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QUESTION 1
Which segment size(s) is used by EMC Data Domain SISL?
A. 4 – 12 KB
B. 16 – 32 KB
C. 24 and 44 KB
D. 128 KB

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2
What does the EMC Data Domain file level retention locking feature provide?
A. Active archive protection for IT governance
B. Instant restoration of applications and data
C. Built-in data safety for extended onsite retention
D. Offline availability of archive data

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
Which method of deduplication yields better deduplication results for multiple data types?
A. Variable segment size due to its ability to split the data stream into segments
B. Variable segment size due to its ability to add data to a variable segment and move the data stream
C. Fixed segment-based due to its ability to allow sub-file chunking of data
D. Fixed segment size due to its ability to add data to a fixed segment and move the data stream

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
You have deployed an EMC Data Domain system in a customer environment. Recently, the customer expressed concerns regarding data integrity issues.
Which Data Domain system attributes protect against stored data corruption?
A. Checksum, self-healing file system, and RAID 6
B. Checksum, RAID 5, and snapshots
C. Compression, NVRAM, and snapshots
D. File system verification, snapshots, and RAID 6

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
Where does in-line deduplication occur in an EMC Data Domain (DD) system?
A. DD RAM
B. DD Boost
C. DD NVRAM
D. DD CPU

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
A customer is deploying EMC Data Domain systems in four data centers worldwide. The Data Domain systems will be using VTL. Each system will have a unique tape pool.
The customer wants to replicate data to all sites. The data needs to be encrypted locally and then replicated to remote sites over the WAN.
What needs to be deployed to meet the customer’s requirements?
A. Encryption of Data at Rest and pool replication with encryption enabled
B. Encryption of Data at Rest and collection replication with encryption enabled
C. Pool replication with encryption enabled
D. Collection replication with encryption enabled

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
When a customer deploys an EMC Data Domain system at a remote location that does not have an IT staff, what type of remote management method(s) is possible?
A. Managed with IPMI and SOL commands
B. Managed with IPMI commands only
C. Managed with SOL commands only
D. Managed with iDRAC and SOL commands

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
An organization currently writes backups to an EMC Data Domain system and then creates encrypted copies of their backups on tapes. These tapes are then shipped to a third-party offsite vault.
They are now planning to deploy a second Data Domain system in a hosted disaster recovery site as a replication target. This will replace the use of the offsite tapes. The two sites are connected through an encrypted WAN link.
Where should encryption be applied on the Data Domain systems to ensure a similar level of data security as their current process?
A. Enable Encryption of Data at Rest at the disaster recovery site
B. Use encryption of data in flight to the hosted disaster recovery site
C. Enable Encryption of Data at Rest at the source site
D. WAN link between the sites is already encrypted

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 9
What is a characteristic of EMC Data Domain collection replication?
A. Replication destination is dedicated to receiving data only from the source
B. Unique user accounts and passwords need to be configured on the replication destination
C. Replication destination directory can also be used as a target for backups
D. Replication destination must be at least twice the size of the source

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 10
An EMC Data Domain customer wants VTL replication functionality. Which licensing option is required?
A. A single VTL license applied to the source Data Domain. A Replicator license applied to both the source and destination Data Domains.
B. A VTL license applied to both the source and destination Data Domains.
C. A single VTL license applied to the destination Data Domain. A Replicator license applied to both the source and destination Data Domains.
D. A Replicator license applied only to the source Data Domain.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
Which hardware and capacity license options are available for an EMC Data Domain system?
A. Expanded-Storage, Capacity-Active, DD Extended Retention, and Capacity-Archive
B. Expanded-Storage, DD Extended Retention, Capacity-Active, Global Deduplication, and Capacity-Archive
C. Expanded-Storage, Capacity-Active, Gateway, and Capacity-Archive
D. Expanded-Storage, Global Compression, and DD Extended Retention

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
You are an administrator for an EMC Data Domain system. Recent corporate policy changes mandate the following:
1.
Database files must be retained for a 7-year period.

2.
After the 7-year time period, the files must be permanently destroyed.

3.
Data exposure must be minimized when disk-based hardware is shipped. Which Data Domain software licenses need to be applied to the system?
A. Retention Lock and Encryption
B. Encryption and VTL with NDMP
C. DD Boost and Encryption
D. Retention Lock and Replication

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13
Which two licenses are tied to capacity on an EMC Data Domain system?
A. Expanded and shelf capacity
B. Added storage and shelf extension
C. Storage expansion and shelf capacity
D. Expanded shelf and expanded capacity

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14
What is the name of the dedicated IPMI management Ethernet port on an EMC Data Domain system?
A. bmc0a
B. bmc-eth01
C. bmc-eth02
D. bmc-eth0a

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
You are installing an EMC Data Domain system with two expansion shelves in a customer- provided rack. When cabling the controller to the shelves, where does the host port on the last shelf in the chain get
connected?
A. Expansion port of the upstream shelf
B. Expansion port of the controller
C. Last port is left un-cabled
D. Host port of the controller

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 16
What is indicated by a flashing green LED on an EMC Data Domain Expansion Shelf SAS Controller?
A. Connection in process
B. Disk in use
C. Connection established
D. Connection problem

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
Refer to the Exhibit.

When connecting a single expansion shelf to a EMC Data Doman controller, what are the recommended SAS ports that should be used?
A. 3a and 2a
B. 3a and 2b
C. 3b and 2a
D. 3b and 2b

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 18
Refer to the Exhibit.

When creating a second shelf chain on a EMC Data Doman controller, what are the two
recommended SAS ports that should be used?
A. 3a and 2a
B. 3a and 2b
C. 3b and 2a
D. 3b and 2b

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 19
You are installing an EMC Data Domain system with two expansion shelves in a customer- provided rack. When cabling the controller to the shelves, where does the expansion port on the last shelf get connected?
A. Expansion port is left un-cabled
B. Host port on the controller
C. Host port on the other expansion shelf
D. Expansion port on the controller

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 20
If you have a 2U EMC Data Domain Controller with three expansion shelves, what is the total rack space needed?
A. 8U
B. 9U
C. 11U
D. 14U

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 21
In an EMC Data Domain environment, when are cage nuts used?
A. Square hole rack fastening
B. Rack-to-rack fastening
C. Round hole rack fastening
D. Tapped hole rack fastening

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 22
A customer’s EMC Data Domain system has an Ethernet port called “bmc0a”. What is the purpose of this Ethernet port?
A. Dedicated Ethernet port for IPMI, providing “out-of-band” access
B. Shared Ethernet port for IPMI, providing “sideband” access
C. Dedicated Ethernet port for data and administration purposes
D. Dedicated Ethernet port for IPMI, providing “sideband” access

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 23
What are the states of the SAS LED connection status indicators at the back of an EMC Data Domain ES20?
A. White, flashing green, solid green, amber
B. Red, flashing green, solid green, amber
C. White, solid green, flashing amber
D. Flashing red, flashing green, solid green, amber

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 24
What is the current NAA type in the WWN format used within EMC Data Domain OS 5.4?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 6

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 25
What changed in the WWN format of the EMC Data Domain OS 5.4?
A. NAA type 5
B. First segment
C. Last segment
D. NAA type 1

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 26
What can an optional PCI-x Card slot be used for on an EMC Data Domain system?
A. 1 GbE, 10 GbE, HBA VTL, SAS HBA only
B. 1 GbE, 10 GbE, SAS HBA only
C. 1 GbE and SAS HBA only
D. 1 GbE, 10 GbE, HBA VTL only

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 27
Which command is used to check the SAS HBA card status on an EMC Data Domain system?
A. disk port show summary
B. enclosure show summary
C. storage show all
D. scsitarget show detailed-stats

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 28
What is the default password on a new EMC Data Domain system?
A. serial number
B. abc123
C. sysadmin
D. changeme

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 29
A customer environment has an EMC Data Domain system with Data Domain Extended Retention

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QUESTION NO: 1

Adam, a malicious hacker has successfully gained unauthorized access to the Linux system of
Umbrella Inc. Web server of the company runs on Apache. He has downloaded sensitive documents and database files from the computer. After performing these malicious tasks, Adam finally runs the following command on the Linux command box before disconnecting. for (( i = 0;i<11;i++ )); do
dd if=/dev/random of=/dev/hda && dd if=/dev/zero of=/dev/hda done
Which of the following actions does Adam want to perform by the above command?
A. Making a bit stream copy of the entire hard disk for later download.
B. Deleting all log files present on the system.
C. Wiping the contents of the hard disk with zeros.
D. Infecting the hard disk with polymorphic virus strings.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 2
Adam works as a Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator for a garment company in the United States. A project has been assigned to him to investigate a case of a disloyal employee who is suspected of stealing design of the garments, which belongs to the company and selling those garments of the same design under different brand name. Adam investigated that the company does not have any policy related to the copy of design of the garments. He also investigated that the trademark under which the employee is selling the garments is almost identical to the original trademark of the company. On the grounds of which of the following laws can the employee be prosecuted?
A. Trademark law
B. Cyber law
C. Copyright law
D. Espionage law
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 3
You work as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. You install Windows 98 on a computer. By default, which of the following folders does Windows 98 setup use to keep the registry tools?

A. $SYSTEMROOT$REGISTRY
B. $SYSTEMROOT$WINDOWS
C. $SYSTEMROOT$WINDOWSREGISTRY
D. $SYSTEMROOT$WINDOWSSYSTEM32
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following tools can be used to perform tasks such as Windows password cracking, Windows enumeration, and VoIP session sniffing?
A. John the Ripper
B. L0phtcrack
C. Obiwan
D. Cain
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following type of file systems is not supported by Linux kernel?
A. vFAT
B. NTFS
C. HFS
D. FAT32
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 6
Which of the following modules of OS X kernel (XNU) provides the primary system program interface?

A. BSD

B. LIBKERN
C. I/O Toolkit
D. Mach
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 7
You work as a Network Administrator for Blue Bell Inc. You want to install Windows XP Professional on your computer, which already has Windows Me installed. You want to configure your computer to dual boot between Windows Me and Windows XP Professional. You have a single 40GB hard disk.
Which of the following file systems will you choose to dual-boot between the two operating systems?
A. NTFS
B. FAT32
C. CDFS
D. FAT
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 8
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of www.we-are-secure.com. He receives the following e-mail:

The e-mail that John has received is an example of .
A. Virus hoaxes
B. Spambots
C. Social engineering attacks
D. Chain letters

Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following Acts enacted in United States allows the FBI to issue National Security Letters (NSLs) to Internet service providers (ISPs) ordering them to disclose records about their customers?
A. Wiretap Act
B. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act
C. Economic Espionage Act of 1996
D. Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 10
TCP FIN scanning is a type of stealth scanning through which the attacker sends a FIN packet to the target port. If the port is closed, the victim assumes that this packet was sent mistakenly by the attacker and sends the RST packet to the attacker. If the port is open, the FIN packet will be ignored and the port will drop the packet. Which of the following operating systems can be easily identified with the help of TCP FIN scanning?
A. Solaris
B. Red Hat
C. Knoppix
D. Windows
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 11
Which of the following encryption methods uses AES technology?
A. Dynamic WEP
B. Static WEP

C. TKIP
D. CCMP Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 12
Mark works as a security manager for SofTech Inc. He is using a technique for monitoring what the employees are doing with corporate resources. Which of the following techniques is being used by Mark to gather evidence of an ongoing computer crime if a member of the staff is e-mailing company’s secrets to an opponent?
A. Electronic surveillance
B. Civil investigation
C. Physical surveillance
D. Criminal investigation
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 13
Which of the following is the first computer virus that was used to infect the boot sector of storage media formatted with the DOS File Allocation Table (FAT) file system?
A. Melissa
B. Tequila
C. Brain
D. I love you
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 14
Which of the following attacks saturates network resources and disrupts services to a specific computer?
A. Teardrop attack
B. Polymorphic shell code attack

C. Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack
D. Replay attack Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 15
Peter works as a Technical Representative in a CSIRT for SecureEnet Inc. His team is called to investigate the computer of an employee, who is suspected for classified data theft. Suspect’s computer runs on Windows operating system. Peter wants to collect data and evidences for further analysis. He knows that in Windows operating system, the data is searched in pre-defined steps for proper and efficient analysis. Which of the following is the correct order for searching data on a Windows based system?
A. Volatile data, file slack, registry, memory dumps, file system, system state backup, internet traces
B. Volatile data, file slack, registry, system state backup, internet traces, file system, memory dumps
C. Volatile data, file slack, internet traces, registry, memory dumps, system state backup, file system
D. Volatile data, file slack, file system, registry, memory dumps, system state backup, internet traces
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 16
Adam works as a Security Administrator for Umbrella Inc. He is responsible for securing all 15 servers of the company. To successfully accomplish the task, he enables the hardware and software firewalls and disables all unnecessary services on all the servers. Sales manager of the company asks Adam to run emulation software on one of the servers that requires the telnet service to function properly. Adam is concerned about the security of the server, as telnet can be a very large security risk in an organization. Adam decides to perform some footprinting, scanning, and penetration testing on the server to checkon the server to check the security. Adam telnets into the server and writes the following command:
HEAD / HTTP/1.0
After pressing enter twice, Adam gets the following results: Which of the following tasks has Adam just accomplished?
A. Poisoned the local DNS cache of the server.
B. Submitted a remote command to crash the server.
C. Grabbed the banner.
D. Downloaded a file to his local computer.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 17
The MBR of a hard disk is a collection of boot records that contain disk information such as disk architecture, cluster size, and so on. The main work of the MBR is to locate and run necessary operating system files that are required to run a hard disk. In the context of the operating system, MBR is also known as the boot loader. Which of the following viruses can infect the MBR of a hard disk?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A. Stealth
B. Boot sector
C. Multipartite
D. File
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 18
You work as a professional Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator for DataEnet Inc. You want to investigate e-mail information of an employee of the company. The suspected employee is using an online e-mail system such as Hotmail or Yahoo. Which of the following folders on the local computer will you review to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. History folder
B. Temporary Internet Folder
C. Download folder
D. Cookies folder
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 19
Which of the following methods is used by forensic investigators to acquire an image over the network in a secure manner?
A. DOS boot disk
B. Linux Live CD
C. Secure Authentication for EnCase (SAFE)
D. EnCase with a hardware write blocker
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 20
You company suspects an employee of sending unauthorized emails to competitors. These emails are alleged to contain confidential company data. Which of the following is the most important step for you to take in preserving the chain of custody?

A. Preserve the email server including all logs.
B. Make copies of that employee’s email.
C. Seize the employee’s PC.
D. Place spyware on the employee’s PC to confirm these activities.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 21
Which of the following is the correct order of loading system files into the main memory of the system, when the computer is running on Microsoft’s Windows XP operating system?
A. NTLDR, BOOT.ini, HAL.dll, NTDETECT.com, NTOSKRNL.exe
B. NTLDR, BOOT.ini, NTDETECT.com, HAL.dll, NTOSKRNL.exe
C. NTLDR, BOOT.ini, HAL.dll, NTDETECT.com, NTOSKRNL.exe
D. BOOT.ini, HAL.dll, NTDETECT.com, NTLDR, NTOSKRNL.exe
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 22
Fill in the blank with the appropriate name.
is a list, which specifies the order of volatility of data in a Windows based system.
A. RFC 3227
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 23
Which of the following file systems provides file-level security?
A. CDFS
B. FAT
C. FAT32

D. NTFS Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 24
Adam works as an Incident Handler for Umbrella Inc. He is informed by the senior authorities that the server of the marketing department has been affected by a malicious hacking attack. Supervisors are also claiming that some sensitive data are also stolen. Adam immediately arrived to the server room of the marketing department and identified the event as an incident. He isolated the infected network from the remaining part of the network and started preparing to image the entire system. He captures volatile data, such as running process, ram, and network connections.
Which of the following steps of the incident handling process is being performed by Adam?
A. Recovery
B. Eradication
C. Identification
D. Containment
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 25
Which of the following is the process of overwriting all addressable locations on a disk?
A. Drive wiping
B. Spoofing
C. Sanitization
D. Authentication
Answer: A

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QUESTION: 1
Below is a partial diagram of the processing that occurs when a user launches saved output in
At the level ofthe dispatcher, which of the IBM Cognos BI services is used to process the request?
A. Report service
B. Presentation service
C. Batch report service
D. Delivery service
Answer: B
QUESTION: 2
How must the gateway component be configured when there are multiple report servers in a distributed installation to ensure failover?
A. The gateway must be configured to know the location of the content store.
B. The gateway must be configured to know the location of a single dispatcher. C. The gateway must be configured to know the location of multiple dispatchers. D. The gateway must be configured to know the location of the content manager.
Answer: C QUESTION: 3

Which is a valid option for load balancing requests across report servers?
A. Configure dedicated web servers.
B. Rely on automatic load balancing weighted round robin.
C. Configure dispatchers together with the gateway.
D. Configure load balancing to cluster compatible.
Answer: B

QUESTION: 4
From within IBM Cognos Connection, what must an administrator deploy to move an entire IBM Cognos BI application into a new and empty environment?
A. Content store
B. All folders within Public Folders
C. Notification store
D. Content manager
Answer: A

QUESTION: 5
When creating the following IBM Cognos BI data sources, which one requires specifying a local path or a network path?
A. IBM Cognos TM1
B. IBM Cognos PowerCube
C. IBM Cognos Now! – Real-time Monitoring Cube
D. SAP BW
Answer: B
QUESTION: 6

The Report Upgrade task in IBM Cognos Connection provides options for upgrading report specifications. Which of the following is one option?
A. By folder
B. By role
C. By group
D. By user profile
Answer: A

QUESTION: 7
When an administrator exports entries from IBM Cognos 10, what file gets created?
A. Database backup file
B. Object extract file
C. Deployment archive file
D. Configuration export file
Answer: C

QUESTION: 8
What can an administrator create to ensure that multiple users do not have to enter database credentials when they run reports?
A. Signon
B. Single signon
C. Collation sequence
D. Connection sequence
Answer: A

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QUESTION NO: 1
In Report Studio, what can an author do to organize list data into logical sections?
A. Insert a table.
B. Add a header or footer.
C. Pivot the list to a crosstab.
D. Modify the Spacing & Breaking property.
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 2
In the report shown,

users click on the Product line link to navigate to the specific product line in the list below. Users can also click on the Top link to return to the Product line list at the top of the report. Bookmarks are used to control this drill-through behavior. How is each of the drill-throughs defined for this report to function as described?
A. Product line drill-through: bookmark source type = Text, where Text =Top;Top drill-through: bookmark source type = Data Item Value, where Data Item = Product line
B. Product line drill-through: bookmark source type = Data Item Label, where Data Item = Product line;Top drill-through: bookmark source type = Text, where Text =Top

C. Product line drill-through: bookmark source type = Data Item Value, where Data Item = Product line;Top drill-through: bookmark source type = Text, where Text =Top
D. Product line drill-through: bookmark source type = Text, where Text = Top;Top drill-through: bookmark source type = Data Item Value, where Data Item = Product line
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 3
In Report Studio, a report contains several blocks and tables. To determine if there is sufficient space between objects, what will show how the report looks when it is generated?
A. View a Print Preview.
B. Hide the boundary lines.
C. Unlock the report objects.
D. Open the Page Structure view.

Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
In the report shown in the image,

users click on the Retailer name in the left and see the related data on the right. What is the technique used to create this report?
A. Master-detail relationship where the master and the detail is in a separate list B. Drill-through definition where one column in a list drills through to a separate list in the same report

C. Master-detail relationship where the master and the detail is in the same list
D. Drill-through definition where one column in a list drills through to the same list in the same report
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 5
In Report Studio, where can an author modify a global class to apply a change to all objects that use that class?
A. Page Explorer
B. Query Explorer
C. Conditional Explorer
D. Page Structure view
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 6
In a Report Studio report, to add white space around text within a block, which of the following properties must be set to the block?
A. Positioning
B. Size & Overflow
C. Padding
D. Margin
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 7
The following steps are used to create an agent in Event Studio. Which sequence logically orders the items from first to last?Add a task Schedule the agent Specify an event condition Specify the task execution rules

A. 1,2,3,4
B. 1,3,4,2
C. 3,1,4,2
D. 3,4,1,2
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 8
In Event Studio, which of the following tasks are available to a report author?
A. Run an agent
B. Run an export
C. Run an import
D. Run an index update
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 9
In Event Studio, which definition best describes the event key?
A. The object that is created in Event Studio.
B. Specific occurrence of data items that an agent must detect.
C. One or more data items that uniquely define an event instance.
D. The set of detected event instances that satisfy the task execution rules.
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 10
In Report Studio, if an author adds a prompt to a report page containing a list, how can the author prevent an automatically generated prompt from appearing when the report runs?

A. Add a Static Choice
B. Specify a Default Selection
C. Set the Auto-Submit property to Yes
D. Change the Required property to No
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 11
In Report Studio, when should authors use a Generated Prompt?
A. They only want the user to be able to choose one option.
B. They are unsure of the most appropriate prompt type to choose.
C. They want to use the same prompt on a prompt page and a report page.
D. They want the options to be based on selections made in another prompt.
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 12
In Report Studio, why would an author create Static Choices for a prompt?
A. To provide prompt options that are not found in the data source.
B. So that the prompt appears with an option selected by default.
C. To provide default values to satisfy a parameter so a prompt page will not appear.
D. So that the items that appear in the prompt depend on items selected in another prompt.
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 13
An author wants to create a filter on this report to only show Product line totals larger than 1 billion.
What calculation is used to create this filter?
A. Detail filter as: [Total (Revenue)] for [Product line] >1000000000Application = After auto aggregation
B. Detail filter as: [Total (Revenue)]>1000000000Scope = Product line
C. Summary filter as: [Total(Revenue)]>1000000000Scope = Product line
D. Summary filter as: [Total(Revenue)] for [Product line]>1000000000)Application = After auto aggregation
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 14
The following report was created in Report Studio using a relational package and shows revenue by sales rep, city, and country.
What will the report show if the author creates a detail filter for Revenue>500,000 and applies the filter AFTER auto aggregation?
A. Only reps who generated total revenue greater than 500,000.
B. Only cities that generated total revenue greater than 500,000.
C. Only countries that generated total revenue greater than 500,000.
D. Only reps who had individual sales transactions of greater than 500,000.
Answer: A Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 1
How can currency conversion be verified after running a consolidation?
A. Check the log report that appears after consolidation is run.
B. Execute the calculation report created for currency conversion.
C. Run the Currency Conversion report for the group company.
D. Run the journals across report for the group after consolidation.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 2
A multi-page Excel Link report contains several Controller functions on every worksheet. In order to improve performance when running the report, how should the functions be organized in the report?
A. Name the worksheets in alphabetical order and insert all functions on the last Excel worksheet.
B. Name the worksheets in alphabetical order and insert all functions on the first Excel worksheet
C. Functions should be split evenly between worksheets, and hidden in system columns A. B, and
C.
D. Functions should be split evenly between worksheets. and hidden in system rows 1 to 27.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 3
The administrator activated the Set Status for Submission to Ready After Reconciliation and the Use Period Locking on Company Level. What is the effect?
A. Submissions and reconciliations are locked and company status is set to ready
B. Company status is set to ready and submissions and reconciliations are started
C. Company status is set to ready and submissions are locked if reconciliations cleared
D. Submission is allowed only once per company when status is set to ready

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 4
Why is the offset account for certain investment elimination control tables the same?
A. So that investment and intercompany eliminations are able to perform the same calculations
B. So that automatic journals make a zero sum in the offset account in the consolidated group
C. So that currency conversion is easily performed and reconciled in the consolidated group
D. So that when the administrator copies opening balances to another period, the administrator can reconcile and differences
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 5
End users need to enter data related to intercompany transactions into the Controller system. What must the administrator set up to enable users to enter this data?
A. Accounts with defined intercompany codes and transaction currencies
B. Counter company information and extended dimensions
C. Accounts with defined intercompany codes and include the accounts on a form
D. Counter company information and transaction currencies
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 6
When importing external data files using import specification, which of the following are compulsory fields in the upload file?
A. Period, Consolidation Type. Company, Submission, Account, Amount
B. Period, Actuality, Company, Currency, Account, Amount
C. Period, Actuality,Company,Consolidation Type, Account, Amount
D. Period,Submission, Company,Currency,Account, Amount
QUESTION NO: 7
An administrator is creating a standard data entry form for end users. On which tab must the administrator specify the type of information that will be shown on the rows and columns of the form?

A. Axes tab
B. Reorder tab
C. Process Layouts tab
D. Lock tab
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 8
Which of the following tools could be used to load data into the Controller staging tables?
A. IBM Controller Import Specification wizard
B. IBM Cognos Data Manager
C. IBM Cognos Configuration
D. IBM Cognos Controller Excel Link
Answer: B

The administrator has generated a group adjustment company (GAC). Which of the following actions will a user be able to perform with the GAC?
A. Eliminate investments using automatic journals
B. Enter reported value adjustments using a data entry form
C. Enter data into group journals
D. Create company journals
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 9
Why would a Controller administrator create a form set?
A. To enable end users to enter data for a particular extended dimension
B. To enable end users to enter data for a particular account
C. To enable end users to enter data for a particular submission
D. To enable end users to enter data for a particular company
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 10
In how many submissions can a form be included for the same actuality and period?

A. 6
B. 1
C. 10
D. no limitation
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 11
The administrator notices that each party to an intercompany transaction uses a different cost center in the same transaction. What does the administrator need to include to match cost centers?
A. Calculation Account
B. Conversion Method
C. Counter Dimension
D. Reversing Journal
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 12
An administrator wants to enhance data analysis by adding extended dimensions to the Controller application (for example, to represent the products that the company sells). What is the maximum number of levels for extended dimensions that the administrator can add to the system?

A. 5
B. 4
C. 6
D. 3
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 13
After the administrator identifies and activates the automatic journals that will be used, what is the next step in enabling automatic journal entries?
A. Set up a closing version.
B. Setup intercompany accounts.
C. Set up a control table
D. Set up summation accounts.
Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Your cluster’s mapred-start.xml includes the following parameters
<name>mapreduce.map.memory.mb</name> <value>4096</value> <name>mapreduce.reduce.memory.mb</name> <value>8192</value>
And any cluster’s yarn-site.xml includes the following parameters
<name>yarn.nodemanager.vmen-pmen-ration</name> <value>2.1</value>
What is the maximum amount of virtual memory allocated for each map task before YARN will kill its Container?
A. 4 GB
B. 17.2 GB
C. 8.9 GB
D. 8.2 GB
E. 24.6 GB

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
Assuming you’re not running HDFS Federation, what is the maximum number of NameNode daemons you should run on your cluster in order to avoid a “split-brain” scenario with your NameNode when running HDFS High Availability (HA) using Quorum-based storage?
A. Two active NameNodes and two Standby NameNodes
B. One active NameNode and one Standby NameNode
C. Two active NameNodes and on Standby NameNode
D. Unlimited. HDFS High Availability (HA) is designed to overcome limitations on the number of NameNodes you can deploy

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
Table schemas in Hive are:
A. Stored as metadata on the NameNode
B. Stored along with the data in HDFS
C. Stored in the Metadata
D. Stored in ZooKeeper

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
For each YARN job, the Hadoop framework generates task log file. Where are Hadoop task log files stored?
A. Cached by the NodeManager managing the job containers, then written to a log directory on the NameNode
B. Cached in the YARN container running the task, then copied into HDFS on job completion
C. In HDFS, in the directory of the user who generates the job
D. On the local disk of the slave mode running the task

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
You have a cluster running with the fair Scheduler enabled. There are currently no jobs running on the cluster, and you submit a job A, so that only job A is running on the cluster. A while later, you submit Job B. now Job A and Job B are running on the cluster at the same time. How will the Fair Scheduler handle these two jobs? (Choose two)
A. When Job B gets submitted, it will get assigned tasks, while job A continues to run with fewer tasks.
B. When Job B gets submitted, Job A has to finish first, before job B can gets scheduled.
C. When Job A gets submitted, it doesn’t consumes all the task slots.
D. When Job A gets submitted, it consumes all the task slots.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Each node in your Hadoop cluster, running YARN, has 64GB memory and 24 cores. Your yarn.site.xml
has the following configuration:

<property>
<name>yarn.nodemanager.resource.memory-mb</name>
<value>32768</value>
</property>
<property>
<name>yarn.nodemanager.resource.cpu-vcores</name>
<value>12</value>
</property>

You want YARN to launch no more than 16 containers per node. What should you do?

A. Modify yarn-site.xml with the following property: <name>yarn.scheduler.minimum-allocation-mb</name> <value>2048</value>
B. Modify yarn-sites.xml with the following property: <name>yarn.scheduler.minimum-allocation-mb</name> <value>4096</value>
C. Modify yarn-site.xml with the following property: <name>yarn.nodemanager.resource.cpu-vccores</name>
D. No action is needed: YARN’s dynamic resource allocation automatically optimizes the node memory and cores

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
You want to node to only swap Hadoop daemon data from RAM to disk when absolutely necessary. What should you do?
A. Delete the /dev/vmswap file on the node
B. Delete the /etc/swap file on the node
C. Set the ram.swap parameter to 0 in core-site.xml
D. Set vm.swapfile file on the node
E. Delete the /swapfile file on the node

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
You are configuring your cluster to run HDFS and MapReducer v2 (MRv2) on YARN. Which two daemons needs to be installed on your cluster’s master nodes? (Choose two)
A. HMaster
B. ResourceManager
C. TaskManager
D. JobTracker
E. NameNode
F. DataNode

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 9
You observed that the number of spilled records from Map tasks far exceeds the number of map output records. Your child heap size is 1GB and your io.sort.mb value is set to 1000MB. How would you tune your io.sort.mb value to achieve maximum memory to disk I/O ratio?
A. For a 1GB child heap size an io.sort.mb of 128 MB will always maximize memory to disk I/O
B. Increase the io.sort.mb to 1GB
C. Decrease the io.sort.mb value to 0
D. Tune the io.sort.mb value until you observe that the number of spilled records equals (or is as close to equals) the number of map output records.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
You are running a Hadoop cluster with a NameNode on host mynamenode, a secondary NameNode on host mysecondarynamenode and several DataNodes.
Which best describes how you determine when the last checkpoint happened?
A. Execute hdfs namenode report on the command line and look at the Last Checkpoint information
B. Execute hdfs dfsadmin saveNamespace on the command line which returns to you the last checkpoint value in fstime file
C. Connect to the web UI of the Secondary NameNode (http://mysecondary:50090/) and look at the “Last Checkpoint” information
D. Connect to the web UI of the NameNode (http://mynamenode:50070) and look at the “Last Checkpoint” information

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
What does CDH packaging do on install to facilitate Kerberos security setup?
A. Automatically configures permissions for log files at & MAPRED_LOG_DIR/userlogs
B. Creates users for hdfs and mapreduce to facilitate role assignment
C. Creates directories for temp, hdfs, and mapreduce with the correct permissions
D. Creates a set of pre-configured Kerberos keytab files and their permissions
E. Creates and configures your kdc with default cluster values

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
You want to understand more about how users browse your public website. For example, you want to know which pages they visit prior to placing an order. You have a server farm of 200 web servers hosting your website. Which is the most efficient process to gather these web server across logs into your Hadoop cluster analysis?
A. Sample the web server logs web servers and copy them into HDFS using curl
B. Ingest the server web logs into HDFS using Flume
C. Channel these clickstreams into Hadoop using Hadoop Streaming
D. Import all user clicks from your OLTP databases into Hadoop using Sqoop
E. Write a MapReeeduce job with the web servers for mappers and the Hadoop cluster nodes for reducers

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which three basic configuration parameters must you set to migrate your cluster from MapReduce 1 (MRv1) to MapReduce V2 (MRv2)? (Choose three)
A. Configure the NodeManager to enable MapReduce services on YARN by setting the following property in yarn-site.xml: <name>yarn.nodemanager.hostname</name> <value>your_nodeManager_shuffle</value>
B. Configure the NodeManager hostname and enable node services on YARN by setting the following property in yarn-site.xml: <name>yarn.nodemanager.hostname</name> <value>your_nodeManager_hostname</value>
C. Configure a default scheduler to run on YARN by setting the following property in mapred- site.xml: <name>mapreduce.jobtracker.taskScheduler</name> <Value>org.apache.hadoop.mapred.JobQueueTaskScheduler</value>
D. Configure the number of map tasks per jon YARN by setting the following property in mapred: <name>mapreduce.job.maps</name> <value>2</value>
E. Configure the ResourceManager hostname and enable node services on YARN by setting the following property in yarn-site.xml: <name>yarn.resourcemanager.hostname</name> <value>your_resourceManager_hostname</value>
F. Configure MapReduce as a Framework running on YARN by setting the following property in mapred-site.xml: <name>mapreduce.framework.name</name> <value>yarn</value>

Correct Answer: AEF
QUESTION 14
You need to analyze 60,000,000 images stored in JPEG format, each of which is approximately 25 KB. Because you Hadoop cluster isn’t optimized for storing and processing many small files, you decide to do the following actions:
1.
Group the individual images into a set of larger files

2.
Use the set of larger files as input for a MapReduce job that processes them directly with python using Hadoop streaming.
Which data serialization system gives the flexibility to do this?
A. CSV
B. XML
C. HTML
D. Avro
E. SequenceFiles
F. JSON
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 15
Identify two features/issues that YARN is designated to address: (Choose two)
A. Standardize on a single MapReduce API
B. Single point of failure in the NameNode
C. Reduce complexity of the MapReduce APIs
D. Resource pressure on the JobTracker
E. Ability to run framework other than MapReduce, such as MPI
F. HDFS latency

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 16
Which YARN daemon or service monitors a Controller’s per-application resource using (e.g., memory CPU)?
A. ApplicationMaster
B. NodeManager
C. ApplicationManagerService
D. ResourceManager

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which is the default scheduler in YARN?
A. YARN doesn’t configure a default scheduler, you must first assign an appropriate scheduler class in yarn-site.xml
B. Capacity Scheduler
C. Fair Scheduler
D. FIFO Scheduler

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which YARN process run as “container 0” of a submitted job and is responsible for resource qrequests?
A. ApplicationManager
B. JobTracker
C. ApplicationMaster
D. JobHistoryServer
E. ResoureManager
F. NodeManager

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Which scheduler would you deploy to ensure that your cluster allows short jobs to finish within a reasonable time without starting long-running jobs?
A. Complexity Fair Scheduler (CFS)
B. Capacity Scheduler
C. Fair Scheduler
D. FIFO Scheduler

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Your cluster is configured with HDFS and MapReduce version 2 (MRv2) on YARN. What is the result when you execute: hadoop jar SampleJar MyClass on a client machine?
A. SampleJar.Jar is sent to the ApplicationMaster which allocates a container for SampleJar.Jar
B. Sample.jar is placed in a temporary directory in HDFS
C. SampleJar.jar is sent directly to the ResourceManager
D. SampleJar.jar is serialized into an XML file which is submitted to the ApplicatoionMaster

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
You are working on a project where you need to chain together MapReduce, Pig jobs. You also need the ability to use forks, decision points, and path joins. Which ecosystem project should you use to perform these actions?
A. Oozie
B. ZooKeeper
C. HBase
D. Sqoop
E. HUE

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Which process instantiates user code, and executes map and reduce tasks on a cluster running MapReduce v2 (MRv2) on YARN?
A. NodeManager
B. ApplicationMaster
C. TaskTracker
D. JobTracker
E. NameNode
F. DataNode
G. ResourceManager
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
Cluster Summary:
45 files and directories, 12 blocks = 57 total. Heap size is 15.31 MB/193.38MB(7%)

Refer to the above screenshot.

You configure a Hadoop cluster with seven DataNodes and on of your monitoring UIs displays the details
shown in the exhibit.
What does the this tell you?

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QUESTION 1
As the Global Administrator of a CA Performance Management instance that hosts three tenants, you are only able to see two of the five available SNMP profiles. Why are you unable to view all five profiles?
A. Because in this instance,two profiles are associated with the tenant you are currently administering
B. Because Global Administrators typically need to refresh the screen before the full set of profiles appear
C. Because the Global Administrator must change an entry in the SNMP_549.xml file to see all SNMP profiles
D. Because the tenant administrators must change the permission of the SNMP profiles that they manage to enable the Global Administrator to see them
Answer: A
QUESTION 2
If you register a Data Aggregator data source, a system group named Collections will appear in CA Performance Center. Which feature characterizes collections?
A. They are always modifiable.
B. They are generally only used for report organization.
C. They are not tenant-specific but are always global in scope.
D. They are primarily used to control monitoring behavior using rules specified in monitoring profiles.

Answer: A
QUESTION 3
When you create or edit a monitoring profile, you can use the Change Detection Rate option to set the frequency at which the Data Aggregator checks for changes. When you set the rate of detection, the Automatically Update Metric Families check box is selected by default. What happens if you clear this check box?
A. The Change Detection Rate field will no longer be editable.
B. The automatic updating of metric families will continue unless you also change settings for specific metric families.
C. The Data Aggregator will continue to automatically monitor new components but will no longer retire old components.
D. The Events Display dashboard will need to be monitored and updates will need to be performed manually on the Polled Metric Families page.

Answer: D
QUESTION 4
How do you launch the New Vendor Certification wizard?
A. On the Inventory tab,right-click a device and click Import MIB.
B. In the Data Aggregator source,on the Vendor Certifications page,click New.
C. Use Web Services to import the vendor NIB and assign it to a particular metric family.
D. On the Vendor Certification dashboard,right-click an unassigned vendor certification and assign it to an unsupported device.

Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which statement is FALSE?
A. The groups assigned to your user account determine the data you can view on dashboards.
B. A best practice is to create groups to meet strategicIT objectives rather than business objectives.
C. In the Groups tree,Service Provider Global Groups contain items not explicitly associated with a tenant IP domain.
D. Users can use the section of the Groups tree below their permission groups to change the data context for summary or group dashboards.
Answer: B
QUESTION 6

System Administrator, Cliff Warner, asks you how he can prevent the discovery of non-SNMP enabled devices in his infrastructure. Which advice should you offer?
A. Disable ICMP on the Data Collectors.
B. Change the ICMP packet size to zero.
C. Disable ICMP discovery in the Discovery profiles.
D. Continue to permit the discovery of all devices because CA Performance Management only monitors SNMP-based devices by default.

Answer: C
QUESTION 7
While logged in as a tenant administrator you begin creating the user accounts for that tenant. You want to assign a specific role to an account. However, the role does not appear to be among the available roles. What is the likely reason for this?
A. The role has not been created.
B. The role was assigned to another tenant.
C. You do not have permission to see the role.
D. Only CA Technologies Services can perform this action.

Answer: A
QUESTION 8
To help ensure that CA Performance Center operations run smoothly, which guidelines should you follow? (Choose three)
A. Check log files daily or at least weekly.
B. Purge log files manually every two weeks to avoid performance and space issues.
C. Test the Vertica database for consistency at least once a week using DBVisualizer.
D. Only change logging levels in the log4j.xml files for a service if advised to do so by CA Technologies support.
E. If you have access to the CA Performance Center server,run the grep-i command with the appropriate keyword to search multiple log files for error instances.
Answer: A,D,E

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QUESTION NO: 1

Which appliance is a port switch that is used most often to forward/separate administrative traffic?
A. PS8
B. HALB
C. WEB5
D. INSSL
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 2
WS_API provides a web service interface to: (Choose two)
A. Existing business services on the grid.
B. The command-line interface (CLI)-based controller of the CA AppLogic grid.
C. One or multiple CA AppLogic grids, through a Representational State Transfer (REST)-based service.
D. Large pools of virtualized infrastructure within each Virtual Data Center (VDC), which you can programmatically control.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 3
If you are using a Windows computer, how do you access a Virtual Dedicated Server (VDS) for the Linux operating system?
A. Remote Desktop
B. Login (graphic) option
C. Secure Shell (SSH) from the PuTTY tool
D. Cygwin bash using the following command: windows cmd.exe shell
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 4

CA AppLogic virtualizes access to which types of peripheral devices? (Choose two)
A. Serial ports
B. Tape drives
C. Block storage devices
D. Network interface cards (NICs)
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 5
You have completed the build for a new application and have had it running for two days. You decide to add monitoring capabilities to your application. After dragging a MON appliance to the grid, you use balloon connectors to connect the mon interface of all your appliances to the mon interface of the MON appliance. Then you click the Monitor button. However, the monitoring function does not work. Before you make a second attempt at running the monitoring function, what do you need to do?
A. Configure a Monitoring Policy.
B. Save and restart your application.
C. Save your application and do no more.
D. Reconstruct the application, because you cannot add a MON appliance after an application has already been running.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 6
In CA AppLogic, you can dynamically scale an application by using one appliance to start and stop other appliances based on a user-defined policy. Which appliance starts and stops the other appliances?
A. SLA
B. MON
C. HALB
D. NASR
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 7
In CA AppLogic, which type of network interface is used for connecting to other appliances?
A. Raw
B. Default
C. Terminal
D. Virtual Machine Agent (VMA)
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 8
Which statements about global load balancing (GLB) are TRUE? (Choose three)
A. It is implemented using the DR appliance.
B. A built-in algorithm calculates the shortest distance from when the request has been raised.
C. It is fully and automatically implemented in CA AppLogic by mirroring all virtual volumes on two different servers in different parts of the world.
D. It provides for high availability (HA) because it can switch to resources located in another region of the globe if a local outage or disaster occurs.
E. A master GLB site monitors the health and responsiveness of slave sites, which in turn identify the sites that are available and can offer the best response.
Answer: B,D,E

QUESTION NO: 9
How many appliances can an output terminal connect to?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 8
D. 15 Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 10
Which appliance does CA AppLogic include to provide an IP table-based incoming connection gateway with Secure Sockets Layer (SSL), failover, and firewall support?
A. PS8
B. HALB
C. NASR
D. INSSLR
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 11
Before starting the WS_API application, you need to configure it to access the grids that will be managed through the web service interface. To configure WS_API, which file do you need to add to the data sub-directory on the conf volume?
A. rest.cnf
B. ccad.conf
C. vdcs.conf
D. applogic.csr
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 12
Which Appliance Kit (APK) component is started only if the appliance has a configured and connected monitoring terminal?
A. Secure Shell Agent (SSHA)
B. Virtual Machine Agent (VMA)
C. Counter Collection Agent (CCA)
D. Spanning Tree Protocol Agent (STPA)
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 13
You are encountering difficulties with an appliance you created. You have established that the appliance does start when you start the application. However, all the appliance properties are left at their default values in the instrumented configuration files. You verify that files are listed in the Properties tab of the class in the Class Editor. What should you do next?
A. Verify that proxy-arp is disabled on all servers.
B. Start the application with -debug flag on the app start command.
C. Verify that the /etc/applogic.sh and /etc/applogic.csh files are being created on boot.
D. Attempt to use Secure Shell (SSH) to connect to the appliance using the comp ssh command.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 14
In the Application Editor, the Notes tab shows free-form notes that are set on the application. You can edit the notes by double-clicking the text window, and you can also apply text formatting options available from the toolbar or the right-click menu. What is the purpose of the Unlink text formatting option?
A. Remove a hyperlink.
B. Unattach the note from a specific appliance.
C. Unattach the note from an underlying stylesheet.
D. Remove the note from an animated sequence diagram for the application.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 15

In the CA AppLogic disposable infrastructure, each appliance:
A. Runs its own operating system.
B. Is a hierarchical assembly of one or more singletons.
C. Consists of a single software component, such as JBoss, MYSQL, or Tomcat.
D. Consists of one or more applications, which are built from scratch or based on an existing application.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 16
The CA AppLogic WS_API application is made up of a number of components, including: (Choose three)
A. One web server.
B. One policy server.
C. One monitoring appliance.
D. One firewalled input gateway.
E. Two session-aware load balancing appliances.
Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION NO: 17
There is a newly migrated application, which was migrated from a data center in another country, on your grid. You are logged into CA AppLogic with admin privileges and you have access to every application on the grid. However, you are having difficulty getting the migrated application to run on your grid. What are the possible reasons for this? (Choose two)
A. The IP addresses are not valid for the new grid.
B. You did not run the Reprovision Wizard on the new application.
C. There are not enough resources on the grid for this application to run.
D. Your application does not have the correct volumes, because volumes are not migrated with the application.
Answer: A,C

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QUESTION 1
If a file is deleted from the customer’s server, what determines how long the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server retains the backup?
A. The Retain Only setting in backup copy group
B. The Retain Extra setting in backup copy group
C. The Version Extra setting in backup copy group
D. The Versions Deleted setting in backup copy group
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You specify the number of days to keep backup versions with two parameters:
*
Retain Extra Versions (how many days to keep inactive backup versions; the days are counted from the day that the version became inactive)

*
Retain Only Versions (how many days to keep the last backup version of a file that has been deleted)
QUESTION 2
What can be done so that a data center can maintain highly available restore and recovery capabilities across data centers?
A. Use node replication.
B. Use active-data pools.
C. Put the storage pools on shared SAN volumes.
D. Use Disaster Recovery Manager to automate a server rebuild if needed.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Disaster Recovery Manager (DRM)
The TSM (Tivoli Storage Manager) Disaster Recovery Manager is a feature that is included with TSM
Extended Edition and it is the part of the TSM application that can be used to assist with the management
of off-site disaster recovery.

Reference: A Brief Introduction to IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Disaster Recovery Manager

QUESTION 3
Which product assists in creating fast application-aware backups and restores for hardware point- in-time copies?
A. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Enterprise Edition
B. IBM Tivoli Data Protection Manager for Storage
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Snapshot Manager
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager FlashCopy Manager
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
IBM Tivoli Storage FlashCopy Manager uses the copy services capabilities of intelligent disk subsystems to create point-in-time copies. These are application aware copies (FlashCopy or snapshot) of the production data. This copy is then retained on disk as backup allowing for a fast restore operation (Flashback).
Reference: Storage FlashCopy Manager, Installation and User’s Guide for AIX
QUESTION 4
Which IBM Tivoli Storage Manager processes control the amount of data stored in primary storage pools?
A. Expiration, migration, reclamation
B. Expiration, movedata, removedata
C. Migration, reclamation, movemedia
D. Reclamation, movenodedata, removedata
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
*
Access mode:
Defines access to volumes in the storage pool for user operations (such as backup and restore) and
system operations (such as reclamation and server migration).
*
Server processes can move files within the volumes in the storage pool.

QUESTION 5
What is the result when the migrate process moves data from a deduplicated pool to a non- deduplicated pool?
A. The migration process fails.
B. The target pool is marked as deduplicated.
C. The data is reconstituted on the target pool.
D. The data in both storage pools is reconstituted.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Data deduplication in Tivoli Storage Manager is a two-phase process. In the first phase, the server identifies the duplicate data in the storage pool. As volumes in the storage pool are filled, data becomes eligible for duplicate identification. A volume does not have to be full before duplicate identification starts. In the second phase, duplicate data is removed by any of the following processes:
Reclaiming volumes in the primary-storage pool, copy-storage pool, or active-data pool Backing up a primary-storage pool to a copy-storage pool that is also set up for deduplication Copying active data in the primary-storage pool to an active-data pool that is also set up for deduplication Migrating data from the primary-storage pool to another primary-storage pool that is also set up for deduplication Moving data from the primary-storage pool to a different primary-storage pool that is also set up for deduplication, moving data within the same copy-storage pool, or moving data within the same active-data pool
QUESTION 6
An alert represents an error message that is issued by an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server. What does this icon mean when shown at the alert?

A. Warning; Processing can continue, but problems might occur later.
B. Severe: Processing stops. The server will preempty the tasks and stop.
C. Critical: Processing cannot continue. The issue must be corrected immediately.
D. Info: Processing continues with an informational message, and no action is required.
Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
*
Example:

*
The severity codes give an indication of the severity of the issue that generated the message. The
severity codes and their meanings are as follows:
E Error Processing cannot continue.
W Warning Processing can continue, but problems may occur later. I Information Processing continues.
User response is not necessary.
QUESTION 7
What does the command query inclexcl show?
A. Details of which files are backed up.
B. The specific order in which files are backed up.
C. Which users have restore privileges for specific files.
D. The include/exclude statements in the order they will be processed.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The query inclexcl command displays a list of include-exclude statements in the order in which they are processed during backup and archive operations. The list displays the type of option, the scope of the option (archive, all, etc.), and the name of the source file.
QUESTION 8
What is the meaning of the RETONLY parameter?
A. The number of days to retain a backup version after that version becomes inactive.
B. The maximum number of backup versions to retain for files that are currently on the client file system.
C. The maximum number of backup versions to retain for files that have been deleted from the client file system.
D. The number of days to retain the last backup version of a file that has been deleted from the client file system.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
RETOnly determines the number of days to retain the last Exchange Server database backup version of a database that has been deleted from the Data Protection for Exchange client system.
QUESTION 9
Which scheduling mode is initiated by the server contacting a registered client?
A. All
B. Polling
C. Initiated
D. Prompted Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Tivoli Storage Manager provides two scheduling modes: client-polling and server-prompted.
QUESTION 10
How can a virtual machine be protected using the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Backup-Archive client?
A. Install the Backup-Archive client on an ESX server.
B. Install the Backup-Archive client on a virtual center.
C. Install the Backup-Archive client directly in the virtual machine.
D. Only install the Backup-Archive client on the physical machine. Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Perform some file level restores of these backups using the Tivoli Storage Manager |Backup- Archive Client running within the virtual machine.
QUESTION 11
Which log records the sessions of the web client?
A. webcli.log
B. adsmweb.log
C. tsmwebcl.log
D. dsmwebcl.log Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
All Web client messages are written to the Web client log file, dsmwebcl.log.
QUESTION 12
What is the purpose of the VirtualNodename option?
A. To restore or retrieve files from UNIX to Windows.
B. To restore or retrieve files from another workstation.
C. To transfer the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) backup/restore client node password information to a system.
D. To automatically allocate the same amount of space on the target TSM backup/restore client. Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
The virtualnodename option specifies the node name of your workstation when you want to restore or retrieve files to a different workstation.
QUESTION 13
What is granted with client node access privilege?
A. The ability to restore data only.
B. The ability to back up data only.
C. The ability to back up and restore all node data via the web Backup-Archive client only.
D. The ability to back up and restore all node data via the Backup-Archive client command line only.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
To use the Web Client to back up and restore files on a remote client system, you must have an administrative user ID with client access authority over the node name for the remote client system.
QUESTION 14
What is the purpose of the client acceptor daemon?
A. It enables client side deduplication.
B. It is a light-weight acceptor for restoring client files.
C. It accepts commands from the Tivoli Storage Manager server.
D. It automatically starts and stops the scheduler process as needed.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The client acceptor daemon serves as an external timer for the scheduler. When the scheduler is started, it queries the server for the next scheduled event. The event is either executed immediately or the scheduler exits. The client acceptor daemon restarts the scheduler when it is time to execute the scheduled event.
QUESTION 15
Which two tasks belong to the daily server maintenance procedure?
A. register node
B. activate policy
C. expire inventory
D. back up database
E. identify duplicates
Correct Answer: CD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Daily schedule of Tivoli Storage Manager operations

QUESTION 16
What is meant by the archive option, RETVER=365?
A. Retain archive data for 365 days.
B. Retain 365 archive versions of this file.
C. Retain 365 backup versions of this file.
D. Migrate the file back to the customer’s server after 365 days.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You can control the period for which migration copies are stored in Tivoli Storage Manager storage. If you accept the installed-default data management policy, migration copies can be deleted from Tivoli Storage Manager storage in one year.
RETVer determines the number of days to retain a migration copy.

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QUESTION 1
A task has been developed which upgrades the corporate VPN client to the latest version. The administrator is required to Take Action on this task while giving end users the option of whether or not they would like to install this version. How is this accomplished?
A. Offer tab of the Take Action dialog
B. Messages tab of the Take Action dialog
C. Pre-Action tab of the Take Action dialog
D. Notification tab of the Take Action dialog

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
An operator would like to take an action on all endpoints connected to a specific relay. Which targeting mechanism should an operator select in order to efficiently target systems by relay?
A. target by analysis
B. enter device names
C. dynamically target by property
D. select endpoints from the computer list

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Patch Management for AIX has various methods for obtaining updated files. Which native AIX method can IBM Endpoint Manager integrate with?
A. AIX Download plug-in
B. AIX Download Cacher
C. Yellowdog Update Manager (YUM)
D. Network Installation Management (NIM)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
How is a manual group defined?
A. A Fixlet group that is created by an operator.
B. A computer group whose members are static.
C. A Fixlet group that can only contain Windows patches.
D. A computer group that can only be used to deploy Windows patches.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
A non-master operator has rights to create custom content and to access all the sites in the deployment. She creates a baseline to deploy a variety of software packages to newly imaged workstations. This baseline becomes relevant when a custom client setting is new_workstation = true. She tests the baseline on two freshly imaged machines that have the custom client setting and everything works fine. She tells her team the baseline is ready to go. but members of her team report they cannot use the baseline. The master operator can see the baseline but cannot deploy it. What is wrong?
A. Baselines are not used for software deployment.
B. Custom client setting are IBM Endpoint Manager user-specific.
C. She forgot to publish the baseline in a custom site where it can be shared.
D. Only the person with custom content rights can deploy the content they create.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
When viewing the list of Fixlets and tasks, some are black and others are gray. What does this mean?
A. The black entries are required to be deployed to at least one computer, and the gray entries are optional.
B. The gray entries are required to be deployed to at least one computer, and the black entries are optional.
C. The gray entries are relevant to at least one computer, and the black entries are not relevant to any computers.
D. The black entries are relevant to at least one computer, and the gray entries are not relevant to any computers.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Which two statements best describes a retrieved property in IBM Endpoint Manager?
A. A valid property must contain string results.
B. A property consists of a definition and a result.
C. A property must reside in a non-master operator site.
D. A valid property must contain four or more different data formats at the same time.
E. A property is a system or configuration attribute reported by the client to the server.

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 8
How is a default action turned into a policy within the Execution tab of the Take Action dialog?
A. remove all constraints
B. configure and enable all constraints
C. check the On failure, retry check box
D. the action name must be prefixed with Policy:

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
While checking the state from a recently deployed action, a user notices that it is showing as 100% complete but still in an Open state. Why?
A. The action will remain open until closed.
B. The ends on value of the action has not been reached.
C. The action will remain open until closed by a master operator.
D. The last reporting client of the action has not sent the Close action command yet.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
While testing some custom content a user wants to restart the client on their Windows system to force the client to sync up. Which service should they restart?
A. BES Client
B. BES Agent
C. BES Plug-in
D. BES Endpoint

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Which content domain contains prototype and experimental content to be used at the user’s own risk?
A. BigFixLabs
B. Systems Lifecycle
C. Endpoint Protection
D. Security Configuration

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
An operator has a number of systems that report to the same relay that are no longer reporting to the IBM Endpoint Manager server. Which service should be checked on the relay to ensure that the relay is running?
A. BESCient
B. BES Relay
C. BES Gather
D. BES Root Server

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
A user has recently deployed an action to a group of endpoints that she currently manages. Several of
these machines are reporting Postponed in their Last Reported Status of the action.
What does this mean?

A. The endpoint was restarted during action execution.
B. The action was sent while the client was gathering content.
C. The action was deferred by the end user of the target machine.
D. The clients received a command with higher priority which delayed the user’s action.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Which console location allows a search for all Fixlets and tasks containing the name Upgrade?
A. List Panel
B. Domain Panel
C. Console Toolbar
D. Work Area Toolbar

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
An operator in the Testing group has temporarily locked a managed computer so that it will not be affected by ongoing testing. She is now ready to unlock the computer and finds the computer in the Computers node of the All Content domain. How would she unlock the computer?
A. Right-click the computer and select Unlock Computer from the Context menu.
B. Right-click the computer, select Edit Computer Settings, and change the value of the _BESCIient_LockingStatus setting to 0.
C. Select the computer in the computer list to display the details in the work area and then click the Unlock button in the work area.
D. Right-click the computer, select Edit Computer Settings, and clear the check box beside the Locked option in the Edit Computer Settings dialog.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
A retrieved property is configured to return data on every report. How often will each relevant endpoint return results for the property?
A. every hour
B. every heartbeat
C. whenever the client is restarted
D. whenever the value changes on the endpoint

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
Which statement is true regarding a Fixlet?
A. A Fixlet is a template that does not have success criteria.
B. A Fixlet is a template that contains the binaries for patching an endpoint.
C. A Fixlet is a template containing only an action script that can make a change to an endpoint or its client settings.
D. A Fixlet is a template containing applicability relevance and an action script used to correct issues on an endpoint such as installing a patch.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
How can a non-master operator view all the results in the IBM Endpoint Manager console for an analysis that was globally activated?
A. All Content domain > Analyses node, select the analysis in the list pane, and select the results tab in the work area.
B. Analyses domain > All Content node, select the content in the list pane, and select the computers tab in the work area.
C. All Content domain > Computers node, select each computer individually, and view the Summary tab for each computer.
D. BigFix Management domain > Computers node, select each computer individually, and view the Summary tab for each computer.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
How is an automatic group defined?
A. A computer group whose members are set by membership relevance.
B. A computer group that can only be defined by IBM and is in an external site.
C. A computer group that contains actions for all IBM Endpoint Manager computers.
D. A computer group that is automatically generated when using the Windows Patch wizard.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
What is an action state for a Fixlet and not a task?
A. Fixed
B. Waiting
C. Not Relevant
D. Pending Download

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