 192.168.1.15
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
A client wants a technician to install more RAM on their graphics workstation. The client has provided a 4 GB SODIMM and had problems installing it. Which of the following is the probable reason for this?
A. Graphic workstations require flash memory
B. The memory is incompatible for the workstation
C. Graphic workstations require solid state memory
D. The workstation has no available memory slots

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 17
Which of the following MUST be performed when installing a PCI sound card for use instead of the onboard sound?
A. Install drivers
B. Install additional memory
C. Configure the jumpers
D. Flash the BIOS

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which of the following hard drive types would be considered the MOST likely to survive a fall?
A. SCSI
B. Solid State

C. IDE
D. SATA
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Which of the following are the MOST important factors to address when a technician is choosing the components for a CAD workstation? (Select THREE).
A. Large drive space allocation
B. Powerful sound card
C. Multiple network cards
D. Multiple large HD monitors
E. Powerful video card
F. Maximum RAM
G. Powerful processor

Correct Answer: EFG
QUESTION 20
Which of the following is the speed limitation for CAT3 wiring?
A. 1 Mbps
B. 10 Mbps
C. 100 Mbps
D. 1000 Mbps

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
If a technician is trying to remote into a computer through a firewall, which of the following ports, by default, MUST be forwarded?
A. 21
B. 25
C. 110
D. 3389
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Which of the following wireless network standards provides the FASTEST throughput?
A. A
B. B
C. G

D. N
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 23
Which of the following allows a technician to enable support for a USB 1.1 device?
A. MBR
B. HCL
C. BIOS

D. AGP
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 24
Which of the following connectors from a power supply should be used with a graphics expansion card?
A. 8-pin 12 volt
B. PCIe 6-pin
C. 20-pin

D. SATA
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 25
An end user requires a computer to support computer aided drafting and computer aided modeling. Which of the following component packages should a technician recommend to the end user?
A. Powerful processor, high-end graphics card, and maximum RAM
B. File streaming, printer sharing, and a RAID array
C. Surround sound audio, compact form factor, HDMI output
D. Processor and RAM that meets minimum Windows requirements

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 26
After installing a bar code reader, which of the following is commonly done to configure the reader?
A. Scan in program codes
B. Enable the code reader in the BIOS
C. Use Device Manager to enable I/R ports
D. Adjust jumper switches

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 27
Which of the following expansion slots would support the HIGHEST transfer speeds for high-end graphics cards? (Select TWO).
A. PCIe
B. AGP 8x
C. PCI
D. ISA
E. AGP Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 28
Which of the following represents a connector that supports the connection of external devices? (Select TWO).
A. IEEE1394
B. eSATA

C. EIDE
D. SATA
E. IDE
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 29
Which of the following are the MOST important considerations when configuring a PC that will be used for a CAD / CAM workstation? (Select TWO).
A. Gigabit NIC
B. HDMI output
C. Maximum RAM
D. Powerful processor
E. High end audio output

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 30
Which of the following input devices allows multiple PCs to share a common display?
A. Router
B. Bridge
C. KVM
D. Wireless keyboard
Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 1
Which of the following ports and protocol types must be opened on a host with a host-based firewall to allow incoming SFTP connections?
A. 21/UDP
B. 21/TCP
C. 22/UDP
D. 22/TCP
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
SSH uses TCP port 22. All protocols encrypted by SSH, including SFTP, SHTTP, SCP, SExec, and slogin, also use TCP port 22.

Incorrect Answers:
A, C: FTP ,and SSH do not make use of UDP ports.

B: FTP uses TCP port 21.
References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 51.

QUESTION 2
A network administrator is asked to send a large file containing PII to a business associate.
Which of the following protocols is the BEST choice to use?
A. SSH
B. SFTP
C. SMTP
D. FTP
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
SFTP encrypts authentication and data traffic between the client and server by making use of SSH to provide secure FTP communications. As a result, SFTP offers protection for both the authentication traffic and the data transfer taking place between a client and server.
Incorrect Answers:
A: SSH is employed by SFTP.
C: SMTP is the email-forwarding protocol used on the Internet and intranets.
D: Standard FTP does not provide any confidentiality protection because it sends all data in the clear.
References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 49, 50.

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is a difference between TFTP and FTP?
A. TFTP is slower than FTP.
B. TFTP is more secure than FTP.
C. TFTP utilizes TCP and FTP uses UDP.
D. TFTP utilizes UDP and FTP uses TCP.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
FTP employs TCP ports 20 and 21 to establish and maintain client-to-server communications, whereas TFTP makes use of UDP port 69.
Incorrect Answers:
A: UDP is faster than TCP is because there is no form of flow control or error correction.
B: TFTP requires no authentication, whereas FTP allows authenticated connections.
C: As stated above, FTP employs TCP ports 20 and 21 and TFTP makes use of UDP port 69.
References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 49, 50.
http://www.skullbox.net/tcpudp.php

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is the default port for TFTP?
A. 20
B. 69
C. 21
D. 68
Correct Answer: B Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
TFTP makes use of UDP port 69.

Incorrect Answers:
A, C: FTP (File Transfer Protocol) uses ports 20 and 21

D: Port 68 TCP/UDP is used by Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP) Client; as well Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).
References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 51. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_TCP_and_UDP_port_numbers
QUESTION 5
A network consists of various remote sites that connect back to two main locations. Pete, the security administrator, needs to block TELNET access into the network. Which of the following, by default, would be the BEST choice to accomplish this goal?
A. Block port 23 on the L2 switch at each remote site
B. Block port 23 on the network firewall
C. Block port 25 on the L2 switch at each remote site
D. Block port 25 on the network firewall
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Telnet is a terminal-emulation network application that supports remote connectivity for executing commands and running applications but doesn’t support transfer
of fi les. Telnet uses TCP port 23. Because it’s a clear text protocol and service, it should be avoided and replaced with SSH.

Incorrect Answers:
A, C: L2 switches may interconnect a small number of devices in a home or the office. They are normally used for LANs.

D: Port 25 is used by Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) for e-mail routing between mail servers.
References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 51.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Network_switch#Layer_2
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_TCP_and_UDP_port_numbers

QUESTION 6
A security analyst noticed a colleague typing the following command:
`Telnet some-host 443′
Which of the following was the colleague performing?
A. A hacking attempt to the some-host web server with the purpose of achieving a distributed denial of service attack.
B. A quick test to see if there is a service running on some-host TCP/443, which is being routed correctly and not blocked by a firewall.
C. Trying to establish an insecure remote management session. The colleague should be using SSH or terminal services instead.
D. A mistaken port being entered because telnet servers typically do not listen on port 443.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B: The Telnet program parameters are: telnet <hostname> <port> <hostname> is the name or IP address of the remote server to connect to. <port> is the port number of the service to use for the connection. TCP port 443 provides the HTTPS (used for secure web connections) service; it is the default SSL port. By running the Telnet some-host 443 command, the security analyst is checking that routing is done properly and not blocked by a firewall.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The telnet command parameter used by the colleague is done to check what service is running, i.e. HTTPS, not an attempt to get a denial of service attack.
C: TCP port 443 will not allow an insecure remote session because is the default SSL port.
D: TCP port 443 is the default SSL port and SSH makes use of TCP port 22.
References:
https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/kb/290051
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 83.

QUESTION 7
A malicious program modified entries in the LMHOSTS file of an infected system. Which of the following protocols would have been affected by this?
A. ICMP
B. BGP
C. NetBIOS

D. DNS
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The LMHOSTS file provides a NetBIOS name resolution method that can be used for small networks that do not use a WINS server. NetBIOS has been adapted to run on top of TCP/IP, and is still extensively used for name resolution and registration in Windows-based environments.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is a network health and link-testing protocol that is commonly used by tools such as ping, traceroute, and pathping. It
is not include in the LMHOSTS file.

B: Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is a standardized exterior gateway protocol designed to exchange routing and reachability information between autonomous
systems (AS) on the Internet. It is not include in the LMHOSTS file.

C: Domain Name System (DNS) distributes the responsibility of assigning domain names and mapping those names to IP addresses by designating authoritative
name servers for each domain.
It is not include in the LMHOSTS file.

References: https://technet.microsoft.com/library/Cc977602 http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Border_Gateway_Protocol http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Domain_Name_System
QUESTION 8
An information bank has been established to store contacts, phone numbers and other records. A UNIX application needs to connect to the index server using port
389. Which of the following authentication services should be used on this port by default?
A. RADIUS
B. Kerberos

C. TACACS+
D. LDAP
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
LDAP makes use of port 389.
Incorrect Answers:
A: RADIUS makes use of various UDP ports.
B: Kerberos makes use of port 88.
C: TACACS makes use of TCP port 49 by default.
References: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_TCP_and_UDP_port_numbers
QUESTION 9
A firewall technician has been instructed to disable all non-secure ports on a corporate firewall. The technician has blocked traffic on port 21, 69, 80, and 137-139. The technician has allowed traffic on ports 22 and 443. Which of the following correctly lists the protocols blocked and allowed?
A. Blocked: TFTP, HTTP, NetBIOS; Allowed: HTTPS, FTP
B. Blocked: FTP, TFTP, HTTP, NetBIOS; Allowed: SFTP, SSH, SCP, HTTPS
C. Blocked: SFTP, TFTP, HTTP, NetBIOS; Allowed: SSH, SCP, HTTPS
D. Blocked: FTP, HTTP, HTTPS; Allowed: SFTP, SSH, SCP, NetBIOS

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The question states that traffic on port 21, 69, 80, and 137-139 is blocked, while ports 22 and 443 are allowed.

Port 21 is used for FTP by default.
Port 69 is used for TFTP.
Port 80 is used for HTTP.
Ports 137-139 are used for NetBIOS.
VMM uses SFTP over default port 22.
Port 22 is used for SSH by default.
SCP runs over TCP port 22 by default.
Port 443 is used for HTTPS.

Incorrect Answers:

A: FTP uses port 21, which is blocked.
C: SFTP uses port 22, which is allowed.
D: HTTPS uses port 443, which is allowed. NetBIOS uses ports 137-139, which is blocked.
References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd548299.aspx https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh545212(v=sc.20).aspx https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/
library/dd425238(v=office.13).aspx https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh427328.aspx

QUESTION 10
A company has implemented PPTP as a VPN solution. Which of the following ports would need to be opened on the firewall in order for this VPN to function properly? (Select TWO).
A. UDP 1723
B. TCP 500
C. TCP 1723
D. UDP 47
E. TCP 47
Correct Answer: CD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A PPTP tunnel is instantiated by communication to the peer on TCP port 1723. This TCP connection is then used to initiate and manage a second GRE tunnel to
the same peer. The PPTP GRE packet format is non-standard, including an additional acknowledgement field replacing the typical routing field in the GRE header.
However, as in a normal GRE connection, those modified GRE packets are directly encapsulated into IP packets, and seen as IP protocol number 47.

Incorrect Answers:
A, E: PPTP uses a control channel over TCP and a GRE tunnel operating to encapsulate PPP packets.

B: TCP port 500 is used by the Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol (ISAKMP) References: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Point-to-Point_Tunneling_Protocol http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_TCP_and_UDP_port_numbers
QUESTION 11
After a new firewall has been installed, devices cannot obtain a new IP address. Which of the following ports should Matt, the security administrator, open on the firewall?
A. 25
B. 68
C. 80
D. 443
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a standardized network protocol used on Internet Protocol (IP) networks for distributing IP addresses for interfaces and services. DHCP makes use of port 68.
Incorrect Answers: A: SMTP makes use of port 25.
C: HTTP makes use of port 80.
D: HTTPS makes use of port 443
References:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dynamic_Host_Configuration_Protocol http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_TCP_and_UDP_port_numbers

QUESTION 12
A security administrator has configured FTP in passive mode. Which of the following ports should the security administrator allow on the firewall by default?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 23
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
When establishing an FTP session, clients start a connection to an FTP server that listens on TCP port 21 by default.
Incorrect Answers:
A: FTP uses port 20, but it is not the default port.
C: SSH uses TCP port 22.
D: Telnet uses port 23.
References:
http://compnetworking.about.com/od/tcpip/p/port-numbers-21-ftp.htm http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_TCP_and_UDP_port_numbers

QUESTION 13
Which of the following ports is used for SSH, by default?
A. 23
B. 32
C. 12
D. 22
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Secure Shell (SSH) is a cryptographic network protocol for securing data communication. It establishes a secure channel over an insecure network in a client-server architecture, connecting an SSH client application with an SSH server. Common applications include remote command- line login, remote command execution, but any network service can be secured with SSH. SSH uses port 22.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Port 23 is used by the Telnet protocol, not by SSH.
B: Port 32 is an unassigned port.
C: Port 12 is an unassigned port.
References: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_TCP_and_UDP_port_numbers http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Secure_Shell http://www.planetlinks.com/tec236/notes-terms/4-10-06/default-tcp-ports-list.html
QUESTION 14
By default, which of the following uses TCP port 22? (Select THREE).
A. FTPS
B. STELNET
C. TLS
D. SCP
E. SSL
F. HTTPS
G. SSH
H. SFTP
Correct Answer: DGH Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
G: Secure Shell (SSH) is a cryptographic network protocol for securing data communication. It establishes a secure channel over an insecure network in a client-server architecture, connecting an SSH client application with an SSH server. Common applications include remote command- line login, remote command execution, but any network service can be secured with SSH. SSH uses port 22.
D: SCP stands for Secure Copy. SCP is used to securely copy files over a network. SCP uses SSH to secure the connection and therefore uses port 22.
H: SFTP stands for stands for Secure File Transfer Protocol and is used for transferring files using FTP over a secure network connection. SFTP uses SSH to secure the connection and therefore uses port 22.
Incorrect Answers:
A: FTPS stands for File Transfer Protocol Secure. FTPS is similar to SFTP in that it is used to securely transfer files. The difference between the two is the encryption protocol used. FTPS uses the SSL or TLS cryptographic protocols and therefore uses port 443.
B: STelnet stands for secure telnet. STelnet uses SSL by default and therefore uses port 443.
C: TLS (Transport Layer Security) is a successor to SSL and uses port 443.
E: SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) uses port 443.
F: HTTPS (Hypertext transfer protocol secure) is used by web sites to encrypt and security transmit data. HTTPS uses the SSL or TLS cryptographic protocols and therefore uses port 443.
References: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_TCP_and_UDP_port_numbers
QUESTION 15
Pete needs to open ports on the firewall to allow for secure transmission of files. Which of the following ports should be opened on the firewall?
A. TCP 23
B. UDP 69
C. TCP 22
D. TCP 21
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
SSH uses TCP port 22. All protocols encrypted by SSH, including SFTP, SHTTP, SCP, SExec, and slogin, also use TCP port 22. Secure Copy Protocol (SCP) is a secure file-transfer facility based on SSH and Remote Copy Protocol (RCP). Secure FTP (SFTP) is a secured alternative to standard File Transfer Protocol (FTP).
Incorrect Answers:
A: Telnet uses port 23.
B: Port 69 is used by TFTP.
D: Port 21 is used by FTP.
References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 42, 51.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_TCP_and_UDP_port_numbers

QUESTION 16
Which of the following uses port 22 by default? (Select THREE).
A. SSH
B. SSL
C. TLS
D. SFTP
E. SCP
F. FTPS
G. SMTP
H. SNMP
Correct Answer: ADE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
SSH uses TCP port 22. All protocols encrypted by SSH, including SFTP, SHTTP, SCP, SExec, and slogin, also use TCP port 22.
Incorrect Answers:
B: SSL operates over TCP port 443.
C: TLS can operate over TCP ports 443 and 80.
F: FTPS uses ports 989 and 990.
G: SMTP uses TCP port 25.
H: SNMP makes use of UDP ports 161 and 162.
References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 42, 45, 51.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_TCP_and_UDP_port_numbers

QUESTION 17
Which of the following ports should be used by a system administrator to securely manage a remote server?
A. 22
B. 69
C. 137
D. 445
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Secure Shell (SSH) is a more secure replacement for Telnet, rlogon, rsh, and rcp. SSH can be called a remote access or remote terminal solution. SSH offers a means by which a command- line, text-only interface connection with a server, router, switch, or similar device can be established over any distance. SSH makes use of TCP port 22.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Port 69 is used by TFTP.
C: NetBIOS uses port 137.
D: Port 445 is used by Microsoft-DS.
References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 42, 51.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_TCP_and_UDP_port_numbers

QUESTION 18
Which of the following ports is used to securely transfer files between remote UNIX systems?
A. 21
B. 22
C. 69
D. 445
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
SCP copies files securely between hosts on a network. It uses SSH for data transfer, and uses the same authentication and provides the same security as SSH. Unlike RCP, SCP will ask for passwords or passphrases if they are needed for authentication. SSH uses TCP port 22. All protocols encrypted by SSH, including SFTP, SHTTP, SCP, SExec, and slogin, also use TCP port 22.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Port 21 is used by FTP.
C: Port 69 is used by TFTP.
D: Port 445 is used by Microsoft-DS.
References: http://www.computerhope.com/unix/scp.htm Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 51. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_TCP_and_UDP_port_numbers
QUESTION 19
Which of the following secure file transfer methods uses port 22 by default?
A. FTPS
B. SFTP
C. SSL
D. S/MIME
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
SSH uses TCP port 22. All protocols encrypted by SSH, including SFTP, SHTTP, SCP, SExec, and slogin, also use TCP port 22. Incorrect Answers:
A: FTPS uses ports 989 and 990.
C: SSL operates over TCP port 443.
D: S/MIME is an Internet standard for encrypting and digitally signing e-mail.
References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 45, 51, 313.

QUESTION 20
During the analysis of a PCAP file, a security analyst noticed several communications with a remote server on port 53. Which of the following protocol types is observed in this traffic?
A. FTP
B. DNS
C. Email
D. NetBIOS
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
DNS (Domain Name System) uses port 53.
Incorrect Answers:
A: FTP (File Transfer Protocol) uses ports 20 and 21, not port 53.
C: Email uses multiple ports depending on what aspect of `email’ we’re talking about. For example SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) used for sending email uses port 25. POP3 and IMAP, two methods of accessing and downloading email use ports 110 and 143 respectively.
D: NetBIOS uses ports 137, 138 and 139.
References: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Domain_Name_System http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_TCP_and_UDP_port_numbers
QUESTION 21
A security technician needs to open ports on a firewall to allow for domain name resolution. Which of the following ports should be opened? (Select TWO).
A. TCP 21
B. TCP 23
C. TCP 53
D. UDP 23
E. UDP 53
Correct Answer: CE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
DNS uses TCP and UDP port 53. TCP port 53 is used for zone transfers, whereas UDP port 53 is used for queries.
Incorrect Answers:
A:
FTP uses TCP port 21.

B.
D: Telnet uses port 23.
References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 51. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_TCP_and_UDP_port_numbers

QUESTION 22
A technician has just installed a new firewall onto the network. Users are reporting that they cannot reach any website. Upon further investigation, the technician determines that websites can be reached by entering their IP addresses. Which of the following ports may have been closed to cause this issue?
A. HTTP
B. DHCP
C. DNS
D. NetBIOS
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
DNS links IP addresses and human-friendly fully qualified domain names (FQDNs), which are made up of the Top-level domain (TLD), the registered domain name, and the Subdomain or hostname.
Therefore, if the DNS ports are blocked websites will not be reachable.
Incorrect Answers:
A: HTTP is responsible for the transmission of HTML documents and embedded multimedia components.
B: Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) allows DHCP servers to assign, or lease, IP addresses to computers and other devices that are enabled as DHCP clients.
D: NetBIOS is a program that allows applications on different computers to communicate within a local area network (LAN).
References: Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 42, 46. https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc896553 (v=ws.10).aspx http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/NetBIOS
QUESTION 23
Which of the following ports would be blocked if Pete, a security administrator, wants to deny access to websites?
A. 21
B. 25
C. 80
D. 3389
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Port 80 is used by HTTP, which is the foundation of data communication for the World Wide Web.
Incorrect Answers:
A: FTP uses TCP port 21.
B: SMTP uses TCP port 25.
D: Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) uses TCP port 3389.
References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 51, 52.
QUESTION 24
A technician is unable to manage a remote server. Which of the following ports should be opened on the firewall for remote server management? (Select TWO).
A. 22
B. 135
C. 137
D. 143
E. 443
F. 3389
Correct Answer: AF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A secure remote administration solution and Remote Desktop protocol is required. Secure Shell (SSH) is a secure remote administration solution and makes use
of TCP port 22.
Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) uses TCP port 3389.

Incorrect Answers:

B: Port 135 is used by Microsoft EPMAP (End Point Mapper), also known as DCE/RPC Locator service, which is used to remotely manage services including DHCP server, DNS server and WINS.
C: NetBIOS Name Service uses TCP port 137.
D: Internet Message Access Protocol v4 (IMAP4) uses TCP port 143.
E: HTTPS uses TCP port 443
References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 51, 52.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_TCP_and_UDP_port_numbers

QUESTION 25
Ann, a technician, is attempting to establish a remote terminal session to an end user’s computer using Kerberos authentication, but she cannot connect to the destination machine. Which of the following default ports should Ann ensure is open?
A. 22
B. 139
C. 443
D. 3389
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) uses TCP port 3389.
Incorrect Answers:
A: SSH uses TCP port 22. All protocols encrypted by SSH also use TCP port 22, such as SFTP, SHTTP, SCP, SExec, and slogin.
B: NetBIOS Session service uses TCP port 139.
C: HTTPS uses TCP port 443
References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 51, 52.

QUESTION 26
Which of the following protocols operates at the HIGHEST level of the OSI model?
A. ICMP
B. IPSec

C. SCP
D. TCP
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
SCP (Secure Copy) uses SSH (Secure Shell). SSH runs in the application layer (layer 7) of the OSI model.
Incorrect Answers:
A: ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) works in the network layer (Layer 3) of the OSI model.
B: IPSec (Internet Protocol Security) works in the network layer (Layer 3) of the OSI model.
D: TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) works in the transport layer (Layer 4) of the OSI model.
References: http://www.rhyshaden.com/osi.htm http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_network_protocols_%28OSI_model%29 http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/OSI_model
QUESTION 27
Which of the following allows Pete, a security technician, to provide the MOST secure wireless implementation?
A. Implement WPA
B. Disable SSID
C. Adjust antenna placement
D. Implement WEP

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Of the options supplied, WiFi Protected Access (WPA) is the most secure and is the replacement for WEP.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Disabling the SSID will only hide the wireless network, and is not more secure than WPA.
C: This will increase or decrease signal strength and availability, but will not make the network secure.
D: WEP was replaced by WPA to offer a more secure solution.
References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 59- 62.

QUESTION 28
A malicious user is sniffing a busy encrypted wireless network waiting for an authorized client to connect to it. Only after an authorized client has connected and the hacker was able to capture the client handshake with the AP can the hacker begin a brute force attack to discover the encryption key. Which of the following attacks is taking place?
A. IV attack
B. WEP cracking
C. WPA cracking
D. Rogue AP

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
There are three steps to penetrating a WPA-protected network. Sniffing Parsing Attacking Incorrect Answers:
A: Packet sniffing is not used for an IV attack.
B: WEP provides protection from packet sniffing and eavesdropping against wireless transmissions
D: Packet sniffing is not used for the Rogue AP.
References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 64, 189, 192.
www.tomshardware.com/reviews/wireless-security-hack,2981-6.html

QUESTION 29
Which of the following is a step in deploying a WPA2-Enterprise wireless network?
A. Install a token on the authentication server
B. Install a DHCP server on the authentication server
C. Install an encryption key on the authentication server
D. Install a digital certificate on the authentication server

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
When setting up a wireless network, you’ll find two very different modes of Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) security, which apply to both the WPA and WPA2 versions. The easiest to setup is the Personal mode, technically called the Pre-Shared Key (PSK) mode. It doesn’t require anything beyond the wireless router or access points (APs) and uses a single passphrase or password for all users/devices.
The other is the Enterprise mode –which should be used by businesses and organizations–and is also known as the RADIUS, 802.1X, 802.11i, or EAP mode. It provides better security and key management, and supports other enterprise-type functionality, such as VLANs and NAP. However, it requires an external authentication server, called a Remote Authentication Dial In User Service (RADIUS) server to handle the 802.1X authentication of users.
To help you better understand the process of setting up WPA/WPA2-Enterprise and 802.1X, here’s the basic overall steps: Choose, install, and configure a RADIUS server, or use a hosted service. Create a certificate authority (CA), so you can issue and install a digital certificate onto the RADIUS server, which may be done as a part of the RADIUS server installation and configuration. Alternatively, you could purchase a digital certificate from a public CA, such as GoDaddy or Verisign, so you don’t have to install the server certificate on all the clients. If using EAP-TLS, you’d also create digital certificates for each end-user. On the server, populate the RADIUS client database with the IP address and shared secret for each AP. On the server, populate user data with usernames and passwords for each end-user. On each AP, configure the security for WPA/WPA2-Enterprise and input the RADIUS server IP address and the shared secret you created for that particular AP. On each Wi-Fi computer and device, configure the security for WPA/WPA2- Enterprise and set the 802.1X authentication settings.
Incorrect Answers:
A: A token is not required on the authentication server when configuring WPA-Enterprise.
B: DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) does not have to be installed on the authentication server. You don’t have to use DHCP at all although it is easier if you do. However, DHCP is usually configured on a dedicated device, not on the authentication server.
C: You don’t install an encryption key on the authentication server when configuring WPA- Enterprise. You install a digital certificate. The private key of the certificate is then used to create secure connections.
References:
http://www.windowsnetworking.com/articles-tutorials/wireless-networking/Deploying-WPA2- Enterprise-Wi-Fi-Security-Small-Businesses.html

QUESTION 30
A security administrator must implement a wireless security system, which will require users to enter a 30 character ASCII password on their accounts. Additionally the system must support 3DS wireless encryption.
Which of the following should be implemented?
A. WPA2-CCMP with 802.1X
B. WPA2-PSK
C. WPA2-CCMP
D. WPA2-Enterprise
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
D: WPA-Enterprise is also referred to as WPA-802.1X mode, and sometimes just WPA (as opposed to WPA-PSK), this is designed for enterprise networks and requires a RADIUS authentication server. This requires a more complicated setup, but provides additional security (e.g. protection against dictionary attacks on short passwords). Various kinds of the Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) are used for authentication. RADIUS can be managed centrally, and the servers that allow access to a network can verify with a RADIUS server whether an incoming caller is authorized. Thus the RADIUS server can perform all authentications. This will require users to use their passwords on their user accounts.
Incorrect Answers:
A & C: CCMP is a block cipher that makes use of a 128 bit key. CCMP provides the following security services: Data confidentiality; ensures only authorized
parties can access the information; Authentication; provides proof of genuineness of the user; Access control in conjunction with layer management. However,
WPA2 includes support for CCMP.

B: EAP-PSK is documented in an experimental RFC that provides a lightweight and extensible EAP method that does not require any public-key cryptography.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp 145, 172, 182.

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Topic 1, Networking Concepts
Question No : 1 – (Topic 1)
A user’s laptop is unable to keep a stable network connection. Which of the following measures would MOST likely need to be configured?
A. SSID name
B. WAP encryption strength
C. WAP radio power
D. Channel overlay

Answer: C
Explanation: WAP radio power is the signal strength through which you can specify the range from which you can stay connected to the network and access internet. Here, when the user is not able to maintain a stable connection then it is a problem with the signal strength for sure so you can try to increase the signal strength by increasing the radio power.

Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)
The Network Interface Layer of the TCP/IP model corresponds to which of the following layers of the OSI model? (Select TWO).
A. Network
B. Session
C. Transport
D. Physical
E. Data link
Answer: D,E

Explanation:
The network layer is responsible for packet forwarding including routing through intermediate routers, whereas the data link layer is responsible for media access control, flow control and error checking.

Question No : 3 – (Topic 1)
In which of the following layers of the OSI model would MAC addressing be found?
A. Network
B. Application
C. Data Link
D. Transport
Answer: C

Explanation:
The ITU-T G.hn standard, which provides high-speed local area networking over existing wires (power lines, phone lines and coaxial cables), includes a complete data link layer which provides both error correction and flow control by means of a selective repeat Sliding Window Protocol.

Question No : 4 – (Topic 1)
Several users from the finance department report that they are able to access the Internet, but unable to connect to their financial applications. The network technician is unable to ping the finance server. The technician decides to check the switch and determines that Internet access is working. Which of the following is a possible cause of the access issues?
A. Faulty cable
B. Remote management disabled
C. Improper VLAN assignment
D. Mismatched duplex

Answer: C
Explanation: Finance Server is placed in same VLAN which is assigned to finance users if they are able to access internet that’s means connectivity to switch is good, so we have to check the VLAN assigned to users.

Question No : 5 – (Topic 1)
A technician needs to ensure that traffic from a specific department is separated within several switches. Which of the following needs to be configured on the switch to separate the traffic?
A. Duplex settings
B. SNMP string
C. VLAN assignments
D. Spanning tree

Answer: C
Explanation: A VLAN is a group of end stations with a common set of requirements, independent of physical location. VLANs have the same attributes as a physical LAN but allow you to group end stations even if they are not located physically on the same LAN segment.

Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
Given a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, how many usable IP addresses would be in that subnet?
A. 250
B. 254
C. 255
D. 256
Answer: B
Explanation: The Subnet Mask however, determines the “class” of a Network.
255.255.255.0 is a “Class C” network.A class c network can host up to 254 pc’s

Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)
On which of the following OSI model layers would a MAC address be used?
A. Network
B. Data Link
C. Transport
D. Physical
Answer: B

Explanation:
The ITU-T G.hn standard, which provides high-speed local area networking over existing wires (power lines, phone lines and coaxial cables), includes a complete data link layer which provides both error correction and flow control by means of a selective repeat Sliding Window Protocol.

Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)
Joe, a user, has a computer that has a link light on his network interface card (NIC); however, Joe is unable to access the Internet. Which of the following is the cause of this issue?
A. Faulty GBIC
B. Faulty SFP
C. Cable is a crossover
D. VLAN mismatch
Answer: D

Explanation:
As user has link light on NIC that means he has connectivity with switch so he need to check his vlan assignment.

Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)
A network technician is troubleshooting signal problems with certain WAPs in an office and finds consistently high ping times across the units. Such an issue is called which of the following?
A. Latency
B. Attenuation
C. Crosstalk
D. Frequency hopping
Answer: A

Explanation:
During the high ping time users are using most of the bandwidth that causes latency so signal strength get affected by this.

Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following TCP/IP model layers does the OSI model Presentation layer map to?
A. Transport
B. Internet
C. Application
D. Network Interface
Answer: C

Explanation:
The Application layer provides applications the ability to access the services of the other layers and defines the protocols that applications use to exchange data. There are many Application layer protocols and new protocols are always being developed.

Question No : 11 – (Topic 1)
A customer wants to keep cost to a minimum and has only ordered a single static IP address from the ISP. Which of the following must be configured on the router to allow for all the computers to share the same public IP address?
A. VLANs
B. PoE
C. PAT
D. VPN
Answer: C
Explanation:
Port Address Translation (PAT), is an extension to network address translation (NAT) that permits multiple devices on a local area network (LAN) to be mapped to a single public IP address. The goal of PAT is to conserve IP addresses.

Question No : 12 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following LAN technologies is used to provide a MAXIMUM bandwidth of 1Gbps through singlemode fiber?
A. 10GBaseLR
B. 100BaseFX
C. 100BaseTX
D. 1000BaseX
Answer: D

Explanation:
1000BaseX identifies various Gigabit Ethernet physical layer standards as defined in IEEE802.3z, such as 1000BaseLX, 1000BaseSX, 1000BaseCX and 1000BaseLH. Basically, all standards included in 1000BaseX uses 8B/10B coding scheme with 8 bits of data and 2 bits of error-correction data. Each specification allows various cable (fiber or copper) lengths, and uses different cable media.

Question No : 13 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following properties of DHCP would a technician use to ensure an IP address is not leased out from the active scope?
A. Reservations
B. Lease times
C. Removing IPs from the active leases
D. Configuring the DNS options
Answer: A

Explanation:
Reservations are permanent lease assignments that are used to ensure that a specified client on a subnet can always use the same IP address. You can use DHCP reservations for hosts that require a consistent IP address, but do not need to be statically configured.

Question No : 14 – (Topic 1)
Spanning-Tree Protocol is used with which of the following network devices?
A. Router
B. NIC
C. Switch
D. DHCP server
Answer: C
Explanation:
Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is a Layer 2 protocol that runs on bridges and switches. The specification for STP is IEEE 802.1D. The main purpose of STP is to ensure that you do not create loops when you have redundant paths in your network. Loops are deadly to a network.

Question No : 15 – (Topic 1)
A technician wants to separate networks on a switch. Which of the following should be configured to allow this?
A. VLAN
B. Trunking
C. Spanning tree
D. Traffic filtering
Answer: A
Explanation:
A VLAN is a group of end stations in a switched network that is logically segmented by function, project team, or application, without regard to the physical locations of the users. VLANs have the same attributes as physical LANs, but you can group end stations even if they are not physically located on the same LAN segment.

Question No : 16 – (Topic 1)
A user wants to connect seven PCs together for a game night. Which of the following should the user install to help with this task?
A. Media convertor
B. Switch
C. Firewall
D. Bridge
Answer: B

Explanation:
They connect multiple PCs, printers, servers and other hardware. Switches allow you to send information, such as email, and access shared resources, including printers, in a smooth, efficient, and transparent manner.

Question No : 17 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following defines the amount of time a host retains a specific IP address before it is renewed or released?
A. DHCP lease
B. DNS suffix
C. Subnet mask
D. DHCP reservation
Answer: A

Explanation:
By default, each IP address assigned by a DHCP Server comes with a one-day lease,
which is the amount of time that the address is valid.

Question No : 18 – (Topic 1)
Users are reporting that some Internet websites are not accessible anymore. Which of the following will allow the network administrator to quickly isolate the remote router that is causing the network communication issue, so that the problem can be reported to the appropriate responsible party?
A. Ping
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Tracert
D. Dig
Answer: C

Explanation:
Tracet command will tell the administrator which route is not present or which is present so he will come to know whether he has appropriate route or not.

Question No : 19 – (Topic 1)
Ann, a new user, has a workstation that has connectivity to the printer located in her department, but cannot access the Internet. The result of an ipconfig command on Ann’s workstation is as follows:
IP address: 192.168.0.124 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.128 Default Gateway: 192.168.0.254
Which is MOST likely preventing the user from accessing the Internet?
A. Duplicate IP address
B. Incorrect gateway
C. Incorrect VLAN
D. Bad switch port
Answer: B

Explanation:
We usually give default gateway as an end device which is directly connected with ISP so in this case user has lost his connectivity with due to wrong default gateway configured.

Question No : 20 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following is the common port used for IMAP?
A. 25
B. 53
C. 143
D. 443
Answer: C

Explanation:
The Internet Message Access Protocol (commonly known as IMAP) is an Application Layer Internet protocol that allows an e-mail client to access e-mail on a remote mail server. The current version, IMAP version 4 revision 1 (IMAP4rev1), is defined by RFC 3501. An IMAP server typically listens on well-known port 143

Question No : 21 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following network protocols is used to resolve FQDNs to IP addresses?
A. DNS
B. FTP
C. DHCP
D. APIPA
Answer: A
Explanation:
An Internet service that translates domain names into IP addresses. Because domain names are alphabetic, they’re easier to remember. The Internet however, is really based on IP addresses. Every time you use a domain name, therefore, a DNS service must translate the name into the corresponding IP address. For example, the domain name www.example.com might translate to 198.105.232.4.

Question No : 22 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following network protocols is used to transport email between servers?
A. IMAP4
B. POP3
C. SNMP
D. SMTP
Answer: D
Explanation:
While electronic mail servers and other mail transfer agents use SMTP to send and receive mail messages, user-level client mail applications typically use SMTP only for sending messages to a mail server for relaying

Question No : 23 – (Topic 1)
Ann, a technician, installs a new WAP and users are able to connect; however, users cannot access the Internet. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
A. The signal strength has been degraded and latency is increasing hop count.
B. An incorrect subnet mask has been entered in the WAP configuration.
C. The signal strength has been degraded and packets are being lost.
D. Users have specified the wrong encryption type and routes are being rejected.
Answer: B

Explanation:
Due to wrong subnet entered user is unable to communicate with anyone so to communicate he needs to be in right subnet.

Question No : 24 – (Topic 1)
Users have reported issues accessing an Internet website. The network technician wants to verify network layer connectivity. Which of the following tools can provide the verification?
A. ping
B. netstat
C. route
D. arp

Answer: A
Explanation: Ping is a computer network administration utility used to test the reachability of a host on an Internet Protocol (IP) network and to measure the round-trip time for messages sent from the originating host to a destination computer.
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QUESTION 46
Which of the following items are appropriate to use for ESD prevention? Select all that apply.
A. Metal work surface
B. CRT discharge tool
C. Grounded work mat
D. Wrist strap and cord
E. Static-shielding bags
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 47
Which of the following is the most common example of electrostatic discharge?
A. You touch an object and feel a brief spark.
B. You see a bright flash on the CRT display of an eMac.
C. You plug a power cord into an outlet and you see a spark.
D. You hear a cracking noise coming from inside the computer.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
A customer states that her iMac (Flat Panel) display is constantly showing a bright all-white screen. You connect an external VGA display to the iMac (Flat Panel) and confirm that the problem is not with the operating system or the logic board. Based upon your knowledge of LCD display, what would be the most likely cause of this problem?
A. Failed LCD module
B. Failed power supply
C. Failed inverter board
D. Corrupt PMU

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
Which TWO of the following statements about handling a CRT are true? (Choose two)
A. A discharged CRT can build up a secondary charge over time.
B. You should wear a grounding wrist strap or heel trap when discharging a CRT.
C. You must attach the discharge tool to ground before using it to discharge a CRT.
D. You should wear a grounding wrist strap or heel strap when performing live adjustments.
E. You must disconnect the power cord and discharge the CRT before performing live adjustments.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 50
Why do you need to take precautions when disposing of damages CRT displays? (Select two.)
A. CRT displays may contain toxic waste.
B. CRT displays may present a fire hazard.
C. CRT displays may implode if mishandled.
D. CRT displays may present a radiation hazard.
E. CRT displays may contain hazardous materials.

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 51
What precautions should be taken if an discharged CRT must remain exposed for any length of time?
A. You should reset the Power Manager Unit on the logic board.
B. You should perform a full set of video adjustments on the CRT.
C. You should remove the CRT from the computer or display assembly.
D. You should establish an ongoing lead between the CRT anode and ground.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
Which part or parts of an iMac CRT display should NOT be touched until after the display is disconnected from its power source and the CRT is properly discharged, because of the risk of electric shock? Select all that apply.
A. Anode cap
B. Yoke assembly
C. Flyback transformer
D. Front of CRT display
E. Yoke cable/connector
F. Outer plastic housing
Correct Answer: ABCE
QUESTION 53
When making LIVE adjustments to a CRT display, you should make sure that _____. Select three
A. You are NOT grounded.
B. The CRT has been discharged.
C. The yoke wires have been disconnected.
D. You use an ungrounded electrical outlet.
E. The equipment is properly connected and grounded.
F. Your building’s electrical outlets are properly wired and grounded.

Correct Answer: AEF
QUESTION 54
You need to verify a defective power/analog video board on a CRT iMac system. You removed power from the system and opened it (exposing the CRT), then had to leave it to do other work. Two hours have passed. Which TWO of the following steps should you take before beginning the verification procedure? Select two.
A. Reassemble the iMac.
B. Discharge the CRT again.
C. Reapply power to the iMac.
D. Get someone to observe you.
E. Check your grounding wrist strap.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 55
Which of the following do you use when discharging a CRT? Select two.
A. light meter
B. safety glasses
C. grounded ESP mat
D. CRT discharge tool
E. jumper adjustment tool

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 56
When discharging a CRT, which part do you touch with the tip of the discharge tool?
A. anode aperture
B. high voltage cable
C. Flyback transformer
D. yoke connector/cable
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 57
Which of the following is a hazardous area due to high voltage even when an eMac is unplugged?
A. Anode cap
B. Hard drive
C. Logic board
D. Optical drive

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 58
Where is the BEST place to look for information about any special hardware repair tools required for disassembly of an Apple product?
A. Discussions
B. Service News
C. User’s Manual
D. Service Manual

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 59
Which section of the Power Mac G5 Service Manual is the BEST place to look for instructions for replacing a processor?
A. Views
B. Basics
C. Take Apart
D. Troubleshooting

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 60
You require additional information about a specific problem with a customer’s Power Mac G5. Which of the following would be the choice Apple recommends for you to research the problem and possibly locate a solution or workaround for the problem?
A. Downloads
B. Discussions
C. User’s Manual
D. Knowledge Base

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 61
A customer asks about RAM speed requirements to upgrade his eMac (USB 2.0). What Apple resource should you refer this customer to?
A. Downloads
B. User’s Manual
C. Specifications
D. Service Manual

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 62
According to Apple service manuals, what steps should you take before performing any take-apart steps when replacing a part in any Apple product?
A. Lay the product on its side so it will not fall over.
B. Update the product’s firmware to the latest version.
C. Discharge the CRT and establish an ongoing ground.
D. Gather all necessary tools and perform all preliminary steps.
E. Order all available service parts for the appropriate configuration of the product.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 63
The Display Adjustment Utility adjusts geometry on which of the following products?
A. eMac
B. iMac (CRT)
C. Apple Studio Display 17 (17@ LCD ADC)
D. Apple Cinema HD Display (23″ LCD ADC)

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 64
A customer states that her iMac (USB 2.0) built-in LCD display is dark and barely readable. It shows a faint image. You attempt to adjust the brightness, but nothing happens. You connect an external VGA display to the iMac and confirms that the problem is not with the operating system or the logic board.
Based upon your knowledge of LCD displays, what would be the most likely cause of this problem?
A. Failed LCD module
B. Failed power supply
C. Failed inverter board
D. Corrupt PMU

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 65
What is the function of the iMac Video Jumper Adjustment Tool?
A. It enables the display of test patterns for video adjustment.
B. It sets the appropriate display resolution for video adjustment.
C. It allows the cutoff and white balance adjustment to be saved as new factory settings.
D. It grounds any hazardous voltages inside the iMac before video adjustments are made.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 66
Which THREE of the following are symptoms of an incorrectly installed AirPort Extreme Card? (Choose Three)
A. Computer freezes during startup.
B. Computer beeps three times during startup.
C. AirPort operating range is severely reduced.
D. Computer has no network access from any port.
E. Computer reports required AirPort hardware not found?

Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 67
Which one of the following AirPort Extreme ports should be used to connect to a DSL or Cable modem for Internet access?
A. LAN
B. WAN
C. Modem
D. Antenna

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 68
A customer states that he cannot access the Internet after connecting his new Power Mac G5 to his cable modem via Ethernet. Which of the following is most likely the cause of the problem?
A. AppleTalk is not enabled on the computer’s Ethernet port.
B. The computer is not running the latest version of Mac OS X.
C. A faulty cable was used to connect the computer and the cable modem.
D. The cable modem’s Ethernet port is not compatible with the computer’s Ethernet port.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 69
You are attempting to share files between your Power Mac G5 and a friend’s PC running Windows XP Professional. You have connected the two computers with an Ethernet cable, created a Mac OS X account to allow your friend to log in, and you have enabled Windows Sharing on the Power Mac G5, but your friend still cannot access files on your Power Mac G5. Which of the following is most likely to be the problem?
A. File Sharing must be enabled on the PC first.
B. The files on your Power MAC G5 must be converted to PC format first.
C. The IP address settings on your Power Mac G5 and the PC are not on the same network.
D. You need to use an Ethernet crossover cable to connect the Power Mac G5 and the PC.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 70
A customer states that when an external antenna is connected to her AirPort Extreme Base Station, the external antenna does not appear in the Show Summary window of AirPort Admin Utility. What is most likely the problem?
A. The base station’s firmware needs to be updated.
B. The base station is malfunctioning and requires service.
C. The base station needs to be powered down and restarted.
D. The base station needs to be reconfigured to use the external antenna.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 71
AirPort Extreme operates under which of the following IEEE standards? Select all that apply.
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11c
D. 802.11g
E. 802.11h
F. 802.11i

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 72
A customer states that she sees an error message appear when she opens her Web browser with her iMac (USB 2.0) using dial-up Internet service. The message displayed in the Web browser is “The specified server could not be found”. When she attempts to access the same Web page a second time the Web page is loaded without a problem. Which of the following is the BEST explanation for what is happening?
A. The iMac needs to warm up before it can access the Web page.
B. The Web browser is configured to only access Web pages when reloaded.
C. The iMac dial-up modem is configured for extra error correction resulting in the delay.
D. The Web browser attempted to load the page before the iMac’s dial-up modem had finished connecting to the Internet Service Provider.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 73
Basic computer-to-computer wireless networking with AirPort requires______.
A. Two or more AirPort clients.
B. Two or more AirPort Base Stations.
C. Version 2.0.4 or later of the AirPort software.
D. An AirPort Base Station and an AirPort client.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 74
To utilize Gigabit Ethernet, you must use an Ethernet cable with:
A. Two wires (one pair) present.
B. Four wires (two pairs) present.
C. Six wires (three pairs) present.
D. All eight wires (four pairs) present.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 75
A customer states that he cannot access the Internet on his eMac using a dialup modem connection.
Which of the following is most likely to be the problem?
A. AppleTalk is not enabled on the eMac’s modem port.
B. The customer’s eMac is not configured with a modem.
C. The eMac is not running the latest version of Mac OS X.
D. The telephone cable is plugged into the Ethernet jack.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 76
Which of the following are potential sources of interference with an AirPort Extreme network? Select all that apply.
A. Wood
B. Metal
C. Microwave oven
D. Cellular telephone
E. 2.4 GHz cordless telephone

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 77
Which part or parts of an iMac CRT display should NOT be touched until after the display is disconnected from its power source and the CRT is properly discharged, because of the risk of electric shock? Select all that apply.
A. Anode cap
B. Yoke assembly
C. Flyback transformer
D. Front of CRT display
E. Yoke cable/connector
F. Outer plastic housing
Correct Answer: ABCE QUESTION 78
When discharging a CRT, which part do you touch with the tip of the discharge tool?
A. anode aperture
B. high voltage cable
C. Flyback transformer
D. yoke connector/cable

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 79
According to Apple service manuals, what steps should you take before performing any take-apart steps when replacing a part in any Apple product?
A. Lay the product on its side so it will not fall over.
B. Update the product’s firmware to the latest version.
C. Discharge the CRT and establish an ongoing ground.
D. Gather all necessary tools and perform all preliminary steps.
E. Order all available service parts for the appropriate configuration of the product.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 80
You are attempting to share files between your Power Mac G5 and a friend’s PC running Windows XP Professional. You have connected the two computers with an Ethernet cable, created a Mac OS X account to allow your friend to log in, and you have enabled Windows Sharing on the Power Mac G5, but your friend still cannot access files on your Power Mac G5. Which of the following is most likely to be the problem?
A. File Sharing must be enabled on the PC first.
B. The files on your Power MAC G5 must be converted to PC format first.
C. The IP address settings on your Power Mac G5 and the PC are not on the same network.
D. You need to use an Ethernet crossover cable to connect the Power Mac G5 and the PC.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 59
You have imported text with substituted fonts, which are highlighted. Where do you find the option to turn off the highlighting?
A. File > Place
B. Window > Type > Glyphs
C. File > Document Setup > Type
D. Edit > Preferences (Windows) or Illustrator > Preferences (Mac OS)

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 60
When exporting an Adobe Illustrator document, which two formats will export vector graphics data? (Choose two.)
A. TIFF
B. PNG
C. Flash
D. Targa
E. Enhanced Metafile
Correct Answer: CE QUESTION 61
Which format supports transparency on small devices, such as mobile phones?
A. SVG 1.1
B. SVG Tiny 1.1
C. SVG Basic 1.1
D. SVG Tiny 1.1 Plus

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 62
You create an object to use as an envelope for a text object. What should you do to the object to ensure that the object distorts the text object?
A. group the object to the text object
B. place the object at the top of the stacking order
C. place the object at the bottom of the stacking order
D. select Distort Appearance from the Envelope Options dialog box

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 63
You want to define a Pantone ink spot color and place it in the Swatches palette. Which action displays a list of ink brands in order to select Pantone swatches?
A. select Spot Colors from the Swatches palette menu
B. select Create New Swatch from the Color palette menu
C. select Swatch Options from the Swatches palette menu
D. select Open Swatch Library from the Swatches palette menu

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 64
When you export an Illustrator file as a PSD and you check the Maximum Editability option, objects will be preserved as vectors and not rasterized if they _____.
A. are grouped
B. are Live Paint groups
C. are compound shapes
D. do NOT have transparency applied

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 65
What happens when you click on blue underlined text in the Control palette?
A. All palettes show or hide.
B. You are taken to a Help file.
C. You are taken to a Web site.
D. A palette appears under the Control palette.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 66
You are repositioning palettes on your screen. You grab a palette by its tab and drag it so your cursor touches the bottom of another palette on your screen. What happens to the palette you are dragging?
A. It replaces the existing palette.
B. It snaps back to its original position.
C. It becomes docked to the existing palette.
D. It becomes clustered with the existing palette.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 67
You do NOT want Adobe Bridge to show document creation dates in the Metadata pane. What should you do?
A. in Adobe Bridge, be sure that View>Sort>Date Created is NOT checked
B. in the Metadata pane of Adobe Bridge, select the Date Created line and press the delete key
C. use the fly-out menu from the Metadata pane of Adobe Bridge, choose preferences, deselect Date Created
D. delete the date and time in the Date Created data field, use the fly-out menu from the Metadata pane of Adobe Bridge, choose preferences, selectHide Empty Fields
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 32
You have drawn a patch in your image. In the Paths palette, the path name is Work Path. What happens if you deselect Work Path and draw and new path?
A. The new path is added to Work Path.
B. A new path called Work Path 2 is created.
C. A single path component is created from all overlapping components.
D. The original Work Path is deleted, and the new path becomes Work Path.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 33
You have selected several anchor points of a shape layer. You want to rotate them an arbitrary amount. Which command should you use?
A. Filter >Liquify
B. Edit > Free Transform Path
C. Edit > Free Transform Points
D. Layer > Change Layer Content

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 34
Which file format can preserve vector data?
A. BMP
B. PICT
C. Photoshop PDF
D. Photoshop RAW

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 35
Exhibit.

You are using Camera RAW to import an image. You want the leftmost data in the histogram to be farther to the left with little effect on the right.
Which slider under the Adjust tab should you use?
A. Contrast
B. Shadows
C. Exposure
D. Brightness

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 36
You are creating a graphic that is to be used in anAnamorphic(2:1) video product. You use the Ellipse tool while holding down the Shift key. Pixel Aspect Ratio Correction preview is disabled.
How does the result appear in Photoshop?
A. a circle with pixels twice as tall as they are wide
B. a circle with pixels twice as wide as they are tall
C. all ellipse twice as tall as it is wide with square pixels
D. an ellipse twice as wide as it is tall with square pixels

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
While opening a Camera Raw image, you notice that the image has a slight color cast. Which setting in the Camera Raw dialog box should you adjust to eliminate the color cast?
A. Calibrate
B. Color Space
C. White Balance
D. Chromatic Aberration R/C

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 38
What is the purpose of setting a pixel aspect ratio for an image?
A. to draw perfect squares or circles with the Marquee tool
B. to constrain the proportions of an image when it is scaled
C. to ensure that the resolution of the image is appropriate for printing
D. to compensate for scaling when the image is incorporatedintovideo

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 39
You are using theUnsharpMask filter on a portrait. You want to avoid sharpening imperfections in the skin tone.
What should you do?
A. increase the Amount setting
B. decrease the Amount setting
C. increase the Threshold setting
D. decrease the Threshold setting

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 40
Using Filter Gallery, you want to preview the effect of applying several distortion and artistic filters. Which statement is true?
A. You can adjust the opacity of each filter layer.
B. You can preview the filters’ effect on more than one layer at a time.
C. You can add more filters in those categories with the Preset Manager.
D. You can change the order in which the filters will be applied before applying the gallery.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 41
Which tool should you sue to repair a portion of an image so that texture detail from one area of an image merges with the color and brightness values from another?
A. Clone Stamp
B. History Brush
C. Healing Brush
D. Color Replacement

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 42
You have made a selection of an area of an image you need to repair. Using the Patch tool, you want to drag the selection to the area that will serve as a patch.
Which Patch tool option should you choose?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 43
You foreground swatch is red, you background swatch is orange. Wherever you paint, you want to replace only orange with red. You do NOT want to affect luminosity values.
Which tool should you use?
A. Brush tool
B. Magic Eraser tool
C. Art History Brush tool
D. Color Replacement tool

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 44
An image with a correctly assigned input profile has been converted to Adobe RGB (1998). Which statement is true?
A. The colors look different, but the color numbers are identical.
B. The colors look different and the color numbers are different.
C. The colors look the same, but the color numbers are different.
D. The colors look the same and the color numbers are identical.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 45
Which term is used to describe how a particular device currently reproduces color?
A. calibrating
B. soft proofing
C. synchronizing
D. characterizing

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 46
What is the purpose of the Proof Setup command?
A. to correctly display an image that uses non-square pixels
B. to tag an image with a profile that describes its color space
C. to preview how the image will print to the current printer and paper size
D. to preview on screen how a file will display or print on different output devices

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 47
Which rendering intent is suitable for business graphics, where maintaining the exact relationship between colors is not as important as creating vivid color?
A. Saturation
B. Perceptual
C. Relative Colorimetric
D. Absolute Colorimetric

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 48
In the Color Settings dialog box, where do you specify the color profile that you want to use for each color model?
A. Working Spaces
B. Advanced Controls
C. Conversion Options
D. Color Management Policies

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 49
Which file format support vector graphics?
A. GIF
B. PDF
C. PNG
D. JPEG

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 50
A digital camera supported by Adobe Photoshop was set for tungsten lighting when a photograph was made in daylight. The photograph was made in the camera’s RAW mode.
What should you do?
A. when opening the document, adjust the tint slider in the Camera RAW dialog box
B. after opening the document, use the Assign Profile dialog box to the chooseProPhotoRGBIcprofile
C. after opening the document, use the Color Settings dialog box to the chooseProPhotoRGBIcprofile
D. when opening the document, choose daylight under the White Balance menu in the Camera RAW dialog box

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 51
You have created a shape layer. You want to sue a filter on the shape. What must you do?
A. delete the layer mask
B. delete the vector mask
C. resterizethe fill content
D. rasterizethe shape layer

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 52
Which statement about using the Place command to place anIIIustratorfile into a Photoshop document is true?
A. It becomes a shape layer.
B. It israsterizedat the document’s resolution.
C. It becomes a link to the originalIIIustratorfile.
D. It becomes a working path in the Paths palette.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 53
Which file format should you use to preserve variable transparency in an image to be used on a web page?
A. GIF
B. TIFF
C. PNG
D. JPEG

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 54
How do you apply keywords to many images in a directory?
A. use the Preset Manager
B. use the File info keyword field
C. use the File Browser keyword tab
D. check “Enable Version Cue Workgroup File Management”in the File Handling preferences

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 55
You want to print a document with shape layers. You want the vector data to be sent to a Postscript printer. What should you do?
A. duplicate the shape layers’ vector masks as paths
B. choose Layer >Rasterize> All Layers before printing
C. select Maximize Compatibility in the File Handling Preference dialog box
D. selectInclude Vector Data in the Output options of the Print with Preview dialog box.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 56
Which command should you use to print an image by using the current print settings WITHOUT displaying a dialog box?
A. Print
B. Page Setup
C. Print One Copy
D. Print with Preview

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 57
You want print a document in duotone mode to your four-color desktop inkjet printer. Which statement is true?
A. Only two inks will be used by the printer.
B. The image will print in grayscale, using black ink only.
C. The image will print as a process color approximation on the document.
D. Each of the inks specified in the duotone will be replaced by a pair of inks at the printer.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
Which statement about printing duotones is true?
A. Duotones must be converted to CMYK mode before printing.
B. A transfer function should be created for each ink in the duotone.
C. The inks used in duotones must be printed a different screen angles.
D. Duotones should be saved as TIFF files if they are going to be imported into and printed from a page-layout application.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 59
You are printing an image from Photoshop. You want Photoshop to handle the color management.
Which options should you choose for Print Space from the Color Management area of the Print with Preview dialog box?
A. Same as Source
B. a profile of your printer
C. a profile of your monitor
D. Printer Color Management

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 60
You are creating an interface element with a drop shadow for a Web page. You want to maintain the full, variable transparency of the graphic and shadow. You enable transparency in the Save for Web dialog box.
Which file format renders the transparency without introducing a surrounding matte color?
A. GIF
B. JPEG
C. PNG8
D. PNG24
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 61
Which file format should you sue display photographs and other continuous-tone images on the Web?
A. GIF
B. TIFF
C. PDF
D. JPEG

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 62
You have a single layered document. You want to generate a JPEG of a small area of the document. What should you do?
A. Copy that area to a new layer, disable the visibility of the original layer, then use the Save for Web dialog box
B. Save a selection of the area as a channel, then click the Alpha channel button in the Save for Web dialog box
C. Create a slice of that area, then choose All User Slices from the Slice pop-up menu of the Save Optimized AS dialog box
D. Create a marquee of that area, then choose All User Slices from the Slices pop-up menu of the Save Optimized As dialog box

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 63
You have created a navigation bar for a Website that contains both continuous-tone images and areas of flat color. You want to achieve the best optimization for the navigation bar.
What should you do?
A. save the image as a GIF
B. save the image as JPEG
C. create slices to determine how areas should be optimized
D. create image maps to determine how areas should be optimized

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 64
You have created a graphic that you will be suing on the Web. The graphic includes transparent areas.
You want the fully transparent pixels to remain transparent, and you want to blend partially transparent
pixels with a color.
What optimization options should you choose?

A. select transparency, and select a matter color
B. deselect transparency, and select a matter color
C. select transparency, and set the matte color to None
D. deselect transparency, and set the matte color to None

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 65
What happens when you choose the command Layer > Flatten image?
A. Layers within layer sets are merged into a single layer.
B. All layers are made visible and then combined into the background layer.
C. The active layer and all visible layers below it are combined into a single layer.
D. All visible layers are combined into the background layer and hidden layers are discarded.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 66
You have created a layer set. You want to maintain the blending modes that are assigned to the individual layers within the set.
Which blending mode should you use for the layer set?
A. Normal
B. Multiply
C. Overlay
D. Pass Through

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 67
How do you hide the content of several layer sets with one mask?
A. put all of the layer sets inside a new layer set, select this new set, then click the Add Mask button
B. create a clipping mask consisting of the layer sets, select the base set in that group, and click the Add Mask button.
C. create a layer above the layer sets, set its Fill Opacity to 0%, and its Knockout setting to Deep
D. create a layer above the layer sets, set its Fill Opacity to 0%, and its Knockout setting to Shadow

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 68
You want to give the content of a layer atexturizedappearance (relief) that responds to the Global Angle of light.
Which layer style should you use?
A. Satin
B. Pattern Overlay
C. Gradient Overlay
D. Bevel and Emboss

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 69
The topmost of several layers in a document is a shape layer. You want that shape to define a hole in all the layers of the image.
What should you do?
A. select the top layer, and choose Layer > Create Clipping Mask
B. link all layers, then choose Layer > Create Clipping Mask from Linked
C. in the top layer’s Blending Options, set the Opacity to 0%, and knockout to Deep
D. in the top layer’s Blending Options, set the Fill Opacity to 0%, and knockout to Deep

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 70
Which mask does a shape layer use by default?
A. vector
B. raster
C. clipping
D. transparency

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 71
You want to create a vector polygon that is filled. You want to be able to move the polygon independently of layers and to apply layer styles to the polygon.
What should you do?
A. use the Polygon tool to fill pixels
B. use the Polygon tool to create a path
C. use the Polygon tool to create a shape layer
D. use the Polygon tool to create a clipping mask

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 72
You create an alpha channel _________.
A. to hold color data for a document
B. to create transparency for a layer
C. to create transparency for a JPEG file
D. to localize Optimization settings in Save for Web

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 73
You have saved a selection as a channel. You want to modify that channel with a new selection. You want to add white within the newly selected area on the alpha channel. You choose Select > Save Selection.
What should you do?
A. select the alpha channel and click the Add to Channel button
B. select the alpha channel and click the Exclude Overlapping button
C. select the alpha channel and click the Intersect with Channel button
D. select the alpha channel and click the Subtract from Channel button

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 74
Which type of channel stores selections for editing specific parts of an image?
A. color channels
B. alpha channels
C. masking channel
D. spot color channels

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 75
You want to create an image that will be printed using black ink plus onePantone?color. What should you do?
A. add a color swatch for thePantone?colorand use the color on any layer
B. create an alpha channel for the elements that will use thePanatone?color
C. create a spot color channel for the elements that will use thePanatone?color
D. create a layer set and add elements that will print in thePantone?colorto any layer within the layer set

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 76
Using Filter Gallery, you want to preview the effect of applying several distortion and artistic filters. Which statement is true?
A. You can adjust the opacity of each filter layer.
B. You can preview the filters’ effect on more than one layer at a time.
C. You can add more filters in those categories with the Preset Manager.
D. You can change the order in which the filters will be applied before applying a gallery. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 77
Your foreground swatch isred,your background swatch is orange. Wherever you paint, you want to replace only orange with red. You do NOT want affect luminosity values.
Which tool should you use?
A. Brush tool
B. Magic Eraser tool
C. Art History Brush tool
D. Color Replacement tool

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 78
Exhibit

You have made a selection of an area of an image you need to repair. Using the Patch tool, you want to drag the selection to the area that will serve as a patch.
Which Patch tool option should you choose?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 79
Which tool should you sue to repair a portion of an image so that texture detail from one area of an image merges with the color and brightness values from another?
A. Clone Stamp
B. History Brush
C. Healing Brush
D. Color Replacement

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 80
A scanned photograph exhibits substantial graininess and diminished sharpness. You want to sharpen the image without increasing the grain.
Which control in theUnsharpMask filter should you use?
A. Fade
B. Radius
C. Amount

D. Threshold Correct Answer: D QUESTION 81
Which option from the Brushes palette allows you to determine the number and placement of marks in a stroke?
A. Texture
B. Scattering
C. Shape Dynamics
D. Brush Tip Shapes

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 82
The Aligned checkbox for the Pattern Stamp tool in the Options Bar ensures that ______.
A. all areas painted with the tool are continuations of the same underlying pattern
B. you are sampling from the same pixels in the pattern with which you are painting
C. you are sampling from the same relative point in the pattern with which you are painting
D. the upper left corner of the pattern with which you are painting is aligned with the beginning of each brush stroke

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 83
You have been editing an image. You want to restore certain small areas of the image to their condition before you last several edits.
Which tool or command should you use?
A. Eraser tool
B. Edit > Undo
C. History Brush tool
D. Edit > Step Backward

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 84
You are creating a layer style that includes a Bevel and Emboss.
What allows you to sculpt the ridges, valleys, and bumps that are shaded in the embossing process?

A. spread
B. contour
C. shading
D. blend mode

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 85
You use the Magic Eraser tool on the background. What is the result?
A. The background becomes Layer 0 and the pixels similar in color to the one clicked become transparent.
B. The background becomes Layer 0 and the pixels similar in color to the one clicked become filled with background color.
C. The background remains and the pixels similar in color to the one clicked become filled with background color.
D. The background remains and the pixels similar in color to the one clicked become filled with black.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 86
You have several layers in a layer set. You want to the layers in that set to blend with one another first, and then with the rest of the layers in the document.
Which blending mode should you use for the layer set?
A. Normal
B. Hard Mix
C. Exclusion
D. Pass Through

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 87
A Photoshop document has several paths. You want to use one of them as a vector mask. What should you do?
A. chooseLayer > Add Vector Mask then choose a path from the resulting dialog box.
B. select the patch in the Paths palette, then choose Layer > Add Vector Mask > Current Path
C. copy the path to the clipboard, choose Layer > Add Vector Mask; then Edit > Paste
D. choose Layer > Add Vector Mask, then drag the path from the Paths palette onto the Vector Mask thumbnail

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 88
The topmost of several layers in a document is a shape layer. You want that shape to define a hole in all the layers of the image.
What should you do?
A. select the top layer, and choose Layer > Create Clipping Mask
B. link all layers, then choose Layer > Create Clipping Mask from Linked
C. in the top layer’s Blending Options, set the Opacity to 0%, and Knockout to Deep
D. in the top layer’s Blending Options, set the Fill Opacity to 0%, and knockout to Deep

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 89
You have created a raster layer mask that is currently hiding too much of a layer. You want to reveal more of the layer.
What should you do?
A. select the mask and paint with white
B. select the mask and paint with black
C. create a path around the area you need to reveal, then create a vector mask
D. create a path with Intersect Shape Areas selected around the area you need to reveal, then create a vector mask

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 90
You want to restrict the visibility of one layer to only where it overlaps the visible content of the layer below it.
What should you do?
A. select the lower of the two layers and choose Layer > Create Clipping Mask
B. holddown Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) and click on the line between the two layers.
C. Link the two layers,thenchoose Create New Set from Linked from the Layers palette menu.
D. Select both layers, then click on the Add Layer Mask button at the bottom of the Layers palette

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 91
You are suing the Shadow/Highlight command to correct an underexposed image. Which value determines the scale size for corrections?
A. Radius
B. Amount
C. Tonal Width
D. MidtoneContrast

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 92
You have several images of a subject. One has the correct tonal and color characteristics. You want to adjust the other to look like the correct one.
Which option from the Image > Adjustments menu should you use?
A. Auto Color
B. Match Color
C. Replace Color
D. Selective Color

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 93
What would you most likely need to do afterresamplinga 20 megabyte image to 100 kilobytes using BicubicInterpolation?
A. Blur
B. Sharpen
C. Add Noise
D. Auto Levels

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 94
The shadows and highlights in a document are too light and too dark respectively. The color of the image, however, is satisfactory.
Which option in the Auto Color Correction Options dialog box should you choose?
A. Snap NeutralMidtones
B. Find Dark & Light Colors
C. Enhance Per Channel Contrast
D. Enhance Monochromatic Contrast

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 95
Exhibit.

You have created a curves adjustment layer that you only want applied to the Rubber ducky layer. You notice that the adjustment layer darkens the entire composition.
What should you do?
A. put the beach layer above the adjustment layer
B. create a clipping mask with the Rubber Ducky layer
C. put the Rubber Ducky layer above the adjustment layer
D. create a layer set with the adjustment and Rubber Duckylaers

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 96
You are trying to lighten a dark subject in your image by using the Shadow/Highlight command, but the midtonesand lighter areas are changing too much.
What should you do?
A. increase the Shadow Amount
B. decrease the Shadow Amount
C. Increase the Shadow Tonal Width
D. Decrease the Shadow Tonal Width

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 97
You are working in the Levels dialog box. The pixels in the image cover a range from 0-220. You want to increase the contrast in the highlight areas of the image.
What should you do?
A. increase the value for the black Input Level
B. decrease the value for the white Input Level
C. increase the value for the black Output Level
D. decrease the value for the white Output Level

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 98
Exhibit.

You are using Camera RAW to import an image. You want the leftmost data in the histogram to be farther to the left with little effect on the right.
Which slider under the Adjust tab should you use?
A. Contrast
B. Shadows
C. Exposure
D. Brightness

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 99
While opening a Camera Raw image, you notice that the image has a slight color cast. Which setting in the Camera Raw dialog box should you adjust to eliminate the color cast?
A. Calibrate
B. Color Space
C. White Balance
D. Chromatic Aberration R/C

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 100
What is the purpose of setting a pixel aspect ratio for an image?
A. to draw perfect squares or circles with the Marquee tool
B. to constrain the promotions of an image when it is scaled
C. to ensure that the resolution of the image is appropriate for printing
D. to compensate for scaling when the image is incorporated into video

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 101
You are creating a graphic that is to be used in anAnamorphic(2:1) video product. You sue the Ellipse tool while holding down the Shift key. Pixel Aspect Ratio Correction preview is disabled. How does the result appear in Photoshop?
A. a circle with pixels twice as tall as they are wide
B. a circle with pixels twice as wide as they are tall
C. an ellipse twice as tall as it is wide with square pixels
D. an ellipse twice as wide as it is tall with square pixels

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 102
You create an alpha channel _________.
A. to hold color data for a document
B. to create transparency for a layer
C. to create transparency for a JPEG file
D. to localize Optimization settings in Save for Web

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 103
Which type of channel stores selections for editing specific parts of an image?
A. color channels
B. alpha channels
C. masking channel
D. spot color channels

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 104
You want to create an image that will be printed using black ink plus onePantone?Color. What should you do?
A. add a color swatch for thePantone?colorand use the color on any layer
B. create an alpha channel for the elements that will use thePantone?color
C. create a spot color channel for the elements that will use thePantone?color
D. create a layer set and add elements that will print in thePanatone?colorto any layer within the layer set

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 105
You have saved a selection as a channel. You want to modify that channel with a new selection. You want to add white within the newly selected area on the alpha channel. You choose Select > Save Selection.
What should you do?
A. select the alpha channel and click the Add to Channel button
B. select the alpha channel and click the Exclude Overlapping button
C. select the alpha channel and click the Intersect with Channel button
D. select the alpha channel and click the Subtract from Channel button

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 106
You have used the File Browser to rotate, flag, and rank images in a directory. You want to burn the entire
directory to a CD while maintaining the settings in the File Browser.
Which File Browser command should you use?
A. File > Purge Cache
B. File > Export Cache
C. Edit > Append Metadata
D. Edit > Replace Metadata

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 107
Yourasterizea type layer to __________.
A. useLiquify
B. apply al layer style
C. use Free Transform
D. use an adjustment layer

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 108
Which statement is true about using the command File > Place to place artwork in an image?
A. The artwork will be placed on a new layer.
B. You can choose to place the artwork as pixels or paths.
C. You can choose which resolution to use for the imported artwork.
D. The file formats you can place are the same as those in which you can save a Photoshop file.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 109
A digital camera supported by Adobe Photoshop was set for tungsten lighting when a photograph was made in daylight. The photograph was made in the camera’s RAW mode.
What should you do?
A. when opening the document, adjust the tint slider in the Camera RAW dialog box
B. after opening the document, use the Assign Profile dialog box to the chooseProPhotoRGBICprofile
C. after opening the document, use the Color Settings dialog box to the chooseProPhotoRGBICprofile
D. when opening the document, choose daylight under the White Balance menu in the Camera RAW dialog box

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 110
Which file format should you sue to preserve variable transparency in an image to be used on a web page?
A. GIF
B. TIFF
C. PNG
D. JPEG
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 111
Which file format supports vector graphics?
A. GIF
B. PDF
C. PNG
D. JPEG

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 112
Exhibit.

You want to convert one anchor point from one that gives curvature to a path to one that forms a corner. Which tool should you use?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
Correct Answer: E QUESTION 113
Which file format can preserve vector data?
A. BMP
B. PICT
C. Photoshop PDF
D. Photoshop RAW

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 114
Exhibit.

Which command was used to create shape B from shape A?
A. Effect > Transform > Warp
B. Edit > Free Transform Points
C. Select > Transform Selection
D. Layer > Change Layer Content

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 115
From the Export menu, in which format can you export paths from Photoshop?
A. AdobeIIIustrator(AI)
B. Enhanced Metafile (EMF)
C. AutoCAD Drawing
D. Encapsulated Postscript (EPS)

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 116
Exhibit.

Which tool should you use to move the selected anchor point?
A. Pen tool
B. Selection tool
C. FreefromPen tool
D. Direct Selection tool

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 117
You are recording an action. During its playback, you want an image’s magnification to be adjusted to fit the image on screen.
What should you do?
A. choose View > Fit on Screen
B. when you get to the point for the magnification change, choose View > Fit on Screen
C. use the Insert Menu Item command from the Action palette menu, then choose View > Actual Pixels
D. use the Insert Menu Item command from the Action palette menu, then choose View > Fit on Screen

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 118
You assign a color to an action while creating the action. When is this color used?
A. to fill a selection when the action is played
B. when a Function key has been assigned to the Action
C. when actions are displayed in Button mode in the Actions palette
D. to highlight the Action name when Playback Options are set to Step by Step

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 119
The command File > Automate > Fit image ______.
A. resamplesan image to within specified dimensions
B. resamplesan image to match another open document
C. resizes an image to within specified dimensions withoutresampling
D. resizesan image to match another open document withoutresampling.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 120
You want to apply an action to some documents in a folder, but not to all of them. What should you do?
A. in the File Browser, first select the individual files, then choose Automate > Batch with File Browser specified as the source
B. open all of the documents to be processed, then choose All opened Files from the Actions palette menu Playback Options
C. in the File Browser, first select the individual files, then choose Automate > Batch with Opened Files specified as the source
D. in the File > Open dialog box, select the individual files, then choose Automate > Batch with import specified as the source

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
What are the supported operating systems for HP Support Assistant?
A. Windows Vista, Windows 7, and Linux
B. Windows 7, and Windows 8
C. Windows XP, Windows Vista, and Windows 7
D. Windows 7, Windows 8, and Linux

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
What kind of functionality do Mini PCI cards typically provide for HP commercial notebooks?
A. Wireless Display (WiDi) connectivity
B. WWAN capabilities
C. Wi-Fi connectivity
D. Bluetooth communication

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
What protocol must the graphics controller support to enable HP Display Assistant (HPDA) to control and set the monitor for best picture quality?
A. the Display Control Calibration Interface protocol
B. the Display Data Channel Command Interface protocol
C. the Monitor Control Calibration Interface protocol
D. the Monitor Data Channel Command protocol

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
Which statement best describes self-encrypting drive (SED) technology?
A. SEDs can support hardware-based encryption, software-based encryption, and a combination of the two configured using HP ProtectTools.
B. The hardware-based encryption in a SED uses a 256-bit Advanced Encryption Standard algorithm that surpasses the Trusted Computing Group’s OPAL Security standard.
C. SEDs that use hardware-based encryption encrypt all files on the disk other than operating system files.
D. SEDs can support hardware-based encryption or software-based encryption configured using HP ProtectTools.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Which statement best describes the Restriction of Hazardous Substance (RoHS) environment standard to which HP is committed?
A. RoHS regulates the supply and return of notebook batteries.
B. RoHS regulates the supply and return of parts containing restricted or controlled materials.
C. RoHS defines the process for a compliant processor upgrade.
D. RoHS defines the policy for the disposal of obsolete equipment.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6

What tag do certain HP workstations have (in addition to the service tag) that provides the build ID and the feature byte, which are required for replacing a system board?
A. the support label
B. the flexbuild label
C. the technician data label
D. the system board label

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Why is an antistatic mat important for controlling electrostatic discharge? (select two)
A. provides a soft surface to prevent scratches on the case or outer shell of the computer.
B. provides a dissipative connection for a wrist strap that must be worn by the service technician.
C. drains power quickly with a surface that provides real ground potential with a very low electrical impedance.
D. provides electrostatic protection for sensitive equipment without requiring the mat to be connected to a ground.
E. provides a surface that gradually bleeds electrical energy instead of collapsing to real ground potential.

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 8
What is a good reason to download and install the latest driver updates and software patches when servicing HP computers (remember to ask the customer before upgrading)?
A. Software patches and driver updates are integrated into the products and automatically installed as soon as the computer recognizes the new device.
B. Software patches and driver updates can improve USB performance with an increase equal to USB 2.0 ports performing at the same level that UBS 3.0 ports do.
C. Software patches and driver updates provide code necessary for the computer hardware to remain compatible with changing technologies and to enhance performance.
D. Software patches and driver updates increase compatibility with specific programs, and reviewing technical bulletins before installing updates is critical.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Which I/O port can support quad output at OXGA resolution and 30-bit color?
A. HDMI
B. DVI
C. DisplayPort
D. S-Video

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Which parts in HP notebooks are customer replaceable in the Customer Self Repair program? (Select two.)
A. liquid crystalline display (LCD)
B. finger print reader
C. memory
D. Bluetooth module
E. wireless antenna

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 11
Which HP resource provides product-rich service information, such as Field Replaceable Unit (FRU) removal and replacement procedures, parts locators, and system diagnostics?
A. HP Warranty Lookup
B. HP Services Media Library
C. HP Channel Services Network
D. HP Technical Support
E. HP Support Center (formerly IT Resource Center)

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 12
How do you clear the system password on an HP notebook computer manufactured in 2009 or later? (Select two.)
A. Replace the system board, or escalate to HP Support.
B. Run BiosConfigUtility.exe, and use the password reset function (if HP ProtectTools was used to create the BIOS account and the notebook can boot past POST without the password).
C. Restart the notebook from a USB drive that contains HP ProtectTools, and select the option to clear the system password.
D. Flash the BIOS to upgrade it to the latest version. This also resets the system password.
E. Follow the steps to clear the CMOS password. This also resets the system password.

Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 13
Some HP business products provide additional USB power options. Which voltages and associated colors are correct for USB power provisioning?
A. 5V (ivory), 10V (green), and 12V (teal)
B. 5V (ivory), 10V (green), and 20V (purple)
C. 5V (ivory), 12V (teal), and 20V (purple)
D. 5V (ivory), 12V (teal), and 24V (red)

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14
PCIe cards have a maximum allowable power consumption of 25 Watts although some x16 slots support higher wattages. What is the best way to verify that the PCI slot supports the device power requirements?
A. Search the Internet for information from anyone who has performed the same installation you are performing.
B. Install the device, and see if the device works as specified.
C. Check the power supply for additional PCI devices with which to add additional power.
D. Check the product QuickSpecs for product support information.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 15
Which disclosure level is specified in EF0012J according to the support communication code for indicating audiences?
A. The E is for external partners specifying that this communication is restricted from the general public and end users but is available to all external HP partners.
C. The technician must prove hardware functionality and must work with the network administrator to configure the device network adapter.
D. The technician must prove hardware functionality of any HP networking device that is included in the computer.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 30
Where should you look for warnings and instructions regarding safety precautions when servicing HP products?
A. in the service manual only because it is the only accepted source for accurate knowledge
B. on the computer and on HP service blog posts
C. on the computer and on any replacement parts
D. in the service manual and on HP service blog posts

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 31

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