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QUESTION 32
You have drawn a patch in your image. In the Paths palette, the path name is Work Path. What happens if you deselect Work Path and draw and new path?
A. The new path is added to Work Path.
B. A new path called Work Path 2 is created.
C. A single path component is created from all overlapping components.
D. The original Work Path is deleted, and the new path becomes Work Path.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 33
You have selected several anchor points of a shape layer. You want to rotate them an arbitrary amount. Which command should you use?
A. Filter >Liquify
B. Edit > Free Transform Path
C. Edit > Free Transform Points
D. Layer > Change Layer Content

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 34
Which file format can preserve vector data?
A. BMP
B. PICT
C. Photoshop PDF
D. Photoshop RAW

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 35
Exhibit.

You are using Camera RAW to import an image. You want the leftmost data in the histogram to be farther to the left with little effect on the right.
Which slider under the Adjust tab should you use?
A. Contrast
B. Shadows
C. Exposure
D. Brightness

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 36
You are creating a graphic that is to be used in anAnamorphic(2:1) video product. You use the Ellipse tool while holding down the Shift key. Pixel Aspect Ratio Correction preview is disabled.
How does the result appear in Photoshop?
A. a circle with pixels twice as tall as they are wide
B. a circle with pixels twice as wide as they are tall
C. all ellipse twice as tall as it is wide with square pixels
D. an ellipse twice as wide as it is tall with square pixels

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
While opening a Camera Raw image, you notice that the image has a slight color cast. Which setting in the Camera Raw dialog box should you adjust to eliminate the color cast?
A. Calibrate
B. Color Space
C. White Balance
D. Chromatic Aberration R/C

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 38
What is the purpose of setting a pixel aspect ratio for an image?
A. to draw perfect squares or circles with the Marquee tool
B. to constrain the proportions of an image when it is scaled
C. to ensure that the resolution of the image is appropriate for printing
D. to compensate for scaling when the image is incorporatedintovideo

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 39
You are using theUnsharpMask filter on a portrait. You want to avoid sharpening imperfections in the skin tone.
What should you do?
A. increase the Amount setting
B. decrease the Amount setting
C. increase the Threshold setting
D. decrease the Threshold setting

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 40
Using Filter Gallery, you want to preview the effect of applying several distortion and artistic filters. Which statement is true?
A. You can adjust the opacity of each filter layer.
B. You can preview the filters’ effect on more than one layer at a time.
C. You can add more filters in those categories with the Preset Manager.
D. You can change the order in which the filters will be applied before applying the gallery.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 41
Which tool should you sue to repair a portion of an image so that texture detail from one area of an image merges with the color and brightness values from another?
A. Clone Stamp
B. History Brush
C. Healing Brush
D. Color Replacement

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 42
You have made a selection of an area of an image you need to repair. Using the Patch tool, you want to drag the selection to the area that will serve as a patch.
Which Patch tool option should you choose?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 43
You foreground swatch is red, you background swatch is orange. Wherever you paint, you want to replace only orange with red. You do NOT want to affect luminosity values.
Which tool should you use?
A. Brush tool
B. Magic Eraser tool
C. Art History Brush tool
D. Color Replacement tool

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 44
An image with a correctly assigned input profile has been converted to Adobe RGB (1998). Which statement is true?
A. The colors look different, but the color numbers are identical.
B. The colors look different and the color numbers are different.
C. The colors look the same, but the color numbers are different.
D. The colors look the same and the color numbers are identical.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 45
Which term is used to describe how a particular device currently reproduces color?
A. calibrating
B. soft proofing
C. synchronizing
D. characterizing

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 46
What is the purpose of the Proof Setup command?
A. to correctly display an image that uses non-square pixels
B. to tag an image with a profile that describes its color space
C. to preview how the image will print to the current printer and paper size
D. to preview on screen how a file will display or print on different output devices

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 47
Which rendering intent is suitable for business graphics, where maintaining the exact relationship between colors is not as important as creating vivid color?
A. Saturation
B. Perceptual
C. Relative Colorimetric
D. Absolute Colorimetric

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 48
In the Color Settings dialog box, where do you specify the color profile that you want to use for each color model?
A. Working Spaces
B. Advanced Controls
C. Conversion Options
D. Color Management Policies

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 49
Which file format support vector graphics?
A. GIF
B. PDF
C. PNG
D. JPEG

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 50
A digital camera supported by Adobe Photoshop was set for tungsten lighting when a photograph was made in daylight. The photograph was made in the camera’s RAW mode.
What should you do?
A. when opening the document, adjust the tint slider in the Camera RAW dialog box
B. after opening the document, use the Assign Profile dialog box to the chooseProPhotoRGBIcprofile
C. after opening the document, use the Color Settings dialog box to the chooseProPhotoRGBIcprofile
D. when opening the document, choose daylight under the White Balance menu in the Camera RAW dialog box

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 51
You have created a shape layer. You want to sue a filter on the shape. What must you do?
A. delete the layer mask
B. delete the vector mask
C. resterizethe fill content
D. rasterizethe shape layer

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 52
Which statement about using the Place command to place anIIIustratorfile into a Photoshop document is true?
A. It becomes a shape layer.
B. It israsterizedat the document’s resolution.
C. It becomes a link to the originalIIIustratorfile.
D. It becomes a working path in the Paths palette.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 53
Which file format should you use to preserve variable transparency in an image to be used on a web page?
A. GIF
B. TIFF
C. PNG
D. JPEG

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 54
How do you apply keywords to many images in a directory?
A. use the Preset Manager
B. use the File info keyword field
C. use the File Browser keyword tab
D. check “Enable Version Cue Workgroup File Management”in the File Handling preferences

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 55
You want to print a document with shape layers. You want the vector data to be sent to a Postscript printer. What should you do?
A. duplicate the shape layers’ vector masks as paths
B. choose Layer >Rasterize> All Layers before printing
C. select Maximize Compatibility in the File Handling Preference dialog box
D. selectInclude Vector Data in the Output options of the Print with Preview dialog box.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 56
Which command should you use to print an image by using the current print settings WITHOUT displaying a dialog box?
A. Print
B. Page Setup
C. Print One Copy
D. Print with Preview

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 57
You want print a document in duotone mode to your four-color desktop inkjet printer. Which statement is true?
A. Only two inks will be used by the printer.
B. The image will print in grayscale, using black ink only.
C. The image will print as a process color approximation on the document.
D. Each of the inks specified in the duotone will be replaced by a pair of inks at the printer.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
Which statement about printing duotones is true?
A. Duotones must be converted to CMYK mode before printing.
B. A transfer function should be created for each ink in the duotone.
C. The inks used in duotones must be printed a different screen angles.
D. Duotones should be saved as TIFF files if they are going to be imported into and printed from a page-layout application.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 59
You are printing an image from Photoshop. You want Photoshop to handle the color management.
Which options should you choose for Print Space from the Color Management area of the Print with Preview dialog box?
A. Same as Source
B. a profile of your printer
C. a profile of your monitor
D. Printer Color Management

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 60
You are creating an interface element with a drop shadow for a Web page. You want to maintain the full, variable transparency of the graphic and shadow. You enable transparency in the Save for Web dialog box.
Which file format renders the transparency without introducing a surrounding matte color?
A. GIF
B. JPEG
C. PNG8
D. PNG24
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 61
Which file format should you sue display photographs and other continuous-tone images on the Web?
A. GIF
B. TIFF
C. PDF
D. JPEG

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 62
You have a single layered document. You want to generate a JPEG of a small area of the document. What should you do?
A. Copy that area to a new layer, disable the visibility of the original layer, then use the Save for Web dialog box
B. Save a selection of the area as a channel, then click the Alpha channel button in the Save for Web dialog box
C. Create a slice of that area, then choose All User Slices from the Slice pop-up menu of the Save Optimized AS dialog box
D. Create a marquee of that area, then choose All User Slices from the Slices pop-up menu of the Save Optimized As dialog box

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 63
You have created a navigation bar for a Website that contains both continuous-tone images and areas of flat color. You want to achieve the best optimization for the navigation bar.
What should you do?
A. save the image as a GIF
B. save the image as JPEG
C. create slices to determine how areas should be optimized
D. create image maps to determine how areas should be optimized

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 64
You have created a graphic that you will be suing on the Web. The graphic includes transparent areas.
You want the fully transparent pixels to remain transparent, and you want to blend partially transparent
pixels with a color.
What optimization options should you choose?

A. select transparency, and select a matter color
B. deselect transparency, and select a matter color
C. select transparency, and set the matte color to None
D. deselect transparency, and set the matte color to None

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 65
What happens when you choose the command Layer > Flatten image?
A. Layers within layer sets are merged into a single layer.
B. All layers are made visible and then combined into the background layer.
C. The active layer and all visible layers below it are combined into a single layer.
D. All visible layers are combined into the background layer and hidden layers are discarded.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 66
You have created a layer set. You want to maintain the blending modes that are assigned to the individual layers within the set.
Which blending mode should you use for the layer set?
A. Normal
B. Multiply
C. Overlay
D. Pass Through

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 67
How do you hide the content of several layer sets with one mask?
A. put all of the layer sets inside a new layer set, select this new set, then click the Add Mask button
B. create a clipping mask consisting of the layer sets, select the base set in that group, and click the Add Mask button.
C. create a layer above the layer sets, set its Fill Opacity to 0%, and its Knockout setting to Deep
D. create a layer above the layer sets, set its Fill Opacity to 0%, and its Knockout setting to Shadow

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 68
You want to give the content of a layer atexturizedappearance (relief) that responds to the Global Angle of light.
Which layer style should you use?
A. Satin
B. Pattern Overlay
C. Gradient Overlay
D. Bevel and Emboss

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 69
The topmost of several layers in a document is a shape layer. You want that shape to define a hole in all the layers of the image.
What should you do?
A. select the top layer, and choose Layer > Create Clipping Mask
B. link all layers, then choose Layer > Create Clipping Mask from Linked
C. in the top layer’s Blending Options, set the Opacity to 0%, and knockout to Deep
D. in the top layer’s Blending Options, set the Fill Opacity to 0%, and knockout to Deep

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 70
Which mask does a shape layer use by default?
A. vector
B. raster
C. clipping
D. transparency

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 71
You want to create a vector polygon that is filled. You want to be able to move the polygon independently of layers and to apply layer styles to the polygon.
What should you do?
A. use the Polygon tool to fill pixels
B. use the Polygon tool to create a path
C. use the Polygon tool to create a shape layer
D. use the Polygon tool to create a clipping mask

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 72
You create an alpha channel _________.
A. to hold color data for a document
B. to create transparency for a layer
C. to create transparency for a JPEG file
D. to localize Optimization settings in Save for Web

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 73
You have saved a selection as a channel. You want to modify that channel with a new selection. You want to add white within the newly selected area on the alpha channel. You choose Select > Save Selection.
What should you do?
A. select the alpha channel and click the Add to Channel button
B. select the alpha channel and click the Exclude Overlapping button
C. select the alpha channel and click the Intersect with Channel button
D. select the alpha channel and click the Subtract from Channel button

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 74
Which type of channel stores selections for editing specific parts of an image?
A. color channels
B. alpha channels
C. masking channel
D. spot color channels

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 75
You want to create an image that will be printed using black ink plus onePantone?color. What should you do?
A. add a color swatch for thePantone?colorand use the color on any layer
B. create an alpha channel for the elements that will use thePanatone?color
C. create a spot color channel for the elements that will use thePanatone?color
D. create a layer set and add elements that will print in thePantone?colorto any layer within the layer set

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 76
Using Filter Gallery, you want to preview the effect of applying several distortion and artistic filters. Which statement is true?
A. You can adjust the opacity of each filter layer.
B. You can preview the filters’ effect on more than one layer at a time.
C. You can add more filters in those categories with the Preset Manager.
D. You can change the order in which the filters will be applied before applying a gallery. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 77
Your foreground swatch isred,your background swatch is orange. Wherever you paint, you want to replace only orange with red. You do NOT want affect luminosity values.
Which tool should you use?
A. Brush tool
B. Magic Eraser tool
C. Art History Brush tool
D. Color Replacement tool

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 78
Exhibit

You have made a selection of an area of an image you need to repair. Using the Patch tool, you want to drag the selection to the area that will serve as a patch.
Which Patch tool option should you choose?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 79
Which tool should you sue to repair a portion of an image so that texture detail from one area of an image merges with the color and brightness values from another?
A. Clone Stamp
B. History Brush
C. Healing Brush
D. Color Replacement

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 80
A scanned photograph exhibits substantial graininess and diminished sharpness. You want to sharpen the image without increasing the grain.
Which control in theUnsharpMask filter should you use?
A. Fade
B. Radius
C. Amount

D. Threshold Correct Answer: D QUESTION 81
Which option from the Brushes palette allows you to determine the number and placement of marks in a stroke?
A. Texture
B. Scattering
C. Shape Dynamics
D. Brush Tip Shapes

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 82
The Aligned checkbox for the Pattern Stamp tool in the Options Bar ensures that ______.
A. all areas painted with the tool are continuations of the same underlying pattern
B. you are sampling from the same pixels in the pattern with which you are painting
C. you are sampling from the same relative point in the pattern with which you are painting
D. the upper left corner of the pattern with which you are painting is aligned with the beginning of each brush stroke

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 83
You have been editing an image. You want to restore certain small areas of the image to their condition before you last several edits.
Which tool or command should you use?
A. Eraser tool
B. Edit > Undo
C. History Brush tool
D. Edit > Step Backward

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 84
You are creating a layer style that includes a Bevel and Emboss.
What allows you to sculpt the ridges, valleys, and bumps that are shaded in the embossing process?

A. spread
B. contour
C. shading
D. blend mode

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 85
You use the Magic Eraser tool on the background. What is the result?
A. The background becomes Layer 0 and the pixels similar in color to the one clicked become transparent.
B. The background becomes Layer 0 and the pixels similar in color to the one clicked become filled with background color.
C. The background remains and the pixels similar in color to the one clicked become filled with background color.
D. The background remains and the pixels similar in color to the one clicked become filled with black.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 86
You have several layers in a layer set. You want to the layers in that set to blend with one another first, and then with the rest of the layers in the document.
Which blending mode should you use for the layer set?
A. Normal
B. Hard Mix
C. Exclusion
D. Pass Through

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 87
A Photoshop document has several paths. You want to use one of them as a vector mask. What should you do?
A. chooseLayer > Add Vector Mask then choose a path from the resulting dialog box.
B. select the patch in the Paths palette, then choose Layer > Add Vector Mask > Current Path
C. copy the path to the clipboard, choose Layer > Add Vector Mask; then Edit > Paste
D. choose Layer > Add Vector Mask, then drag the path from the Paths palette onto the Vector Mask thumbnail

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 88
The topmost of several layers in a document is a shape layer. You want that shape to define a hole in all the layers of the image.
What should you do?
A. select the top layer, and choose Layer > Create Clipping Mask
B. link all layers, then choose Layer > Create Clipping Mask from Linked
C. in the top layer’s Blending Options, set the Opacity to 0%, and Knockout to Deep
D. in the top layer’s Blending Options, set the Fill Opacity to 0%, and knockout to Deep

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 89
You have created a raster layer mask that is currently hiding too much of a layer. You want to reveal more of the layer.
What should you do?
A. select the mask and paint with white
B. select the mask and paint with black
C. create a path around the area you need to reveal, then create a vector mask
D. create a path with Intersect Shape Areas selected around the area you need to reveal, then create a vector mask

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 90
You want to restrict the visibility of one layer to only where it overlaps the visible content of the layer below it.
What should you do?
A. select the lower of the two layers and choose Layer > Create Clipping Mask
B. holddown Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) and click on the line between the two layers.
C. Link the two layers,thenchoose Create New Set from Linked from the Layers palette menu.
D. Select both layers, then click on the Add Layer Mask button at the bottom of the Layers palette

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 91
You are suing the Shadow/Highlight command to correct an underexposed image. Which value determines the scale size for corrections?
A. Radius
B. Amount
C. Tonal Width
D. MidtoneContrast

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 92
You have several images of a subject. One has the correct tonal and color characteristics. You want to adjust the other to look like the correct one.
Which option from the Image > Adjustments menu should you use?
A. Auto Color
B. Match Color
C. Replace Color
D. Selective Color

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 93
What would you most likely need to do afterresamplinga 20 megabyte image to 100 kilobytes using BicubicInterpolation?
A. Blur
B. Sharpen
C. Add Noise
D. Auto Levels

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 94
The shadows and highlights in a document are too light and too dark respectively. The color of the image, however, is satisfactory.
Which option in the Auto Color Correction Options dialog box should you choose?
A. Snap NeutralMidtones
B. Find Dark & Light Colors
C. Enhance Per Channel Contrast
D. Enhance Monochromatic Contrast

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 95
Exhibit.

You have created a curves adjustment layer that you only want applied to the Rubber ducky layer. You notice that the adjustment layer darkens the entire composition.
What should you do?
A. put the beach layer above the adjustment layer
B. create a clipping mask with the Rubber Ducky layer
C. put the Rubber Ducky layer above the adjustment layer
D. create a layer set with the adjustment and Rubber Duckylaers

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 96
You are trying to lighten a dark subject in your image by using the Shadow/Highlight command, but the midtonesand lighter areas are changing too much.
What should you do?
A. increase the Shadow Amount
B. decrease the Shadow Amount
C. Increase the Shadow Tonal Width
D. Decrease the Shadow Tonal Width

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 97
You are working in the Levels dialog box. The pixels in the image cover a range from 0-220. You want to increase the contrast in the highlight areas of the image.
What should you do?
A. increase the value for the black Input Level
B. decrease the value for the white Input Level
C. increase the value for the black Output Level
D. decrease the value for the white Output Level

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 98
Exhibit.

You are using Camera RAW to import an image. You want the leftmost data in the histogram to be farther to the left with little effect on the right.
Which slider under the Adjust tab should you use?
A. Contrast
B. Shadows
C. Exposure
D. Brightness

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 99
While opening a Camera Raw image, you notice that the image has a slight color cast. Which setting in the Camera Raw dialog box should you adjust to eliminate the color cast?
A. Calibrate
B. Color Space
C. White Balance
D. Chromatic Aberration R/C

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 100
What is the purpose of setting a pixel aspect ratio for an image?
A. to draw perfect squares or circles with the Marquee tool
B. to constrain the promotions of an image when it is scaled
C. to ensure that the resolution of the image is appropriate for printing
D. to compensate for scaling when the image is incorporated into video

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 101
You are creating a graphic that is to be used in anAnamorphic(2:1) video product. You sue the Ellipse tool while holding down the Shift key. Pixel Aspect Ratio Correction preview is disabled. How does the result appear in Photoshop?
A. a circle with pixels twice as tall as they are wide
B. a circle with pixels twice as wide as they are tall
C. an ellipse twice as tall as it is wide with square pixels
D. an ellipse twice as wide as it is tall with square pixels

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 102
You create an alpha channel _________.
A. to hold color data for a document
B. to create transparency for a layer
C. to create transparency for a JPEG file
D. to localize Optimization settings in Save for Web

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 103
Which type of channel stores selections for editing specific parts of an image?
A. color channels
B. alpha channels
C. masking channel
D. spot color channels

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 104
You want to create an image that will be printed using black ink plus onePantone?Color. What should you do?
A. add a color swatch for thePantone?colorand use the color on any layer
B. create an alpha channel for the elements that will use thePantone?color
C. create a spot color channel for the elements that will use thePantone?color
D. create a layer set and add elements that will print in thePanatone?colorto any layer within the layer set

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 105
You have saved a selection as a channel. You want to modify that channel with a new selection. You want to add white within the newly selected area on the alpha channel. You choose Select > Save Selection.
What should you do?
A. select the alpha channel and click the Add to Channel button
B. select the alpha channel and click the Exclude Overlapping button
C. select the alpha channel and click the Intersect with Channel button
D. select the alpha channel and click the Subtract from Channel button

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 106
You have used the File Browser to rotate, flag, and rank images in a directory. You want to burn the entire
directory to a CD while maintaining the settings in the File Browser.
Which File Browser command should you use?
A. File > Purge Cache
B. File > Export Cache
C. Edit > Append Metadata
D. Edit > Replace Metadata

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 107
Yourasterizea type layer to __________.
A. useLiquify
B. apply al layer style
C. use Free Transform
D. use an adjustment layer

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 108
Which statement is true about using the command File > Place to place artwork in an image?
A. The artwork will be placed on a new layer.
B. You can choose to place the artwork as pixels or paths.
C. You can choose which resolution to use for the imported artwork.
D. The file formats you can place are the same as those in which you can save a Photoshop file.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 109
A digital camera supported by Adobe Photoshop was set for tungsten lighting when a photograph was made in daylight. The photograph was made in the camera’s RAW mode.
What should you do?
A. when opening the document, adjust the tint slider in the Camera RAW dialog box
B. after opening the document, use the Assign Profile dialog box to the chooseProPhotoRGBICprofile
C. after opening the document, use the Color Settings dialog box to the chooseProPhotoRGBICprofile
D. when opening the document, choose daylight under the White Balance menu in the Camera RAW dialog box

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 110
Which file format should you sue to preserve variable transparency in an image to be used on a web page?
A. GIF
B. TIFF
C. PNG
D. JPEG
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 111
Which file format supports vector graphics?
A. GIF
B. PDF
C. PNG
D. JPEG

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 112
Exhibit.

You want to convert one anchor point from one that gives curvature to a path to one that forms a corner. Which tool should you use?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
Correct Answer: E QUESTION 113
Which file format can preserve vector data?
A. BMP
B. PICT
C. Photoshop PDF
D. Photoshop RAW

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 114
Exhibit.

Which command was used to create shape B from shape A?
A. Effect > Transform > Warp
B. Edit > Free Transform Points
C. Select > Transform Selection
D. Layer > Change Layer Content

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 115
From the Export menu, in which format can you export paths from Photoshop?
A. AdobeIIIustrator(AI)
B. Enhanced Metafile (EMF)
C. AutoCAD Drawing
D. Encapsulated Postscript (EPS)

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 116
Exhibit.

Which tool should you use to move the selected anchor point?
A. Pen tool
B. Selection tool
C. FreefromPen tool
D. Direct Selection tool

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 117
You are recording an action. During its playback, you want an image’s magnification to be adjusted to fit the image on screen.
What should you do?
A. choose View > Fit on Screen
B. when you get to the point for the magnification change, choose View > Fit on Screen
C. use the Insert Menu Item command from the Action palette menu, then choose View > Actual Pixels
D. use the Insert Menu Item command from the Action palette menu, then choose View > Fit on Screen

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 118
You assign a color to an action while creating the action. When is this color used?
A. to fill a selection when the action is played
B. when a Function key has been assigned to the Action
C. when actions are displayed in Button mode in the Actions palette
D. to highlight the Action name when Playback Options are set to Step by Step

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 119
The command File > Automate > Fit image ______.
A. resamplesan image to within specified dimensions
B. resamplesan image to match another open document
C. resizes an image to within specified dimensions withoutresampling
D. resizesan image to match another open document withoutresampling.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 120
You want to apply an action to some documents in a folder, but not to all of them. What should you do?
A. in the File Browser, first select the individual files, then choose Automate > Batch with File Browser specified as the source
B. open all of the documents to be processed, then choose All opened Files from the Actions palette menu Playback Options
C. in the File Browser, first select the individual files, then choose Automate > Batch with Opened Files specified as the source
D. in the File > Open dialog box, select the individual files, then choose Automate > Batch with import specified as the source

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
What are the supported operating systems for HP Support Assistant?
A. Windows Vista, Windows 7, and Linux
B. Windows 7, and Windows 8
C. Windows XP, Windows Vista, and Windows 7
D. Windows 7, Windows 8, and Linux

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
What kind of functionality do Mini PCI cards typically provide for HP commercial notebooks?
A. Wireless Display (WiDi) connectivity
B. WWAN capabilities
C. Wi-Fi connectivity
D. Bluetooth communication

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
What protocol must the graphics controller support to enable HP Display Assistant (HPDA) to control and set the monitor for best picture quality?
A. the Display Control Calibration Interface protocol
B. the Display Data Channel Command Interface protocol
C. the Monitor Control Calibration Interface protocol
D. the Monitor Data Channel Command protocol

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
Which statement best describes self-encrypting drive (SED) technology?
A. SEDs can support hardware-based encryption, software-based encryption, and a combination of the two configured using HP ProtectTools.
B. The hardware-based encryption in a SED uses a 256-bit Advanced Encryption Standard algorithm that surpasses the Trusted Computing Group’s OPAL Security standard.
C. SEDs that use hardware-based encryption encrypt all files on the disk other than operating system files.
D. SEDs can support hardware-based encryption or software-based encryption configured using HP ProtectTools.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Which statement best describes the Restriction of Hazardous Substance (RoHS) environment standard to which HP is committed?
A. RoHS regulates the supply and return of notebook batteries.
B. RoHS regulates the supply and return of parts containing restricted or controlled materials.
C. RoHS defines the process for a compliant processor upgrade.
D. RoHS defines the policy for the disposal of obsolete equipment.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6

What tag do certain HP workstations have (in addition to the service tag) that provides the build ID and the feature byte, which are required for replacing a system board?
A. the support label
B. the flexbuild label
C. the technician data label
D. the system board label

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Why is an antistatic mat important for controlling electrostatic discharge? (select two)
A. provides a soft surface to prevent scratches on the case or outer shell of the computer.
B. provides a dissipative connection for a wrist strap that must be worn by the service technician.
C. drains power quickly with a surface that provides real ground potential with a very low electrical impedance.
D. provides electrostatic protection for sensitive equipment without requiring the mat to be connected to a ground.
E. provides a surface that gradually bleeds electrical energy instead of collapsing to real ground potential.

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 8
What is a good reason to download and install the latest driver updates and software patches when servicing HP computers (remember to ask the customer before upgrading)?
A. Software patches and driver updates are integrated into the products and automatically installed as soon as the computer recognizes the new device.
B. Software patches and driver updates can improve USB performance with an increase equal to USB 2.0 ports performing at the same level that UBS 3.0 ports do.
C. Software patches and driver updates provide code necessary for the computer hardware to remain compatible with changing technologies and to enhance performance.
D. Software patches and driver updates increase compatibility with specific programs, and reviewing technical bulletins before installing updates is critical.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Which I/O port can support quad output at OXGA resolution and 30-bit color?
A. HDMI
B. DVI
C. DisplayPort
D. S-Video

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Which parts in HP notebooks are customer replaceable in the Customer Self Repair program? (Select two.)
A. liquid crystalline display (LCD)
B. finger print reader
C. memory
D. Bluetooth module
E. wireless antenna

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 11
Which HP resource provides product-rich service information, such as Field Replaceable Unit (FRU) removal and replacement procedures, parts locators, and system diagnostics?
A. HP Warranty Lookup
B. HP Services Media Library
C. HP Channel Services Network
D. HP Technical Support
E. HP Support Center (formerly IT Resource Center)

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 12
How do you clear the system password on an HP notebook computer manufactured in 2009 or later? (Select two.)
A. Replace the system board, or escalate to HP Support.
B. Run BiosConfigUtility.exe, and use the password reset function (if HP ProtectTools was used to create the BIOS account and the notebook can boot past POST without the password).
C. Restart the notebook from a USB drive that contains HP ProtectTools, and select the option to clear the system password.
D. Flash the BIOS to upgrade it to the latest version. This also resets the system password.
E. Follow the steps to clear the CMOS password. This also resets the system password.

Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 13
Some HP business products provide additional USB power options. Which voltages and associated colors are correct for USB power provisioning?
A. 5V (ivory), 10V (green), and 12V (teal)
B. 5V (ivory), 10V (green), and 20V (purple)
C. 5V (ivory), 12V (teal), and 20V (purple)
D. 5V (ivory), 12V (teal), and 24V (red)

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14
PCIe cards have a maximum allowable power consumption of 25 Watts although some x16 slots support higher wattages. What is the best way to verify that the PCI slot supports the device power requirements?
A. Search the Internet for information from anyone who has performed the same installation you are performing.
B. Install the device, and see if the device works as specified.
C. Check the power supply for additional PCI devices with which to add additional power.
D. Check the product QuickSpecs for product support information.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 15
Which disclosure level is specified in EF0012J according to the support communication code for indicating audiences?
A. The E is for external partners specifying that this communication is restricted from the general public and end users but is available to all external HP partners.
C. The technician must prove hardware functionality and must work with the network administrator to configure the device network adapter.
D. The technician must prove hardware functionality of any HP networking device that is included in the computer.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 30
Where should you look for warnings and instructions regarding safety precautions when servicing HP products?
A. in the service manual only because it is the only accepted source for accurate knowledge
B. on the computer and on HP service blog posts
C. on the computer and on any replacement parts
D. in the service manual and on HP service blog posts

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 31

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QUESTION 1
You have determined that a computer has a defective hard drive. What is the next step in the HP Six-Step Troubleshooting Methodology process that you should take?
A. Collect additional data
B. Implement preventive measures
C. Evaluate the data
D. Develop an action plan

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
A customer complains that the HP QuickLook 2 feature is not working on their notebook running Windows Vista. Which application must be installed to support this feature?
A. HP Assistant
B. Microsoft Aero
C. HP Help and Support
D. Microsoft Office

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3
Which hardware support service is available as an HP Care Pack Service?
A. 24-Hour Call to Repair
B. 4-Hour 24×7 Same Day
C. 8-Hour Same Business Day
D. PC Unit Exchange

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
What should you do to view details of the graphics driver?
A. Click the Driver Signing button in the hardware tab of System Properties.
B. Press F10 during bootup and access the Advanced option in the system BIOS.
C. Click the Advanced button of Display Properties in Control Panel.
D. Click the Hardware Profiles button in System Properties.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
A computer does not boot from a bootable USB storage device, although the computer can access the files on the storage device in Windows Explorer. What is the cause of this?
A. The USB port is defective.
B. An incorrect boot order is set in the BIOS.
C. The device is locked from user access.
D. Incorrect USB drivers are installed.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
Which operating system is supported by HP on HP desktop PCs?
A. Ubuntu Linux
B. Windows Server 2008
C. Windows Vista
D. Windows 2000

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Which types of drive encryption does HP ProtectTools support? (Select two.)
A. folder level
B. master boot level
C. full volume level
D. BIOS level
E. operating system level

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 8
What should you do if you find missing keys on a customer’s keyboard?
A. Replace the keyboard under warranty.
B. Order the missing keys.
C. Explain that replacing the keys is not covered under warranty.
D. Run the HP Insight Diagnostics tool.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
What are two primary uses of the HP Insight Diagnostic tool? (Select two.)
A. software diagnostics
B. third-party device diagnostics
C. hardware diagnostics
D. performance diagnostics
E. hardware configuration display

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 10
You are trying to recover a password on an HP notebook PC with HP Startup Support Environment installed. Which key do you press to enter the HP SpareKey window?
A. F1
B. F4
C. F7
D. F12

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
What is the first step you should take when a customer complains that the optical disk drive is not reading specific media?
A. Update the BIOS.
B. Reload the operating system.
C. Check the media in another device.
D. Update the firmware.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 12
What is the main function of a DisplayPort to DVI Adapter?
A. to convert the output of a graphics card from VGA to DVI
B. to convert DisplayPort output to DVI for use with a Single Link DVI-D monitor
C. to enable 3D graphics to be rendered more clearly on a CRT monitor
D. to enable S-Video support in order to view HDTV content

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
A customer reports they are unable to dock dozens of new notebooks. As the onsite technician, you have opened multiple cases with HP but are still unable to resolve. What should you do next?
A. Advise the customer to contact their HP sales manager.
B. Contact HP to escalate for further investigation.
C. Advise the customer to purchase an extended warranty.
D. Order replacement docking stations.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14
What is the difference between SATA and eSATA?
A. SATA has more drive options.
B. eSATA uses an external port.
C. SATA has lower power consumption.
D. eSATA uses a faster bus speed.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
What is an important step you should take when replacing a processor?
A. Install an activation strip.
B. Install processor drivers.
C. Use a protector plate.
D. Replace the thermal grease.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
After installing new software, a customer reports an operating system failure that results in random blue screens.
What is the first option you should recommend for this customer?
A. Restore the operating system from the operating system CD/DVD.
B. Replace the hard drive.
C. Use Microsoft System Restore to return to a previous known working state.
D. Repair the operating system using the operating system CD/DVD. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
You have replaced a video adapter in a customer’s workstation, but now the network PCI card is no longer recognized by the system. What is the first step you should take to resolve the customer’s issue?
A. Upgrade the firmware.
B. Replace the network adapter.
C. Check the network adapter drivers.
D. Reseat the network adapter.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 18
Which HP product for post-warranty support is available to HP customers?
A. Help Pack Services
B. Care Pack Services
C. Assistant Services
D. Service Pack Option

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
What is the difference between a frontside bus (FSB) and Intel QuickPath?
A. QuickPath connects the memory controller to the I/O controller; FSB connects the CPU to the chipset.
B. QuickPath is a peripheral data bus; FSB is a CPU data bus.
C. QuickPath is a graphics controller bus; FSB is a CPU data bus.
D. QuickPath provides faster CPU data transfer speeds than the FSB.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 20
What is the recommended electrostatic discharge (ESD) precaution that you should take before starting work on a computer?
A. Use a power outlet to ground the computer.
B. Store all electronic parts in a plastic bag.
C. Touch a metallic portion of the case to establish ground.
D. Put on a grounded wrist strap.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 21
One out of ten identically configured computers at a customer’s site is exhibiting random lockups. What is the first component you should swap with another working unit to determine whether this is a software or hardware problem?
A. memory
B. system board
C. hard drive
D. processor

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 22
Which devices are used to write data to removable media? (Select two.)
A. CD drive
B. DVD-RW drive
C. DVD drive
D. USB flash drive
E. Blu-ray drive

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 23
What information does the HP Battery Health Check utility provide about the battery?
A. warranty ID
B. number of charges remaining
C. name of the manufacturer
D. serial number

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
What should be the first step in troubleshooting a component that is not recognized by the system?
A. Exchange the component with a “known good” component.
B. Reseat the component.
C. Reinstall all drivers related to this component.
D. Remove the component from the system.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
What is an advantage of DDR3 RAM?
A. ECC memory correction is a standard feature.
B. It is asynchronous dynamic RAM, which improves performance.
C. It is more power efficient than DDR2 memory.
D. It is compatible with DDR2 memory, which enables easy upgrades.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
A customer reports that the power supply in an HP desktop has had repeated failures. Although it has been replaced several times, the power supply continues to fail.
What is the first step you should take to identify the root cause?
A. Upgrade the power supply to one with greater capacity.
B. Replace the system board and the power supply.
C. Recommend a power audit of the facility.
D. Replace the complete desktop.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
What should you do first when a customer reports low battery capacity?
A. Test the battery using EFI Diagnostics.
B. Run the HP Battery Health Check.
C. Run HP Vision Field diagnostics.
D. Replace the battery under warranty.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 28
Which statement is true about HP thin clients?
A. They run Linux operating systems only.
B. They have no system BIOS.
C. They use an embedded operating system.
D. They have no network functionality.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 29
What is a benefit of HP DieamColor technology?
A. It automatically locates and hides defective pixels by changing their color.
B. It allows the use of a digitizer for point-and-click display functionality.
C. It produces consistent color across digital devices and applications.
D. It adjusts the color of the display according to the external light sources.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 30
Which utility should be used to configure a WWAN device on an HP notebook?
A. HP Connection Manager
B. F10 Computer Setup Utility
C. Windows XP Zero Configuration Utility
D. HP Software Update Utility

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 31
What minimum configuration is required in order to access the embedded SATA RAID configuration tools? (Select two.)
A. The minimum required memory must be installed.
B. RAID/AHCI SATA emulation must be enabled.
C. System firmware must be updated.
D. A second SATA hard drive must be added.
E. RAID must be enabled in the BIOS.

Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 32
HP Disk Sanitizei (Shredder) is part of which HP security suite?
A. SecurityTools
B. ProtectTools
C. DefenclTools
D. SafeGuarclTools

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 33
What is the function of the HP Support Assistant?

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QUESTION 1
A small business with one corporate office and two small branch offices wants to upgrade their aging server hardware. The business is stable, with no plans for expansion or migration to the cloud. The IT manager is looking for a solution that will offer maximum flexibility and all- inclusive storage to each branch office. Which HP server family best meets this customers’ needs?
A. HP ProLiant BL400
B. HP Moonshot
C. HP Integrity BL800
D. HP ProLiant ML310e Gen8
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://h17007.www1.hp.com/docs/justrightit/ProLiant%20Gen8%20Servers %20Positioning%20Guide%204AA4-0118ENW.pdf (page 17)
QUESTION 2
Businesses need to reduce costs and increase original and creative approaches. Which of these IT initiatives are most related to that business driver? (Select two.)
A. Responding to increased demand for mobile access
B. Embracing cloud computing
C. Cutting back on the rapid growth of big data
D. Shifting away from complex Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) environments
E. Adopting innovative platforms and technologies
Correct Answer: BE Explanation

QUESTION 3
A company’s IT staff must ensure that their IT services are available 24×7 and always operating at peak levels. Which HP Technology Service would you suggest to meet these requirements?
A. HP Advanced Care
B. HP Care Pack
C. HP Foundation Care
D. HP Proactive Care
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A warranty would only protect your customer against problems with the product itself, not the service that the product delivers. 6 hour CTR HW Support would provide a good level of protection, but not the optimal service level for a customer whose business demands high availability. HP Proactive Care with 24×7 cover would minimize unplanned downtime and pay for itself. (Study guide p.30)
QUESTION 4
What value does the HP ProLiant 3D Sea of Sensors technology provide?
A. Visibility into and control over energy usage to decrease power and cooling costs
B. Continuous monitoring of users to enable early detection of suspicious activity and security threats
C. Ability to monitor traffic and process high-priority packets first, improving overall performance
D. Remote visibility into servers’ operating systems, which simplifies server management
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://h20195.www2.hp.com/V2/GetPDF.aspx%2F4AA3-9650ENW.pdf (page 2)
QUESTION 5
You determine that a potential customer is in the “Expanding Business” phase. Which value of HP Networking solutions should you emphasize with this customer?
A. The HP FlexNetwork architecture is built on open standards and provides scalability in functionality, connectivity, and capacity.
B. The HP Intelligent Management Center (IMC. provides increased visibility for wired and wireless networks, allowing companies to support Bring Your Own Device (BYOD. environments.
C. The HP Intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF. provides load balancing and high availability, increasing the company’s efficiency.
D. The HP FlexNetwork provides simplified and streamlined deployment and management.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Expanding the business (Study guide p.43) HP Networking solutions HP FlexNetwork Architecture
Open and standard-based solution Scales on three dimensions-functionality, connectivity, and capacity Agile and secure OPEX savings (simplified and streamlined deployment, management, and training) Software Defined Networks (Openness, agility, and simplicity)
QUESTION 6
For which customer situation would you recommend HP Intelligent Management Center (IMC. Smart Connect?
A. A customer updated their data center to support Virtual Machines (VMs) and needs visibility into how these VMs connect to the network.
B. A customer wants to allow users to access the wired and wireless network using their own devices.
C. A customers needs to add a Storage Area Network (SAN) that provides data storage for all the VMs in the data center.
D. A customer needs to implement a wireless network for employees who have company-issued laptops.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
IMC Smart Connect: (Study guide p.17)
Provides a plug-and-play BYOD management solution; single pane-of-glass management virtual appliance, Intelligent Management Center IMC User Access
Manager, integrated database and OS , Optional WLAN manager, fully integrated user access policy speeds installation, easier to use. Reference:
http://h17007.www1.hp.com/docs/products/4AA4-5108ENW.pdf (page 1, product overview)

QUESTION 7
Sales engagements can follow a transactional or consultative pattern. Which type of sales engagement is appropriate for HP Enterprise Group solutions and why?
A. Consultative; because this approach deepens the solution and expands the sale
B. Transactional; because this approach simplifies the sales process
C. Transactional; because customers often already know what they want
D. Consultative; because customers need a quick recommendation for “one-size-fits-all” solutions
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The breadth of capabilities within the HP Enterprise Group family requires Consultative Selling. The Consultative sale is best when a strategic sale is required with a customer you know and understand. (Study guide p;34)
QUESTION 8
Which HP innovation allows a customer to connect multiple switches into a single virtual device?
A. Intelligent Management Center (IMC.
B. Smart Connect
C. Intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF)
D. Virtual Connect
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
HP IRF provides software virtualization technology to connect multiple network devices through physical IRF ports and perform necessary configurations, and then these devices are virtualized into a distributed device. (Study guide p.18)
QUESTION 9
How does HP Converged Infrastructure transform a traditional IT infrastructure into an optimized and efficient architecture?
A. It pools servers, storage, networking, and services in a common architecture.
B. It adds additional layers to the network environment to increase speed and scalability.
C. It increases separation between manager roles, so managers can better focus on services.
D. It deploys best-in-industry proprietary protocols across the IT architecture.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Establish a common, modern IT architecture that pools servers, storage, networking and services (Study guide p.12)
QUESTION 10
Which benefits differentiate HP servers from competitors’ servers? (Select two.)
A. HP is the only vendor that unifies UNIX and x86 hardware.
B. HP servers include a Get Virtual Guarantee.
C. HP servers feature autonomic management and tier 1 capabilities at mid-range prices.
D. HP servers have a 33% lower Total Cost of Ownership (TCO).
E. HP servers support open standards, rather than proprietary technologies.
Correct Answer: AD Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 11

Which benefit does HP 3PAR Thin Provisioning technologies provide?
A. A highly efficient backup and restore solution that uses federated deduplication
B. A high-speed network that uses a simple, flat topology
C. A single-pane-of-glass management solution for provisioning networks, storage, and servers
D. A lower cost storage solution that uses as few as half the disks
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www8.hp.com/us/en/products/storage-software/product-detail.html? oid=5044622#!tab=features (first bullet on the page)
QUESTION 12
Which phases are included in the Services Life Cycle? (Select two.)
A. Implementation
B. service improvement
C. Hardware Recycle
D. Design
E. Administration
Correct Answer: AD Explanation

QUESTION 13
Which HP solution most helps customers who need to respond to the rapid growth of big data?
A. HP StoreAll
B. HP 3PAR StoreServ
C. HP Moonshoot
D. HP Continuous Delivery Automation
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Responding to the rapid growth in Big Data, HP solutions include: (Study guide p.33)
HP 3PAR StoreServ

HP StoreOnce

HP StoreAll Express Query

HP StoreAll Storage http://www8.hp.com/us/en/products/data-storage/3parstoreserv.html
QUESTION 14
A customer is currently using an older storage technology. The customer would like to move to HP 3PAR StoreServ Storage, but is worried about the business disruption that moving to a new storage system might cause. Which HP services would you suggest? (Select two.)
A. HP Data Migration
B. HP Storage Impact Analysis
C. HP 3PAR Storage Assessment
D. Proactive Care 24 x 7
E. HP 3PAR Health Check
Correct Answer: AD Explanation Explanation/Reference:

HP Proactive Care with 24×7 cover would minimize unplanned down time and pay for itself. (Study guide p.28)
QUESTION 15
Compared to HP Proactive Care, what are some weaknesses of Dell’s support offering? (Select two.)
A. No predictable and transparent contracts
B. No optimization of products
C. Account management offered only with high end support
D. Limited offerings for complex environments
E. No credit-based services offering
Correct Answer: DE Explanation

QUESTION 16
A company needs to upgrade its data center servers, which host non-business-critical services. The customer values ease of management, a small physical footprint and the ability to expand in the future. Which HP solution and value proposition should you suggest?
A. The HP ProLiant BL460c Gen8 server balances scalability, performance, and ease of management.
B. The HP ProLiant DL380 server pools virtualized resources to simplify management and increase efficiency.
C. The HP Moonshot 1500 Chassis meets high availability needs in a highly efficient form factor
D. The HP ProLiant ML350 server is an affordable solution that will scale for any future needs. Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:

http://h20195.www2.hp.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx%2F4AA4-6146ENW.pdf
QUESTION 17
A customer states that their IT administrators spend a lot of time installing operating systems on servers and bringing systems online. The customer wants to reduce downtime and maintenance. Which HP server feature should you explain to this customer?
A. HP ProLiant 3D Sea of Sensors technology
B. Integrated Lifecycle Automation
C. Automated Energy Optimization
D. Gen8 Embedded SmartStart
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Integrated Lifecycle Automation (Study guide p.25) Gets systems online three times faster Troubleshoots five times faster with more context and accuracy Deploys three times faster with 93 percent less downtime during online updates
QUESTION 18
You are encouraged by your manager to help a customer see how your proposed HP solution meets a “hurdle rate.” What is a hurdle rate?
A. The rate at which the solution responds to service requests
B. The minimum acceptable rate of return for a project
C. The expected rate of return on a new investment
D. The rate at which an investment approaches the break-even point
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://searchcio.techtarget.com/definition/Hurdle-rate
QUESTION 19
You are meeting with a company’s chief information officer (CIO) to discuss an HP solution. Based on a CIO’s typical concerns, which point should you emphasize?
A. How the HP solution helps the company meet its service level agreements (SLAs)
B. How the HP solution helps to eliminate routine and tedious configuration tasks
C. How the HP solution has mechanisms for simplifying provisioning and deployment
D. How the HP solution has innovative technologies and how these technologies work
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://h18006.www1.hp.com/storage/pdfs/4AA4-6608ENW.pdf
QUESTION 20
You are considering whether HP MSA 2040 Storage meets a customer’s needs. What are the benefits and consideration of this solution?
A. It is a good mid-sized storage array, but requires a blade infrastructure.
B. It is easy to implement and manage, but does not scale as well as other HP solutions.
C. It provides a tier 1 storage solution, but the company might eventually outgrow it.
D. It is very affordable, but its performance depends on the hardware of the server on which it is installed.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
HP MSA 2040 (Study guide p.41) Very affordable entry level Storage Area Network Flexible support for interfaces (FC/iSCSI/SAS) Lower scale capacity than other HP solutions Easy to implement and manage
QUESTION 21
How does the HP ProLiant Return on Investment (ROI) calculator help businesses who currently own legacy server technology?
A. It creates a long-term plan for the customer, detailing which innovations will be important in the future.
B. It compares the costs of the company maintaining its own resources against the costs of using the HP ProLiant-based public cloud.
C. It highlights the administration and labor savings that the customer gains by deploying ProLiant Gen8 servers.
D. It shows payback, break-even, and ROI if the customer replaces ProLiant Gen8 servers with Moonshot servers. Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
How do HP FlexNetwork solutions reduce total cost of ownership (TCO)? (Select two.)
A. They meet customers’ needs with fewer devices and ports.
B. They host virtual machines (VMs) with pooled compute, storage, and solutions.
C. They reduce maintenance and ongoing administrative costs.
D. They help administrators easily add topology tiers to meet modern data center needs. They segment management teams across silos. Correct Answer: AC
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://h20195.www2.hp.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA3-6037ENW.pdf
QUESTION 23
Your customer’s current HP solutions include HP MSA 2000 and HP ProLiant ML300 products. They are ready to enter the next phase of business expansion. Which product families should you suggest for their upgrade?
A. HP StoreVirtual and MicroServers
B. HP XP and ProLiant SL6500
C. HP StoreOnce 4×00 and ProLiant DL300
D. HP D-Series Disk Enclosures and a MultiService Router (MSR) 900 Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 24
You are looking for the right HP server solution for a customer. Where can you find server positioning information?
A. HP Just Right Guide or Simply IT Solutions Guide
B. HP Solutions Builder Program portal
C. HP Systems Insight Management (SIM) portal
D. HP Network Design Consulting Guide
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
http://h17007.www1.hp.com/docs/justrightit/100261473- 1%20JRIT_Solution_Guide_RD4_0823_ct.pdf
QUESTION 25
A company needs a new backup solution that allows the IT staff to back up data from multiple branch offices. There have been only three requests to restore files over the past year, and none of the requests were urgent. The company also needs to comply with regulatory requirements, which stipulate that the data must be stored for seven years. Which solution would you recommend?
A. HP MSA 2000
B. HP StoreOnce 4000
C. HP StoreOnce VSA
D. HP MSL Tape libraries
Correct Answer: D Explanation

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QUESTION NO: 1

Old English had three genders that resembled those of the Germans and so was probably very difficult for a foreign traveler to learn in a short time.
A. Old English had three genders that resembled those of the Germans
B. Old English had three genders resembling those of the Germans
C. The three genders of Old English resembled a German’s
D. Old English’s three genders resembled the German’s
E. The three genders of Old English that resembled those of the Germans
Answer: B Explanation:
The best answer is B. The sentence requires a subject appropriate to both members of a compound predicate, the second member being and so was probably very difficult for a foreign traveler to learn in a short time. Old English makes a logical subject. A is incorrect because of the use of the pronoun that. In D is seems that the three genders belonged to one German.
QUESTION NO: 2
Linguistically, the Pokot seem to be related to numerous peoples who live in the region with both ties to the Nilo-Hamitic peoples who come from the north and to Bantu peoples who come from central Africa.
A. with both ties to the Nilo-Hamitic peoples who come from the north and to Bantu peoples who come from central Africa.
B. with ties both to the Nilo-Hamitic peoples who come from the north and to Bantu peoples who come from central Africa.
C. with ties both to the Nilo-Hamitic peoples who come from the north and Bantu peoples who come from central Africa.
D. both with ties to the Nilo-Hamitic peoples who come from the north and to Bantu peoples who come from central Africa.
E. both having ties to the Nilo-Hamitic peoples who come from the north and to Bantu peoples who come from central Africa
Answer: B Explanation:
The best answer is B. Choice B places the word both in the best place in the sentence. The Pokot are related both to… and to….
QUESTION NO: 3
Having logged thousands of hours watching primates from chimpanzees to macaques, chimps and other primates are no longer thought to be natural-born killers by Dr. Swenson, they are attuned to peacemaking.
A. chimps and other primates are no longer thought tobe natural-born killers by Dr.Swenson, they
B. Dr. Swenson has come to believe that far from being natural-born killers, chimps and other primates
C. Dr. Swenson has now the belief that far from being natural-born killers, chimps and other primates
D. chimps and other primates are not longer thought to be natural-born killers by Dr. Swenson, they
E. chimps and other primates are no more thought to be natural-born killers by Dr. Swenson, they
Answer: B Explanation:
The best answer is B. The noun that comes directly after the comma is modified by having logged thousands of hours watching primates from chimpanzees to macaques. Answers A, D, and E illogically have the chimps observing other primates.
QUESTION NO: 4
In the thirties and forties, devotees of Willa Cather’s maintained that her writing has all the qualities found in the highest order of American writers of the nineteenth and twentieth century.
A. Cather’s maintained that her writing has
B. Cather’s maintained that her writing had
C. Cather’s have maintained that her writing had
D. Cather maintained that her writing had
E. Cather maintained that her writing has
Answer: D Explanation:
The best answer is D. The phrase devotees of Willa Cather presents a complete possessive without adding an apostrophe to her last name. Because the sentence describes a past event, the verb has in the present tense is incorrect.
QUESTION NO: 5
William Hornby acquired bison herds for breeding stock hoping that this move would eventually lead to increasing in their numbers, and a fortification of their environment.
A. increasing in their numbers,
B. an increase in their numbers,
C. their increase in numbers,
D. an increasing in numbers,
E. an increasing in the numbers of them,
Answer: B Explanation:
The best answer is B. Choice B clearly and correctly uses parallel noun phrases to list the effects of Hornby’s actions: an increase in… a fortification of
QUESTION NO: 6
The strand fills with water during the rainy season that the peat then holds and keeps it humid, all of which creates conditions enabling trees to grow.
A. enabling trees to grow.
B. for the trees to grow.
C. for growing trees.
D. that enable the trees to grow.
E. that the trees can grow.
Answer: D Explanation:
The best answer is D. In choices B and C the preposition for is used unidiomaticly. In choice A the omission of the word the makes it sound as though these conditions are necessary for all trees.
QUESTION NO: 7
People can debate the aesthetic merits of these overwrought, disquieting, sometimes gruesome works of art, but no one can dispute their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
A. but no one can dispute their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
B. but none can dispute their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
C. but not a one can dispute their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
D. but no person can dispute their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
E. but none can dispute to their creators’ mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
Answer: B Explanation:
The best answer is B. The use of none is idiomatically correct. Choice E is incorrect because dispute can only be followed by a direct object.
QUESTION NO: 8
Drinking milk enriched with vitamin D may significantly reduce the risk of rickets and also aid for sufferers of heart disease, according to studies recently completed at the University of California in San Francisco.
A. significantly reduce the risk of rickets and also aid for
B. be significant in reducing the risk of rickets and aid for
C. significantly reduce the risk of rickets and aid
D. cause a significant reduction in the risk of rickets and aid to
E. significantly reduce the risk of rickets as well as aiding
Answer: A Explanation:
The best answer is A. It is the distortion between how the person really is and how he perceives himself that is the most important factor, as opposed to the level of self-perception itself.
QUESTION NO: 9
Robinson is a botanist whose dream is to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii, a place now awash with introduced species of plants and animals.
A. who has the dream to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii,
B. whose dream it is to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii,
C. who it is his dream to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii,
D. that is dreaming to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii,
E. whose dream is to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii,
Answer: B Explanation:
The best answer is B. According to the passage, when negative social information is encountered by a person with a highly elevated level of self-perception, it may lead to violence.
QUESTION NO: 10
As literary criticism grows more complex, students majoring in specialized areas like those of post-colonialism and Marxist discourse have been becoming increasingly successful at finding positions in the faculties of top universities.
A. majoring in specialized areas like those of post-colonialism and Marxist discourse have been becoming increasingly
B. who major in such specialized areas as post-colonialism and Marxist discourse are becoming more and more C. who majored in specialized areas such as those of post-colonialism and Marxist discourse are being increasingly
D. who major in specialized areas like those of post-colonialism and Marxist discourse have been becoming more and more
E. having majored in such specialized areas as post-colonialism and Marxist discourseare being increasingly
Answer: D Explanation:
The best answer is D. If the shark can be successfully bred in captivity, it is
possible to continue production of the drug without threatening the shark with extinction.

QUESTION NO: 11
The woodland sub-species were in isolation from contact with humans longer than either their marsh cousins or the tree-dwelling sub-species.
A. in isolation from contact with humans longer than
B. isolated from contact with humans longer than
C. in isolation from contact with humans longer than were
D. isolated from contact with humans longer than were
E. in isolation and without contacts with humans longer than
Answer: C Explanation:
The best answer is C. The infinitive to abolish follows the verb ordered; producing the grammatical and idiomatic sequence X ordered Y to do Z.
QUESTION NO: 12
For almost five thousand years after its beginning 2.5 million years ago, Homo habilis roamed the earth, lived in semi-permanent camps, gathered food and shared their economy.
A. For almost five thousand years after its beginning 2.5 million years ago,
B. Beginning 2.5 million years ago for a period of almost five thousand years,
C. Beginning a period of almost five thousand years 2.5 million years ago,
D. During five thousand years, a period beginning 2.5 million years ago,
E. Over a period of five thousand years beginning 2.5 million years ago,
Answer: E Explanation:
The best answer is E. Choice E is precise and idiomatically phrased. Choice A is illogical because it refers grammatically to Homo habilis. Choice B is less clear and direct.
QUESTION NO: 13
Despite protests from some share holders, committee members have ordered the levels of department head involvement to be curtailed and that the advertising program be undertaken.
A. the levels of department head involvement to be curtailed and that the advertising program be
B. the levels of department head involvement to be curtailed and that the advertising program being
C. the measure of levels of department head involvement to be curtailed and the advertising program to be
D. the levels of department head involvement to be curtailed with their advertising program being
E. that the levels of department head involvement be curtailed and the advertising program be
Answer: E Explanation:
The best answer is E. Choice E clearly and correctly uses parallel phrases: the levels of department head involvement be…. The advertising program be…..
QUESTION NO: 14
Advances in networking technology and home computers have made it easy for millions of Americans to work in their homes, often facilitating the communication between the manager, who continues to work on-site at the office, with his distant employees.
A. communication between the manager, who continues to work on-site at the office, with his distant employees B. communication between the manager, who continues the work on-site at the office, with his distant employees
C. communication between the manager, who continues to work on-site at the office, to his distant employees
D. communication between the manager, who continues to work on-site at the office, and his distant employees
E. communication between the manager, who continues to work on-site at the office, with his distance employees
Answer: D Explanation:
The best answer is D. The communication has to be between the manager and his employee.
QUESTION NO: 15
There are any number of skilled freelancers who can develop strategy and create marketing materials with a keen eye to using proven methods, but also to developing new and innovative techniques.
A. with a keen eye to using proven methods, but also to developing new and innovative techniques
B. with a keen eye for using proven methods, and also to developing new and innovative techniques
C. with a keen eye not only to using proven methods, but also to developing new and innovative techniques
D. with a keen eye to using proven methods, but to developing now and innovative techniques
E. with a keen eye not only to using proven methods, and also to developing now and innovative techniques
Answer: C Explanation:
The best answer is C. Choice C correctly develops the parallel not only… but also…
QUESTION NO: 16

The expedition did not enter the water-filled clearing because it believed that to do it endangers the rare Spanish moss hanging from the trees.
A. to do it endangers
B. doing it endangers
C. to do this would endanger
D. doing so would endanger
E. to do it would endanger
Answer: D Explanation:
The best answer is D. Choice D appropriately used the adverb so to refer back to the verb accord
QUESTION NO: 17
The rising of costs of medication has created growing concern about the long-term threat the virus presents to human health on a national level.
A. The rising of costs
B. Rising costs
C. The rising cost
D. Because the rising cost
E. Because of rising costs
Answer: C Explanation:
The best answer is C. Choice A is unidiomatic, and B costs…has lacks subject-verb agreement. Choices D and E produce sentence fragments since Because makes the clause subordinate rather than independent.
QUESTION NO: 18 While royal governor of New Jersey, William Franklin’s conviction that the colonies should remain part of England was not unlike that of his father Benjamin Franklin, who initially preferred a continued association with England, though he eventually played a role in forging America’s independence, helping craft the Declaration of Independence after a change of heart
A. not unlike that of his father Benjamin Franklin, who initially preferred
B. not unlike his father Benjamin Franklin, who initially preferred
C. like his father Benjamin Franklin, and his initial preference
D. like that of his father Benjamin Franklin, for preferring
E. as that of his father Benjamin Franklin, who initially preferred
Answer: A Explanation:
The best answer is A. Choices B and C present faulty comparisons, comparing William’s conviction with Benjamin Franklin himself. Choice D does not make clear whether is was the father or the son who helped craft the Declaration of Independence.
QUESTION NO: 19
After adopting broadband internet access, wireless personal digital assistants, and super-fast home PCs, Weston Insurance has hired new employees, which doubles to 250 the junior staff in the claims department working from home.
A. which doubles to 250 the junior staff in the claims department
B. doubling to 250 the number of junior staff members in the claims department
C. which doubles to 250 the junior staff of the claims department
D. doubling to 250 the number of junior staff members of the claims department
E. which doubles to 250 the junior staff in the claims department that
Answer: B Explanation:
The best answer is B. The pronoun which should be used to refer to a previously mentioned noun, not to the idea expressed in an entire clause. In A, C, and E there is no specific noun.
QUESTION NO: 20
The National Museum of American History owns Harley-Davidsons of various vintages on account of having evolved into an American touchstone.
A. on account of having
B. on account of their having
C. because they have
D. because of having
E. because it has
Answer: C Explanation:
The best answer is C. As used in choices A, B, and D, the phrases on account of and because of are unidiomatic. Choice E has a subject-verb agreement problem.
QUESTION NO: 21
The U.S. Forest Service, then five years old, decided to put out every fire in its domain, and within three decades the agency formulated what it called the 10 A.M. policy, directing that fires be extinguished quicker than they had been in the past.
A. within three decades the agency formulated what it called the 10 A.M. policy, directing that fires be extinguished quicker than they had been in the past.
B. within three decades the agency has formulated what it called the 10 A.M. policy, directing that fires be extinguished quicker than they had been in the past.
C. within three decades the agency had formulated what it called the 10 A.M. policy, directing that fires be extinguished quicker than they had been in the past.
D. within three decades the agency formulated what it called the 10 A.M. policy, directing that fires be extinguished more quickly than they had been in the past.
E. within three decades the agency has formulated what it called the 10 A.M. policy, directing that fires be extinguished more quickly than they had been in the past.
Answer: D Explanation:
The best answer is D. Choices D and E correctly use the adverbial phrase more quickly than. E is incorrect because of the unwarranted use of the present perfect tense
QUESTION NO: 22
Able to out-navigate other vehicles on rutted roads, it was decided that the police chief would allot motorcycles to some of her staff.
A. it was decided that the motorcycle would by the police chief to allot motorcycles to some of her staff.
B. the decision of the police chief was to allot to some of her staff motorcycles
C. the police chief decided to allot to her staff motorcycles
D. some of her staff was allotted motorcycles by the police chief
E. motorcycles were allotted to some of the staff by the police chief.
Answer: E Explanation:
The best answer is E. Grammatically, the participial phrase beginning with able to must modify the subject of the main clause. The word motorcycles has to follow the comma to become the subject of that clause.
QUESTION NO: 23
If a latter-day Robinson Crusoe was marooned on an island with an eclectic mix of palms, he could eat dates and coconut meat, relax in a palm recliner in his palm-post bungalow under a palm-thatch roof, buff his palm-plank surfboard with carnauba palm wax and watch a palm-fringed sunset.
A. If a latter-day Robinson Crusoe was marooned on an island with an eclectic mix of palms, he could eat dates and coconut meat, relax in a palm recliner in his palm-post bungalow under a palm-thatch roof,
B. If a latter-day Robinson Crusoe was marooned on an island with an eclectic mix of palms, he could eat dates and coconut meat, relaxing in a palm recliner in his palm-post bungalow under a palm-thatch roof,
C. If a latter-day Robinson Crusoe were marooned on an island with an eclectic mix of palms, he could eat dates and coconut meat, relax in a palm recliner in his palm-post bungalow under a palm-thatch roof,
D. If a latter-day Robinson Crusoe were marooned on an island with an eclectic mix of palms, he could eat dates and coconut meat, relaxing in a palm recliner in his palm-post bungalow under a palm-thatch roof
E. If a latter-day Robinson Crusoe was marooned on an island with an eclectic mix of palms, he could eat dates and coconut meat, to relax in a palm recliner in his palm-post bungalow under a palm-thatch roof,
Answer: C Explanation:
The best answer is C. The sentence starts with the word if setting up a conditional situation. The correct form of to be with a conditional is were.
QUESTION NO: 24
While some economists believe that Germany should be warned by the European Commission that it could face the imposition of radical restrictions on its domestic fiscal policymaking as early as the beginning of next year, others say that Germany will take the warning seriously only if it would be backed by sanctions.
A. only if it would be backed by sanctions.
B. only if it is backed by sanctions.
C. if it is backed only by sanctions.
D. if it was only backed by sanctions.
E. if it would only be backed by sanctions.
Answer: B Explanation:
The best answer is B. In sentences expressing a conditional result (X will happen if Y happens), the verb of the main clause should be in the future tense and the verb of the if clause should be in the present indicative. Thus, is backed (in B) is consistent with will take.
QUESTION NO: 25
What was as remarkable as the development of the after-school enrichment programs has been New York City’s nonprofit Chess-in-the-Schools initiative, giving more girls than ever before the opportunity to learn the rules of the game.
A. What was as remarkable as the development of the after-school enrichment programs
B. The thing that was as remarkable as developing the after-school enrichment programs
C. No less remarkable than the development of the after-school enrichment programs
D. Developing the after-school enrichment programs has been none the less remarkable than
E. Development of the after-school enrichment programs has been no less remarkable as
Answer: C Explanation:
The best answer is C. Besides being wordy, the beginnings of Choices A and B cause inconsistencies in verb tense: the development of the after-school programs cannot logically be described by both the present perfect and the past. The phrases none the less… than in choice D and no less… as in E are unidiomatic.
QUESTION NO: 26
The increase in land area which the virus has colonized suggest that birds are the more usual host for the virus, strengthening researchers’ original contention that migratory birds have contributed to the virus’s spread across the nation.
A. suggest that birds are the more usual host for the virus,
B. suggest that birds are the more usual host to the virus,
C. suggests that birds are the more usual host for the virus,
D. suggests that birds are the more usually host for the virus,
E. suggests that birds are the more usually host of the virus,
Answer: C Explanation:
The best answer is C. In choices A and B, the verb suggest does not agree with its singular subject, rise. Choices D and E use the adverb usually where the adjective form is required
QUESTION NO: 27
Over his 65-year life span, Hughes, one of America’s most enduring writers and a key figure in the Harlem Renaissance of the 1920’s, will have published hundreds of poems, plus novels, short stories, autobiographies, librettos, essays and children’s books.
A. will have published hundreds of poems, plus novels, short stories, autobiographies, librettos, essays and children’s books.
B. is publishing hundreds of poems, plus novels, short stories, autobiographies, librettos, essays and children’s books.
C. would have published hundreds of poems, plus novels, short stories, autobiographies, librettos, essays and children’s books.
D. will publish hundreds of poems, plus novels, short stories, autobiographies, librettos,essays and children’s books.
E. would publish hundreds of poems, plus novels, short stories, autobiographies, librettos, essays and children’s books.
Answer: E Explanation:
The best answer is E. Choices A, B and D use tenses that can only be used for the living. Hughes, the subject of the sentence, is deceased, as is evidenced by the sentence. Choice C sets up a condition would have published… but the condition is then not specified.
QUESTION NO: 28
Of all the possible disasters that threaten the upcoming Olympic games, the possibility of forceful winds affecting the rowing venue is maybe the more difficult for analysis.
A. is maybe the more difficult for analysis.
B. is probably the most difficult for analysis.
C. is maybe the most difficult for analysis.
D. is probably the more difficult for analysis.
E. is, it may be, the analysis that is most difficult.
Answer: B Explanation:
The best answer is B. The sentence compares one thing, forceful winds affecting the rowing venue, to all other possible disasters. Therefore, the superlative form, most, is required. The use of maybe is unidiomatic.
QUESTION NO: 29
A warrant was issued on Sunday by a New York prosecutor for the arrest of Henry Urick, until recently chairman of the mobile telecommunications company Telecom, including eleven other people connected with his family’s business empire.
A. including eleven other people connected with his family’s business empire.
B. along with eleven other people connected with his family’s business empire.
C. and including eleven other people connected with his family’s business empire.
D. for eleven other people connected with his family’s business empire.
E. and for including eleven other people connected with his family’s business empire
Answer: B Explanation:
The best answer is B. The preposition for governs both Henry Urick and eleven other… so along with is sufficient. In choice A, C and E, the word including is used incorrectly because the other people were arrested in addition to Henry Urick, and not included in his arrest
QUESTION NO: 30
Having seen first-hand this recipe for disaster, Roberta Henson wished to make clear that free trade is unfair and that poor nations should be liberated from the one-size-fits-all trading model, promoted by the World Bank, the International Monetary Fund and the World Trade Organization.
A. Roberta Henson wished to make clear that free trade is unfair and that poor nations should be liberated from the one-size-fits-all trading model,
B. Roberta Henson wished to make clear that free trade is unfair and that poor nations should being liberated from the one-size-fits-all trading model,
C. free trade was called unfair by Roberta Henson, who wished to make clear that poor nations should be liberated from the one-size-fits-all trading model,
D. free trade was called unfair by Roberta Henson, who wished to make clear that poor nations should being liberated from the one-size-fits-all trading model,
E. free trade was called unfair by Roberta Henson, who wished to clarify that poor nations should be liberated from the one-size-fits-all trading model,
Answer: A

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QUESTION NO: 1 On an IQ exam, each correct answer grants the examinee with 3 points but every wrong answer deducts 1 points. How much did Ernst get on the IQ exam?
-There are 50 questions in the IQ exam.
-The ratio between the right answers and the wrong answers that Ernst answered is 9 to 1.

A. Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not.
B. Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not.
C. Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient.
D. Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question.
E. Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem.

Answer: C Explanation:
Define C as the number of correct answers and W as the number of wrong answers.
Statement (1) tells us that C + W = 50.
Statement (2) tells us that (50 / (9+1) = 5) is the number of wrong answers and so 45 is the
number of right ones. Using the numbers presented in the question we can answer the question of
how much Ernst got. Thus, Statement (1) and (2) combined are sufficient.

QUESTION NO: 2
Is A a multiple of
B?
-B is a multiple of A.
-2A is a multiple of B.
A. Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not.
B. Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not.
C. Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient.
D. Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question.
E. Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem.

Answer: E Explanation:
Rephrase the question: is A/B an integer?
Statement (1) can be written as: B/A is an integer. Take A = 5, b = 10: B/A is an integer but A/B
isn’t.
Take A=B=4, A/B = B/A and they are both integers and therefore this statement is insufficient.
Statement (2) can be written as 2A/B is an integer. Take A=10, B=20: 2A/B is an integer but A/B
isn’t.
Take A=B=1: 2A/B is an integer and also A/B is an integer and therefore this statement is also
insufficient.

QUESTION NO: 3

If A and B are two different two-digit numbers, is (A + B)/2 an integer?
-AB is an odd number.
-(B – A) is an even number.

A. Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not.
B. Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not.
C. Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient.
D. Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question.
E. Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem.

Answer: D Explanation:
We are required to find if the sum of A and B is an even number. Statement (1) tells us that AB is odd. The multiplications of two odd numbers only will give an odd number and so A and B are both odd numbers and therefore their sum is an even number. This statement is sufficient by itself. Statement (2) is also sufficient, if the difference between two numbers is even then the numbers can either be both odds or both even. In any of the cases, their sum is even.
QUESTION NO: 4

If X and Y are both two-digit numbers, is XY an even number?
-The sum of X and Y gives an even number. -The value of Y is three times the value of X.
A. Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not.
B. Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not.
C. Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient.
D. Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question.
E. Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem.

Answer: E Explanation:
Statement (1) isn’t sufficient, X and Y can be both odd or both even, but their multiplication can be either one. Statement (2) tells us that Y = 3X, X and Y can both be even or odd from this statement and therefore this statement is also insufficient. Both of the statements imply the same thing and so combining them will not help. More data is required.

QUESTION NO: 5 Arthur and Bartholomew live in the same multi-story apartment building. How many stories does the building have?
-There are 5 stories between the apartment of Arthur and Bartholomew.
-There are 8 stories above Arthur’s apartment and 8 stories below Bartholomew’s apartment.

A. Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not.
B. Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not.
C. Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient.
D. Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question.
E. Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem.

Answer: E Explanation:
Define A as the Arthur’s floor and B as Bartholomew’s floor.
Using both statements, we don’t know whether A is over B or the opposite and therefore we
cannot determine the number of stories in the building.
If A is above B then: The number of stories is (5+8+8 = 21).
If B is above A then: The number of stories is (5+3+3 = 11).
QUESTION NO: 6 Comp and Calc are two companies that are located on different floors in a skyscraper. How many floors does the skyscraper have?
-There are 24 floors between Comp’s floor and Calc’s floor.
-There are 32 floors above Comp’s floor and 12 floors bellow Calc’s floor.

A. Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not.
B. Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not.
C. Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient.
D. Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question.
E. Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem.

Answer: C Explanation:
Using both statements we know that Comp’s floor is the higher one among the two because there
are only 12 floors beneath Calc’s floor and therefore it must be the lower one.
The number of floors in the building is (12 + 24 + 32 = 68).
The combination of the two statements is sufficient.

QUESTION NO: 7

What is the distance between Greentown to Blue town?
-The distance between Greentown and Red town is 20 miles. -The distance between Blue town and Red town is 5 miles.
A. Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not.
B. Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not.
C. Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient.
D. Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question.
E. Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem.

Answer: E Explanation:
Draw a guiding chart with three points on it.
Statement (1) tells us nothing about Blue town and so it’s insufficient.
Statement (2) tells us nothing about Greentown and so it’s insufficient on its own.
Even after you combine both statements, you don’t know if Red town is between both cities or not.
The distance from Greentown to Blue town can be 25 or 15 miles. More data is required.

QUESTION NO: 8

How long does it take to drive from the factory to the warehouse?
-It takes 15 minutes to drive from the factory to the harbor.
-It takes 25 minutes to drive from the warehouse to the harbor.

A. Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not.
B. Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not.
C. Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient.
D. Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question.
E. Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem.

Answer: E Explanation:
From both statements we can’t conclude where the location of the harbor relative to the other two
places is, in other words, the harbor could be between the factory and the warehouse or it could
be beyond the two.
The distance between the factory and the warehouse can be between 10 and 40 miles.

QUESTION NO: 9

Jasmine is the oldest member of the “Brain Storm club”. If next year, the age of Sam will be two thirds that of Jasmine, what is Sam’s age today?
-Rick is Sam’s twin brother.
-Three years ago, Rick’s age was half of that of Jasmine.

A. Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not.
B. Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not.
C. Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient.
D. Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question.
E. Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem.

Answer: C Explanation:
Define J as the age of Jasmine and S as the age of Sam.
The question tells us that in a year from now: (S + 1) = 2/3 x (Y + 1).
Statement (1) presents a new parameter, Rick’s age, which is equal to Sam’s age.
Statement (2) tells us that: (X – 3) = . x (Y – 3).
Using both statements, we have two equations with two unknowns.

QUESTION NO: 10

X is a prime number. Is Y odd?
(1)
X is divisible by 7.

(2)
YX is an even number.

A.
Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not.

B.
Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not.

C.
Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient.

D.
Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question.

E.
Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem.

Answer: C Explanation:
From statement one we conclude that X=7 because it’s the only prime number that can be divided by 7. From statement two we conclude that if X was a odd number Y must be an even number, therefore both statements are required in order to solve the question.
QUESTION NO: 11

Ruth’s age is two-thirds of Chris’s age. How old is Chris?
(1)
Two years ago Ruth was half the age Chris is today.

(2)
Four and a half years from now Ruth will be seven eights of Chris’s age.

A.
Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not.

B.
Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not.

C.
Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient.

D.
Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question.

E.
Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem.

Answer: D Explanation:
From the question we know that R (Ruth) = (Chris). That’s one equation with two variables; we need one more equation to solve the problem. Both statements are suitable equations and thus the answer is (d).
QUESTION NO: 12

Bob is older than his brother, Jimmy. How old is Jimmy?
(1)
Two years ago Jimmy was one-third of bob’s age today.

(2)
In six years from today Bob will be three times Jimmy’s age today.

A.
Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) by itself is not.

B.
Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) by itself is not.

C.
Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, even though NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient.

D.
Either statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question.

E.
Statements (1) and (2) TAKEN TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem.
Answer: E

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following is a technique used to attack an Ethernet wired or wireless network?
A. DNS poisoning
B. Keystroke logging
C. Mail bombing
D. ARP poisoning
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following refers to encrypted text?
A. Plaintext
B. Cookies
C. Hypertext
D. Ciphertext
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following are the benefits of information classification for an organization?
A. It helps identify which information is the most sensitive or vital to an organization.
B. It ensures that modifications are not made to data by unauthorized personnel or processes.
C. It helps identify which protections apply to which information.
D. It helps reduce the Total Cost of Ownership (TCO).
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 4
Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. He wants users to access only those resources that are required for them. Which of the following access control models will he use?

A. Role-Based Access Control
B. Discretionary Access Control
C. Mandatory Access Control
D. Policy Access Control
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following are methods used for authentication?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Smart card
B. Biometrics
C. Username and password
D. Magnetic stripe card
Answer: A,B,C,D

QUESTION NO: 6
Which of the following protocols is used to verify the status of a certificate?
A. CEP B.HTTP C.OSPF D.OCSP
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 7
Fill in the blank with the appropriate value.
Service Set Identifiers (SSIDs) are case sensitive text strings that have a maximum length of
characters.
A. 32
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 8
You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a network that consists of 200 client computers and ten database servers. One morning, you find that a hacker is accessing unauthorized data on a database server on the network. Which of the following actions will you take to preserve the evidences?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Prevent a forensics experts team from entering the server room.
B. Preserve the log files for a forensics expert.
C. Prevent the company employees from entering the server room.
D. Detach the network cable from the database server.
Answer: B,C,D

QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following heights of fence deters only casual trespassers?
A. 3 to 4 feet
B. 2 to 2.5 feet
C. 8 feet
D. 6 to 7 feet
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 10
Which of the following statements about role-based access control (RBAC) model is true?
A. In this model, a user can access resources according to his role in the organization.
B. In this model, the permissions are uniquely assigned to each user account.
C. In this model, the same permission is assigned to each user account.
D. In this model, the users can access resources according to their seniority.

Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 11
Which of the following statements about a fiber-optic cable are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. It is immune to electromagnetic interference (EMI).
B. It can transmit undistorted signals over great distances.
C. It has eight wires twisted into four pairs.
D. It uses light pulses for signal transmission.
Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION NO: 12
Which of the following statements about the bridge are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It filters traffic based on IP addresses.
B. It forwards broadcast packets.
C. It assigns a different network address per port.
D. It filters traffic based on MAC addresses.
Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 13
Sam works as a Web Developer for McRobert Inc. He wants to control the way in which a Web browser receives information and downloads content from Web sites. Which of the following browser settings will Sam use to accomplish this?
A. Proxy server
B. Security
C. Cookies
D. Certificate

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 14
Which of the following are used to suppress paper or wood fires?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Water
B. Kerosene
C. CO2
D. Soda acid
Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 15
Which of the following steps can be taken to protect laptops and data they hold?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Use slot locks with cable to connect the laptop to a stationary object.
B. Keep inventory of all laptops including serial numbers.
C. Harden the operating system.
D. Encrypt all sensitive data.
Answer: A,B,C,D

QUESTION NO: 16
Which of the following attacks involves multiple compromised systems to attack a single target?
A. Brute force attack
B. DDoS attack
C. Dictionary attack
D. Replay attack
Answer: B QUESTION NO: 17

Which of the following statements about DMZ are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is an anti-virus software that scans the incoming traffic on an internal network.
B. It is the boundary between the Internet and a private network.
C. It contains company resources that are available on the Internet, such as Web servers and FTP servers.
D. It contains an access control list (ACL).
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 18
Which of the following protocols is used to establish a secure TELNET session over TCP/IP?
A. SSL
B. PGP
C. IPSEC
D. SSH
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 19
Which methods help you to recover your data in the event of a system or hard disk failure?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Install a RAID system
B. Use data encryption
C. Install and use a tape backup unit
D. Install UPS systems on all important devices
Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 20

When no anomaly is present in an Intrusion Detection, but an alarm is generated, the response is known as .
A. False positive
B. False negative
C. True negative
D. True positive
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 21
Which of the following statements about smurf is true?
A. It is an ICMP attack that involves spoofing and flooding.
B. It is a UDP attack that involves spoofing and flooding.
C. It is a denial of service (DoS) attack that leaves TCP ports open.
D. It is an attack with IP fragments that cannot be reassembled.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 22
Which of the following policies is set by a network administrator to allow users to keep their emails and documents for a fixed period of time?
A. Retention policy
B. Password policy
C. Audit policy
D. Backup policy
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 23
Which of the following statements about Switched Multimegabit Data Service (SMDS) are true?

Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is a logical connection between two devices.
B. It uses fixed-length (53-byte) packets to transmit information.
C. It supports speeds of 1.544 Mbps over Digital Signal level 1 (DS-1) transmission facilities.
D. It is a high-speed WAN networking technology used for communication over public data networks
Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 24
Which of the following terms refers to the protection of data against unauthorized access?
A. Auditing
B. Recovery
C. Confidentiality
D. Integrity
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 25
Which of the following is a remote access protocol that supports encryption?
A. PPP
B. SNMP
C. UDP D.SLIP
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 26
Which of the following is the best way of protecting important data against virus attack?
A. Updating the anti-virus software regularly.
B. Taking daily backup of data.

C. Using strong passwords to log on to the network.
D. Implementing a firewall.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 27
Which of the following functions are performed by a firewall?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It hides vulnerable computers that are exposed to the Internet.
B. It logs traffic to and from the private network.
C. It enhances security through various methods, including packet filtering, circuit-level filtering, and application filtering.
D. It blocks unwanted traffic.
Answer: A,B,C,D

QUESTION NO: 28
Which of the following statements about Digest authentication are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. In Digest authentication, passwords are sent across a network as clear text, rather than as a has value.
B. Digest authentication is used by wireless LANs, which follow the IEEE 802.11 standard.
C. In Digest authentication, passwords are sent across a network as a hash value, rather than as clear text.
D. Digest authentication is a more secure authentication method as compared to Basic authentication.
Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 29
Which of the following types of attacks slows down or stops a server by overloading it with requests?

A. Vulnerability attack
B. Impersonation attack
C. Network attack
D. DoS attack
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 30
Which of the following is the most secure authentication method?
A. Certificate-based authentication
B. Basic authentication
C. Digest authentication
D. Integrated Windows authentication
Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which command is used to set or reset HBA port flags on Symmetric arrays running Enable 7.0 Enginuity 5874?
A. symcfg
B. symmask
C. symconfigure
D. symaccess
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
You have been asked to create a configuration for a single engine Symmetric V-Max array with 8 DAEs and 64 drivers. They would like to have the data devices with RAID 5(7+1) protection. What would be the largest number of members you would recommend for a stripped metavolume?
A. 4
B. 16
C. 8
D. 32
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
What is required to ensure the integrity of data on the R2 volume during a SRDF fallback operation?
A. Remove entries from the file system table
B. Stop any applications that are accessing the R2 volume
C. Disable journaling on the file system
D. Suspend the RDF link

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit
What is the correct state for the Standard and Rl-BCV prior to issuing a symreplicate start command?
A. Synchronized
B. Suspended
C. Split
D. Write-Enable

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
An SRDF failover has been executed during the testing phase of an implementation. What is the expected status of the R1 and R2 devices after performing SRDF failover operation?
A. R1 and R2 Not Ready
B. R1 Wnte Disabled; R2 Read/Wnte
C. R1 Read/Wnte, R2 Read/Wnte
D. R1 Read/Wnte. R2 Wnte Disabled
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
One of the requirements, during an Open Replicator implementation is that production application should not be implemented by open Replication session. An analysis of the control Symmetrix showed that FA ports are currently 70% utilized. How should pace and ceiling be configured?
A. Pace should be set to 0 and Ceiling should be left at the default
B. Pace should be left at the default and Ceiling set to 30
C. Pace should be left at the default and Ceiling set to 100
D. Pace should be set to 9 and Ceiling should be set to 70

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. A database server has its logs stored on a volume on the log source Symmetrix V-Max array and its data stored on a volume on the data source Symmetrix V-Max array. Both source Symmetrix V-Max array frames replicate data to the target Symmetrix V-Max array at the Remote site. There are two device groups that have been defined: One group for the data volume on the Symmetrix containing the data LUNs One group for the log volume on the Symmetrix containing the log LUNS What happens if the SRDF inks between the Symmetrix contain the data LUNs and the target Symmetrix were to fail?

A. The R2 data in the database remains consistent because Enginuity Consistency Assist (RDF-ECAJ technology would ensure data consistency).
B. The data in the database becomes inconsistent at the Remote site.
C. An SRDF failover would be initiated on all volumes and processing will automatically be switched over to the Remote site
D. The R2 volumes in the Symmetrix V-Max containing the log LUNs would become write-disabled to the database server

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Where is the volume Logix Database maintained starting with DMX-3?
A. VCM gatekeeper
B. Symmetrix logical Volume
C. Symmetrix File System
D. VCM database.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
On the Symmetrix platform, which type of RAID protection ensures the best random write performance?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID S
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 5
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 10
Open Replicator pull will be used to move data between a third party array and a Symmetrix V-Max array. What is recommended before starting the Open Replicator session?
A. Ensure that the remote devices are Host read/write enabled
B. Ensure that the control devices are Not Ready
C. Ensure that the remote devices are Host inaccessible
D. Ensure that the control devices are Write Disabled
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 11
In symmetric V-max series array running Enginuity 5874, which device is used as a pass-through device for Auto provisioning?
A. VDEV
B. VCM
C. ACLX

D. SFS
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 12
Which file contains the parameter that can change the default behavior of SYMCLI operations, and there control actions?
A. SYMCLI options File
B. SYMAPI Options File
C. SYMCLI Command File
D. SYMAPI Command File

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 13
How does Delta Set Extension help in an SRDF/A deployment?
A. Reduces RPO
B. Reduces the amount of required cache
C. Improves response time
D. Absorbs bursts of host writes

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 14
What is recommended before creating a TimeFinder/Mirror replica?
A. Ensure that the production application using the source devices is shut down
B. Ensure that all writes from the production application using the source devices are paused!
C. Ensure that the BCVs are not being actively accessed
D. Set the BCVs to a Not Ready state

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 15
Diagnostic messaging for the GNS daemon is written to which file?
A. /7SYMAPI/emc/storgnsd .log0
B. /SYMAPI/log/storgnsd.log0
C. /SYMAPl/usr/storgnsd log0
D. /SYMAPl/bin/storgnsd log0

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
What is another possible scheme for RAID 6 for a Symmetric V-max besides 6+2?
A. 7+2
B. 14+2
C. 3+2
D. 8+2
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
During the testing of an Open Respirator implementation the create operation failed. One of the lines in the SYMAP1 log file has the following entry SANCOPY_DEV_TARGET_TOO SMALL Which circumstance could lead to such an error?
A. Pull operation to a larger control device
B. Push operation from a larger control device
C. Push operation from smaller control device
D. Pull operation to a smaller control device

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
How do you examine the attribute of a Dynamic SRDF device?
A. symrdf list
B. symdev list
C. symsfg discover
D. symdev show

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Which of these protection types offers the best protection?
A. RAID 6
B. RAID 5 (7+1)
C. RAID 1
D. RAID 5 (3+1)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
In a single hop SRDF/AR setup the options have been set as follows Cycle time-300 Delay Time-200 Overflow: Next The symreplicate session was started at time 0. The actual cycle was 450 seconds. How many seconds after the start of first cycle will the next cycle start?
A. 600
B. 450
C. 900

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QUESTION 1
A new RecoverPoint/SE environment has been installed with a single cluster. There are no limitations regarding journal sizes and you want to choose how frequently RecoverPoint can create point-in-time copies.
What is the highest frequency available for point-in-time copies in this environment?
A. One per I/O
B. One per sec.
C. One per 500 μsec.
D. One per 500 msec.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2
Which RecoverPoint product(s) may be licensed by the amount of array capacity?
A. RecoverPoint/EX only
B. RecoverPoint/CL only
C. RecoverPoint/SE
D. RecoverPoint/EX and RecoverPoint/CL

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
What is the maximum supported storage capacity, per license, for an EMC RecoverPoint/EX environment?
A. 100 terabytes
B. 2 petabytes
C. 4 petabytes
D. 10 petabytes

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
What is the maximum number of clusters supported in an EMC RecoverPoint/CL environment?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 5
In a EMC RecoverPoint environment, which EMC product adds support for heterogeneous storage systems?
A. VPLEX
B. VNX/CX

C. VMAX
D. Isilon
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
Which EMC storage technologies are supported with EMC RecoverPoint?
A. VNX, VMAX, and VPLEX
B. VNX, Data Domain, and Isilon
C. VMAX, VPLEX, and Data Domain
D. VPLEX, Isilon, and VNX

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
What is the maximum number of copies of production data supported with RecoverPoint?
A. Four remote copies
B. One local copy and four remote copies
C. Two remote copies
D. Two local copies and two remote copies

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
There is one instance of RecoverPoint/CL installed that is protecting data within a data center. What is the maximum number of additional clusters that can be added to this configuration?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Your business is planning to deploy RecoverPoint for your DR solution. What is an important consideration when using Consistency Groups in RecoverPoint 4.1?
A. Supports up to two synchronous copies per Consistency Group
B. Supports up to three remote copies in a same remote cluster
C. Fibre connectivity is required for synchronous replication
D. Supports host-based and array-based write splitters
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Which Ethernet interface on an RPA is used for replication to the remote clusters?
A. eth0
B. eth1
C. eth2
D. eth3
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which Ethernet interface on an RPA is used for management?
A. eth0
B. eth1
C. eth2
D. eth3

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 12
Through what does RecoverPoint support heterogeneous storage environments?
A. VPLEX
B. Any array-based splitter
C. APIs
D. VMAX splitter only
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13
Which virtualization solution components are supported by RecoverPoint?
A. Hyper-V, VMware vCenter monitoring, VMware SRM
B. Hyper-V only
C. VMware vCenter monitoring only
D. VMware SRM only

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14
What is the maximum number of copies supported using the MetroPoint topology for VPLEX continuous data replication?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 8
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 15
Which protocol does the vRPA use to access the journal volumes?
A. iSCSI
B. FC

C. IP
D. FCoE
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 16
A company is using an EMC VNX storage array. RecoverPoint is being configured to replicate to a DR site. RP will be protecting three datastores:
A thick 100 GB LUN containing 60 GB of data

A thin 50 GB LUN containing 15 GB of data

A thick 75 GB LUN containing 75 GB of data
How much of the user data is being replicated to the DR site?
A. 150
B. 185

C. 190
D. 225
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 17
What is the maximum number of RPA clusters allowed in a RecoverPoint/SE configuration?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4

D. 5
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 18
Which RecoverPoint feature requires the production copy to be located on a VNX?
A. Snap-based Replication
B. Deduplication
C. Synchronous replication
D. Distributed Consistency Groups

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 19
Snap-based Replication requires the production volume of a Consistency Group to be on which array type?
A. VNX
B. VMAX
C. VPLEX
D. Isilon
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 20
A storage administrator has been tasked to demonstrate the image access capability of RecoverPoint. Which RecoverPoint option should they use?
A. Test a Copy
B. Fail Over
C. Fail Back
D. Recover Production

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 21
A RecoverPoint cluster contains a Consistency Group with one remote copy. Which volume can be used to verify that snapshots are being created?
A. Remote copy
B. Production copy
C. Repository
D. Snap copy Correct Answer: A QUESTION 22
Which RecoverPoint features are supported on physical and virtual RPAs?
A. Deduplication, SRM integration, and Snapshot-Based Replication
B. Distributed CGs, Deduplication, and SRM integration
C. SRM integration, Snapshot-Based Replication, and Distributed CGs
D. Snapshot-Based Replication, Distributed CGs, and Deduplication
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 23
What is the minimum number of RecoverPoint Clusters required to use the MetroPoint feature?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 24
A company recently acquired a new DR site and requires local Fibre Channel based production data to be replicated synchronously. They are investigating what infrastructure is needed on this DR site.
What is an important connectivity consideration?
A. Site-to-site connectivity can be based on IP.
B. Site-to-site connectivity requires Fibre Channel.
C. Site-to-site connectivity requires FCIP.
D. Maximum synchronous replication speed is 400 MBps.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 25
A company recently acquired a new DR site and requires their production data to be replicated to this DR site.
What is an important consideration about the RecoverPoint out-of-band architecture?
A. Performance on the production site is not impacted.
B. Site-to-site connectivity needs to be based on Fibre Channel.
C. Maximum asynchronous replication speed is 400 MBps.
D. Maximum synchronous replication speed is 400 Mbps.

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
With which traditional solutions is Centera designed to compete?
A. DAS
B. NAS
C. SAN
D. Tape and Optical Storage
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
What is the minimum number of Gen4LP nodes required to support CPP protection?
A. 4
B. 8

C. 16
D. 32
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
Which method does CUA use to write files 74 KB in size or less to EMC Centera?
A. Bundled

B. CDF, BLOB
C. Containerized
D. Embedded BLOBs

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 4
A customer implemented an EMC Centera and performed acceptance testing by writing 4 TB of data to the EMC Centera. After acceptance testing is complete the customer successfully issued delete calls to all the data. The next day the customer observes that the free space on the EMC Centera has NOT significantly changed after the deletion.
How is this possible?
A. A purge command must be issued to reclaim the space
B. Garbage collection has not yet swept the data
C. Reflections have consumed the space
D. Retention has been set

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
Click the Exhibit button
During the design phase of a C2C migration it is discovered that both the production and DR EMC Centeras have been offline for numerous, long periods of time due to customer power issues.
The production EMC Centera cannot be considered to have a good copy of data. Which design will ensure a good copy of data on the new EMC Centeras given the following conditions?
EMC Centera A is the old production EMC Centera EMC Centera B is the old DR EMC Centera EMC Centera C is the new production EMC Centera EMC Centera D is the new DR EMC Centera

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
You have just completed a C2C install and must run a health report on both EMC Centera clusters. Which commands will you run on each cluster in the C2C utility?
A. c2c> start healthc2cHealth>run
B. c2c > diagnose healthc2cHealth>run
C. c2c> healthc2cHealth>run
D. c2c> check healthc2cHealth>run
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
A customer received an email from EMC Centera indicating that a disk drive failed in node c001n05. Which process indicates that the data has been properly reprotected?
A. Disk regeneration
B. Disk triage
C. Node regeneration
D. Node regeneration timeout settings

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
What type of content is typically stored on Centera?
A. Dynamic
B. Fixed
C. OLTP
D. Transactional
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 9
Which type of backups are supported by CBRM?
A. Incremental, Full, Automatic, Manual
B. Incremental, Full, Differential, Automatic
C. Incremental, Full, Differential, Continuous
D. Incremental, Full, Differential, Date Range

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 10
A customer has an existing Gen4 cluster and purchased new Gen4LP nodes. Which requirement must be confirmed for the LP nodes to be successfully added?
A. All nodes in the cluster must have the same drive sizes
B. CentraStar code must be at 3.1.3 or later
C. CentraStar code must be patched to sp3
D. LP nodes must be access nodes in a heterogeneous cluster

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 11
On which platforms should the CBRM Client be installed to do EMC Centera backup with Symantec NetBackup?
A. Solaris
B. Windows
C. Windows and AIx
D. Windows and Solaris

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 12
A customer has a CE+ EMC Centera for archiving all financial information. The financial information is written with a 1-year retention period. The customer is undergoing an audit by regulatory agencies and has been instructed NOT to delete any archived financial information.
Which feature can be used to temporarily override retention settings and deny any application requests to delete an object?
A. Audited Deletes
B. Event Based Retention Classes
C. Litigation Hold
D. Privileged Deletes Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
Which parameter is mandatory in the RES-File?
A. Backup Thread_Count
B. CBRM Server IP
C. Cluster_ID
D. EMC Centera IP

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 14
You have questions regarding file systems and alerts you have received. You want support to dial in to your Dell 2950 CUA directly via a modem. What must you do to allow this?
A. Log in as gwsetup, go to bash prompt, and issue /usr/sbin/modem enable
B. Log in as gwsetup, go to bash prompt, and issue sudo /usr/local/storigen/set_serial_mode modem
C. Log in as gwsetup, go to configuration options, select Toggle modem
D. Nothing, the modem connection is enabled

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
What is the maximum number of application clients supported by CUA?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. unlimited
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
When creating an EMC Centera profile to use for CUA 4.0, which management role must be enabled?
A. Audit
B. Compliance
C. Monitor
D. Replication

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 17
When configuring Enhanced Availability mode on two CUAs, what configuration must be done on only the active CUA?
A. Adding an access profile
B. Copying the PEA file
C. Directory structure setup
D. IP addressing

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18
What is the purpose of the Centera SDK?
A. Allows developers to integrate applications to Centera
B. Allows EMC service access to internal system resources
C. Allows users to access data on a Centera using standard mount points or mapped drives
D. Helps manage and balance distribution of content within Centera

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 19
When mapping profiles for CUA 4.0 to use, it is recommended to map one cluster profile. For what is this profile used?
A. Backup
B. CIFS
C. Default
D. Restore
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 20
What are the minimum effective grants needed to set Litigation Hold on the clips?
A. ——-h-
B. ——w–
C. ——wh-
D. –q—w–

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 21
Which types of applications are a good fit for CAS?
A. E-mail archiving
B. File Sharing
C. Server Backups
D. Transactional Databases

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 22
Click the Exhibit button
A customer is replacing both existing Gen3 clusters (EMC Centera A and EMC Centera B) with new Gen4
clusters (EMC Centera C and EMC Centera D).
In the exhibit where must chain replication be configured for this migration design?
A. EMC Centera A, EMC Centera B, EMC Centera C, and EMC Centera D
B. EMC Centera B
C. EMC Centera B and EMC Centera D
D. EMC Centera D

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
What is the purpose of Centera Universal Access (CUA)?
A. Interfaces non-native applications with Centera
B. Provides an alternative data replication option for DR
C. Provides optional encryption / decryption for objects stored on Centera
D. Provides a centralized server for Centera management tools

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
When planning a migration which tool should be used to calculate the time needed to migrate the customer’s data?
A. C2C Projection Reporter
B. EMC Centera Viewer Built in Replication Calculator
C. Integrity Check report
D. LOE Estimation tool

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
The storage-strategy is set to Performance Partial and CPP. All objects written to the EMC Centera are greater than 10 MB in size. The threshold is at the default setting. You notice that single instancing does
not work for these objects. What might be the reason?
A. “M” naming scheme is used by the application
B. Application uses embedded BLOBs
C. Collision avoidance flag is set on the application server
D. Size of the parity slices is smaller than the threshold

Correct Answer: C

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