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QUESTION 1
If a file is deleted from the customer’s server, what determines how long the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server retains the backup?
A. The Retain Only setting in backup copy group
B. The Retain Extra setting in backup copy group
C. The Version Extra setting in backup copy group
D. The Versions Deleted setting in backup copy group
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You specify the number of days to keep backup versions with two parameters:
*
Retain Extra Versions (how many days to keep inactive backup versions; the days are counted from the day that the version became inactive)

*
Retain Only Versions (how many days to keep the last backup version of a file that has been deleted)
QUESTION 2
What can be done so that a data center can maintain highly available restore and recovery capabilities across data centers?
A. Use node replication.
B. Use active-data pools.
C. Put the storage pools on shared SAN volumes.
D. Use Disaster Recovery Manager to automate a server rebuild if needed.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Disaster Recovery Manager (DRM)
The TSM (Tivoli Storage Manager) Disaster Recovery Manager is a feature that is included with TSM
Extended Edition and it is the part of the TSM application that can be used to assist with the management
of off-site disaster recovery.

Reference: A Brief Introduction to IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Disaster Recovery Manager

QUESTION 3
Which product assists in creating fast application-aware backups and restores for hardware point- in-time copies?
A. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Enterprise Edition
B. IBM Tivoli Data Protection Manager for Storage
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Snapshot Manager
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager FlashCopy Manager
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
IBM Tivoli Storage FlashCopy Manager uses the copy services capabilities of intelligent disk subsystems to create point-in-time copies. These are application aware copies (FlashCopy or snapshot) of the production data. This copy is then retained on disk as backup allowing for a fast restore operation (Flashback).
Reference: Storage FlashCopy Manager, Installation and User’s Guide for AIX
QUESTION 4
Which IBM Tivoli Storage Manager processes control the amount of data stored in primary storage pools?
A. Expiration, migration, reclamation
B. Expiration, movedata, removedata
C. Migration, reclamation, movemedia
D. Reclamation, movenodedata, removedata
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
*
Access mode:
Defines access to volumes in the storage pool for user operations (such as backup and restore) and
system operations (such as reclamation and server migration).
*
Server processes can move files within the volumes in the storage pool.

QUESTION 5
What is the result when the migrate process moves data from a deduplicated pool to a non- deduplicated pool?
A. The migration process fails.
B. The target pool is marked as deduplicated.
C. The data is reconstituted on the target pool.
D. The data in both storage pools is reconstituted.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Data deduplication in Tivoli Storage Manager is a two-phase process. In the first phase, the server identifies the duplicate data in the storage pool. As volumes in the storage pool are filled, data becomes eligible for duplicate identification. A volume does not have to be full before duplicate identification starts. In the second phase, duplicate data is removed by any of the following processes:
Reclaiming volumes in the primary-storage pool, copy-storage pool, or active-data pool Backing up a primary-storage pool to a copy-storage pool that is also set up for deduplication Copying active data in the primary-storage pool to an active-data pool that is also set up for deduplication Migrating data from the primary-storage pool to another primary-storage pool that is also set up for deduplication Moving data from the primary-storage pool to a different primary-storage pool that is also set up for deduplication, moving data within the same copy-storage pool, or moving data within the same active-data pool
QUESTION 6
An alert represents an error message that is issued by an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server. What does this icon mean when shown at the alert?

A. Warning; Processing can continue, but problems might occur later.
B. Severe: Processing stops. The server will preempty the tasks and stop.
C. Critical: Processing cannot continue. The issue must be corrected immediately.
D. Info: Processing continues with an informational message, and no action is required.
Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
*
Example:

*
The severity codes give an indication of the severity of the issue that generated the message. The
severity codes and their meanings are as follows:
E Error Processing cannot continue.
W Warning Processing can continue, but problems may occur later. I Information Processing continues.
User response is not necessary.
QUESTION 7
What does the command query inclexcl show?
A. Details of which files are backed up.
B. The specific order in which files are backed up.
C. Which users have restore privileges for specific files.
D. The include/exclude statements in the order they will be processed.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The query inclexcl command displays a list of include-exclude statements in the order in which they are processed during backup and archive operations. The list displays the type of option, the scope of the option (archive, all, etc.), and the name of the source file.
QUESTION 8
What is the meaning of the RETONLY parameter?
A. The number of days to retain a backup version after that version becomes inactive.
B. The maximum number of backup versions to retain for files that are currently on the client file system.
C. The maximum number of backup versions to retain for files that have been deleted from the client file system.
D. The number of days to retain the last backup version of a file that has been deleted from the client file system.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
RETOnly determines the number of days to retain the last Exchange Server database backup version of a database that has been deleted from the Data Protection for Exchange client system.
QUESTION 9
Which scheduling mode is initiated by the server contacting a registered client?
A. All
B. Polling
C. Initiated
D. Prompted Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Tivoli Storage Manager provides two scheduling modes: client-polling and server-prompted.
QUESTION 10
How can a virtual machine be protected using the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Backup-Archive client?
A. Install the Backup-Archive client on an ESX server.
B. Install the Backup-Archive client on a virtual center.
C. Install the Backup-Archive client directly in the virtual machine.
D. Only install the Backup-Archive client on the physical machine. Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Perform some file level restores of these backups using the Tivoli Storage Manager |Backup- Archive Client running within the virtual machine.
QUESTION 11
Which log records the sessions of the web client?
A. webcli.log
B. adsmweb.log
C. tsmwebcl.log
D. dsmwebcl.log Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
All Web client messages are written to the Web client log file, dsmwebcl.log.
QUESTION 12
What is the purpose of the VirtualNodename option?
A. To restore or retrieve files from UNIX to Windows.
B. To restore or retrieve files from another workstation.
C. To transfer the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) backup/restore client node password information to a system.
D. To automatically allocate the same amount of space on the target TSM backup/restore client. Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
The virtualnodename option specifies the node name of your workstation when you want to restore or retrieve files to a different workstation.
QUESTION 13
What is granted with client node access privilege?
A. The ability to restore data only.
B. The ability to back up data only.
C. The ability to back up and restore all node data via the web Backup-Archive client only.
D. The ability to back up and restore all node data via the Backup-Archive client command line only.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
To use the Web Client to back up and restore files on a remote client system, you must have an administrative user ID with client access authority over the node name for the remote client system.
QUESTION 14
What is the purpose of the client acceptor daemon?
A. It enables client side deduplication.
B. It is a light-weight acceptor for restoring client files.
C. It accepts commands from the Tivoli Storage Manager server.
D. It automatically starts and stops the scheduler process as needed.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The client acceptor daemon serves as an external timer for the scheduler. When the scheduler is started, it queries the server for the next scheduled event. The event is either executed immediately or the scheduler exits. The client acceptor daemon restarts the scheduler when it is time to execute the scheduled event.
QUESTION 15
Which two tasks belong to the daily server maintenance procedure?
A. register node
B. activate policy
C. expire inventory
D. back up database
E. identify duplicates
Correct Answer: CD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Daily schedule of Tivoli Storage Manager operations

QUESTION 16
What is meant by the archive option, RETVER=365?
A. Retain archive data for 365 days.
B. Retain 365 archive versions of this file.
C. Retain 365 backup versions of this file.
D. Migrate the file back to the customer’s server after 365 days.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You can control the period for which migration copies are stored in Tivoli Storage Manager storage. If you accept the installed-default data management policy, migration copies can be deleted from Tivoli Storage Manager storage in one year.
RETVer determines the number of days to retain a migration copy.

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QUESTION 1
A task has been developed which upgrades the corporate VPN client to the latest version. The administrator is required to Take Action on this task while giving end users the option of whether or not they would like to install this version. How is this accomplished?
A. Offer tab of the Take Action dialog
B. Messages tab of the Take Action dialog
C. Pre-Action tab of the Take Action dialog
D. Notification tab of the Take Action dialog

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
An operator would like to take an action on all endpoints connected to a specific relay. Which targeting mechanism should an operator select in order to efficiently target systems by relay?
A. target by analysis
B. enter device names
C. dynamically target by property
D. select endpoints from the computer list

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Patch Management for AIX has various methods for obtaining updated files. Which native AIX method can IBM Endpoint Manager integrate with?
A. AIX Download plug-in
B. AIX Download Cacher
C. Yellowdog Update Manager (YUM)
D. Network Installation Management (NIM)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
How is a manual group defined?
A. A Fixlet group that is created by an operator.
B. A computer group whose members are static.
C. A Fixlet group that can only contain Windows patches.
D. A computer group that can only be used to deploy Windows patches.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
A non-master operator has rights to create custom content and to access all the sites in the deployment. She creates a baseline to deploy a variety of software packages to newly imaged workstations. This baseline becomes relevant when a custom client setting is new_workstation = true. She tests the baseline on two freshly imaged machines that have the custom client setting and everything works fine. She tells her team the baseline is ready to go. but members of her team report they cannot use the baseline. The master operator can see the baseline but cannot deploy it. What is wrong?
A. Baselines are not used for software deployment.
B. Custom client setting are IBM Endpoint Manager user-specific.
C. She forgot to publish the baseline in a custom site where it can be shared.
D. Only the person with custom content rights can deploy the content they create.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
When viewing the list of Fixlets and tasks, some are black and others are gray. What does this mean?
A. The black entries are required to be deployed to at least one computer, and the gray entries are optional.
B. The gray entries are required to be deployed to at least one computer, and the black entries are optional.
C. The gray entries are relevant to at least one computer, and the black entries are not relevant to any computers.
D. The black entries are relevant to at least one computer, and the gray entries are not relevant to any computers.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Which two statements best describes a retrieved property in IBM Endpoint Manager?
A. A valid property must contain string results.
B. A property consists of a definition and a result.
C. A property must reside in a non-master operator site.
D. A valid property must contain four or more different data formats at the same time.
E. A property is a system or configuration attribute reported by the client to the server.

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 8
How is a default action turned into a policy within the Execution tab of the Take Action dialog?
A. remove all constraints
B. configure and enable all constraints
C. check the On failure, retry check box
D. the action name must be prefixed with Policy:

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
While checking the state from a recently deployed action, a user notices that it is showing as 100% complete but still in an Open state. Why?
A. The action will remain open until closed.
B. The ends on value of the action has not been reached.
C. The action will remain open until closed by a master operator.
D. The last reporting client of the action has not sent the Close action command yet.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
While testing some custom content a user wants to restart the client on their Windows system to force the client to sync up. Which service should they restart?
A. BES Client
B. BES Agent
C. BES Plug-in
D. BES Endpoint

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Which content domain contains prototype and experimental content to be used at the user’s own risk?
A. BigFixLabs
B. Systems Lifecycle
C. Endpoint Protection
D. Security Configuration

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
An operator has a number of systems that report to the same relay that are no longer reporting to the IBM Endpoint Manager server. Which service should be checked on the relay to ensure that the relay is running?
A. BESCient
B. BES Relay
C. BES Gather
D. BES Root Server

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
A user has recently deployed an action to a group of endpoints that she currently manages. Several of
these machines are reporting Postponed in their Last Reported Status of the action.
What does this mean?

A. The endpoint was restarted during action execution.
B. The action was sent while the client was gathering content.
C. The action was deferred by the end user of the target machine.
D. The clients received a command with higher priority which delayed the user’s action.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Which console location allows a search for all Fixlets and tasks containing the name Upgrade?
A. List Panel
B. Domain Panel
C. Console Toolbar
D. Work Area Toolbar

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
An operator in the Testing group has temporarily locked a managed computer so that it will not be affected by ongoing testing. She is now ready to unlock the computer and finds the computer in the Computers node of the All Content domain. How would she unlock the computer?
A. Right-click the computer and select Unlock Computer from the Context menu.
B. Right-click the computer, select Edit Computer Settings, and change the value of the _BESCIient_LockingStatus setting to 0.
C. Select the computer in the computer list to display the details in the work area and then click the Unlock button in the work area.
D. Right-click the computer, select Edit Computer Settings, and clear the check box beside the Locked option in the Edit Computer Settings dialog.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
A retrieved property is configured to return data on every report. How often will each relevant endpoint return results for the property?
A. every hour
B. every heartbeat
C. whenever the client is restarted
D. whenever the value changes on the endpoint

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
Which statement is true regarding a Fixlet?
A. A Fixlet is a template that does not have success criteria.
B. A Fixlet is a template that contains the binaries for patching an endpoint.
C. A Fixlet is a template containing only an action script that can make a change to an endpoint or its client settings.
D. A Fixlet is a template containing applicability relevance and an action script used to correct issues on an endpoint such as installing a patch.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
How can a non-master operator view all the results in the IBM Endpoint Manager console for an analysis that was globally activated?
A. All Content domain > Analyses node, select the analysis in the list pane, and select the results tab in the work area.
B. Analyses domain > All Content node, select the content in the list pane, and select the computers tab in the work area.
C. All Content domain > Computers node, select each computer individually, and view the Summary tab for each computer.
D. BigFix Management domain > Computers node, select each computer individually, and view the Summary tab for each computer.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
How is an automatic group defined?
A. A computer group whose members are set by membership relevance.
B. A computer group that can only be defined by IBM and is in an external site.
C. A computer group that contains actions for all IBM Endpoint Manager computers.
D. A computer group that is automatically generated when using the Windows Patch wizard.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
What is an action state for a Fixlet and not a task?
A. Fixed
B. Waiting
C. Not Relevant
D. Pending Download

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which two statements are true regarding Support Provider Level 1 Customer Support? (Choose two.)
A. Level 1 Support is responsible for taking the first support call from a Customer (during normal business hours, Monday – Friday in line with IBMs standard 5×8 support).
B. Level 1 Support is responsible for testing new software versions of IBM products and communicating the release of said software to clients that have purchased it from IBM.
C. Level 1 Support is responsible for incorporating and testing any program fix provided by Level 3 Support (as appropriate), and delivering orcommunicating the problem resolution, bypass, circumvention, or other notice of restriction to the End User.
D. Level 1 Support is responsible logging all calls in an electronic call management system capable of opening an internal PMR or other form of trouble ticket that captures and can report in electronic format historic information relating to a problem, from the first Call through to the resolution of the problem.
E. Level 1 Support is responsible for logging all calls in an XML, Excel or Lotus 123 spread sheet so that Level 2 support can open an internal PMR or other form of trouble ticket that captures and can report in electronic format historic information relating to a problem, from the first call through to the resolution of the problem.
Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 2
A support provider opens a PMR for a customer. Who is the owner of the issue?
A. customer
B. support provider
C. account manager
D. IBM Tivoli Support
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
What are three correct classifications when reporting a problem? (Choose three.)
A. Software
B. Hardware
C. ICN Number
D. Priority Level
E. Response Time
F. Driver and or Configuration
Answer: A,B,F
QUESTION NO: 4
Prior to escalating an issue to IBM Tivoli Support, which action should the Level 2 support provider take?
A. Reboot the production server.
B. Verify Operating System is fully patched.
C. Delete current log file to allow new logs to be created.
D. Use debugging tools to capture detailed problem information.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 5
Which two pieces of information must the Level 2 support provider include when opening a PMR with IBM Tivoli Support? (Choose two.)
A. product license file
B. system shadow password file
C. relevant product configuration files
D. product entitlement contact number
E. log files from when the issue occurred
Answer: C,E

QUESTION NO: 6
What are two examples of diagnostic Information? (Choose two.)
A. script
B. dumps
C. traces
D. file name
E. incident history
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 7
The Site Technical Contact (STC) is responsible for support compliance for the end customers site. What are two additional responsibilities of the STC? (Choose two.)
A. Maintains authorizations to support-related web and tool access.
B. Approving nominations for access to ESR/SR on an individual basis.
C. Maintains authorizations to access Tivoli frequently asked questions.
D. Approving IBM Tivoli Support PMRs for escalation to the development team.
E. Approving IBM Tivoli Support engineers access to customer support tickets.
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 8
The ESR/SR tool is used to open, update and report on PMRs online. Whose responsibility is it to grant and deny access to the ESR/SR?
A. Primary Contact
B. IBM Tivoli Support
C. Passport Advantage
D. Site Technical Contact
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 9
Which information does the IBM Information Center provide?
A. How to access and download IBM software.
B. How to change a customer’s Primary Contact information.
C. Task oriented How To instructions and reference material.
D. Updated information regarding PMRs you have opened with IBM Tivoli Support.
Answer: C QUESTION NO: 10

What are two responsibilities of the Primary Site Technical Contact? (Choose two.)
A. Opening all PMRs on behalf of all their Support Analysts.
B. Downloading software from Passport Advantage for use by the end user.
C. Assigning up to nine Secondary Site Technical Contact per end user contract.
D. Uploading all End User Debug files to ESR/SR on behalf of their support analysts.
E. Accept or deny a request for a Support Provider’s engineer to obtain access to an end users account.
Answer: C,E
QUESTION NO: 11
When searching the knowledge base on the IBM Support website, what is the best search strategy for finding targeted information?
A. Select just one product and only one keyword.
B. Select the product, operating system and a date range.
C. Target a wide set of records, by using just one keyword.
D. Select the product(s) and other specific criteria for which a solution is required.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 12
Where can the most thorough searches on support be performed?
A. anywhere with a search dialog
B. top header of any IBM.com web page
C. always from a specific product support page
D. IBM Software Support Home page IBM.com/software/support
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 13

Which two resources are available on the IBM developerWorks website? (Choose two.)
A. Latest test fixes released by development.
B. Software licenses for proof of concept installs.
C. Web-based community forums and Wiki pages.
D. List of new features still under development for each product.
E. Technical tutorials and demos for developers and administrators.
Answer: C,E
QUESTION NO: 14
Which Maintenance Delivery Vehicles (MDVs) provides a cumulative, fully supported and formally tested software maintenance package of APAR fixes?
A. FITS
B. Test Fix
C. Fix Pack
D. Limited Availability Interim Fix
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 15
IBM Software Support Feeds allow one to stay up-to-date with the latest content created for specific IBM Software products. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. feeds can include IBM stock prices
B. feeds can be filtered using keywords
C. feeds are updated several times a day
D. feeds are delivered using IBM proprietary standards
E. feeds may be customized to include PMR information
Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 16
What is Assist On-Site?
A. An IBM education program used to create and deliver client customized training.
B. An IBM dedicated resource who resides at the client’s site to advise on technical issues.
C. An IBM web based technology used to troubleshoot by viewing or controlling a remote system.
D. An IBM team of support engineers that travel to customer locations to resolve critical problems. Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 17
To access ESR/SR and open a PMR on behalf of an end user, what are two requirements? (Choose two)
A. approval from the End User
B. the customer’s Telephone number
C. the customer’s contact name and address
D. to be registered with IBM and have a login ID
E. to be setup as an Authorized User or a Site Technical Contact
Answer: D,E
QUESTION NO: 18
Which two statements are true of Interim Fix (IF) Maintenance Delivery Vehicles? (Choose two.)
A. Interim Fixes are formally tested and fully supported by IBM.
B. Interim Fixes are uncertified fixes that may be used for testing only.
C. Interim Fixes are installable packages which include one or more APAR fixes.
D. Interim Fixes are not published on the IBM website and must be requested from support.
E. Interim Fixes do not contain any documentation, Readme files or installation instructions.
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 19
Based upon user feedback of the IBM Support Assistant tool, what increased resolution time have they observed?

A. 2%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 15%
Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which backup method is optimized for use when the backup exceeds the backup window, the files being backed up have relatively little daily change and not having to scan the file system looking for changed files would benefit the backup window?
A. Selective backup
B. Journal-based backup
C. Full incremental backup
D. Partial incremental backup

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
In the Primary Storage Pool definition, autocopy=migrate is defined in FILEPOOL2 and TAPEPOOL. What are two consequences if the target (next) storage pool in a hierarchy (FILEPOOL2) cannot contain the data being migrated, and it is necessary to overflow to its next storage pool (TAPEPOOL)?

A. Simultaneous write is disabled.
B. TAPEPOOL inherits the copy pool list for FILEPOOL2.
C. The server uses the inheritance model to create the copies.
D. COPYPOOL2 is used because it is defined to TAPEPOOL.
E. COPYPOOLI1 and COPYPOOL2 is used because the definitions of FILEPOOL2 and TAPEPOOL are inherited.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
What is required when using IBM Tivoli Storage FlashCopy Manager (FCM) for VMware from a Virtual Server?
A. The operating system for the virtual server must be Windows.
B. All virtual servers that are part of the hardware snapshot must be backed up to TSM.
C. If a VM is used as the proxy host, this VM must not be stored on a datastore being backed up by FCM.
D. A restore of a virtual servers from a data store backup can only be restored to the data store the backup was performed against.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
Migration is using only one tape but more tape drives are available. Which stgpool option should be reviewed?
A. drives
B. numdrives
C. migprocess
D. mountpoints

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
Which file is required when performing disaster recovery of an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V7.1 server?
A. dsmserv.sys
B. volume history
C. recovery instructions
D. database system log

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
There are NAS filers that need long term archival retention of some but not all files. Which two actions will resolve this in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager?
A. UseaCIFSorNFStomounttheNASvolumes.
B. Use the Backup-Archive client with the Archive function.
C. Use the NDMP backup function with the Archive option.
D. Use the Backup-Archive client with the SNAPDIFF option.
E. Use the SnapMirror to Tape function to protect the the NAS volumes.

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 7
Which device type must be used to define a copy pool that is configured for deduplication?
A. NAS
B. FILE
C. DISK
D. TAPE

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
Which statement is true regarding a vStorage Backup Server?
A. It only supports backup to disk.
B. It supports only backup over LAN.
C. It can be a virtual or a physical machine.
D. It allows virtual machine full backups and incremental file level backups.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 9
Which task or process can be included in an administrative schedule?
A. client backup
B. import database
C. ingestion of data
D. database backup

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
What is the purpose of the option clusternode yes?
A. It uses a cluster node as proxy node for backups.
B. It configures IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) to back up the primary node first.
C. It allows multiple TSM clients to backup a single disk resource.
D. It specifies how the TSM Backup-Archive client manages cluster drives.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
What should the volume’s access be set to for tapes created in a copy storage pool and moved to a disaster recovery location?
A. offline
B. offsite
C. readwrite
D. drlocation

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Which scheduling mode provides the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager administrator with the most control over backup scheduling?
A. client polling
B. server prompted
C. session initiation
D. enhanced schedules

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
A customer is upgrading their environment from IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) V5.5 to TSM V7.1. Which three new skills are required for the existing storage administrator with system privileges?
A. defining DB2 volumes
B. defining database space
C. defining active data pools
D. managing recovery log volumes
E. managing a database reorganization
F. managing multiple stream database backups
Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 14
What happens to the client data with the encryptkey option and include.encrypt options?
A. Data will be encrypted by the Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) server.
B. All file spaces from the TSM server will be encrypted.
C. Encrypted data will be backed up directly from the filesystem.
D. Data will be encrypted at the client before sending it to the TSM server.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which three steps must be completed so SERVER-A and SERVER-B can use SSL to communicate?
A. Each server must specify COMMMETHOD SSL in its options file.
B. Each server must be defined to the other specifying the SSL=YES parameter.
C. Both servers must be restarted after configuring the appropriate SSL parameters.
D. Each server’s password must be replaced just prior to defining them to each other.
E. The partner certificate of SERVER-B must be manually imported on SERVER-A and that of SERVER_A on SERVER-B.
F. The administrative ID used to perform the DEFINE SERVER commands must have the same PASSEXP attribute value on both servers.

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 16
Why is validate policyset run before activate policyset?
A. To verify if the definitions are consistent.
B. To verify that the policies can be overwritten.
C. To verify that the active policyset is not in use.
D. To verify permissions are available to change the policies.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
After the initial configuration of IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Operations Center, which two At Risk status settings can be changed?
A. time since last node replication
B. time since last copypool backup
C. time since last spoke replication
D. time since last application backup
E. time since last virtual machine backup
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 18
How is the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) V7.1 administrative client installed?
A. It is an option during the client installation.
B. It is an option during the server installation.
C. It is installed by default with the TSM client.
D. It is installed by default with the TSM server.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
Which two actions must be done to introduce a new LTO5 tape drive into an existing SCSI library with LTO2?
A. define the library
B. define a devclass
C. define the LTO2 drives
D. define the LTO5 drives
E. define a storage pool utilizing a devclass for LTO2

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 20
Why would an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) trace be run?
A. To find a lost encryption key.
B. To filter messages from the active log.
C. To help troubleshoot at the request of Level 2 Support.
D. To check the data path between the TSM client and server.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
What happens during the configuration of a spoke server in the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Operations Center?
A. A new server group will be defined for command routing.
B. An existing server group will be used for command routing.
C. The spoke server will be defined in a new server group for command routing.
D. The spoke server will be added to an existing server group or a new server group will be created.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
What is a function of Automated System Recovery (ASR) in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager?
A. It restores the ASR database to its last known state.
B. It automatically performs ASR database backups at a set interval.
C. It backs up ASR files in preparation for recovering the AIX disk configuration information and system state in the event of a catastrophic system or hardware failure.
D. It backs up ASR files in preparation for recovering the Windows disk configuration information and system state in the event of a catastrophic system or hardware failure.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Which statement is true for a tape device to be defined to the Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) server?
A. TSM requires a tape library for drives to be used.
B. If it is a SCSI tape then no special steps are required.
C. The drive must be SAN connected and zoned to the TSM server.
D. The proper adapter card and correct device driver must be installed.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
What does this command do: dsmc archive “/home/tsm/prod/” -v2archive?
A. It archives files in the /home/tsm/prod directory and the tsm or prod directories.
B. It archives only files in the /home/tsm/prod directory but not the tsm or prod directories.
C. It archives all the files in /home/tsm/prod/ including the subdirectories using the management class v2archive.
D. It archives only the files in /home/tsm/prod/ including the subdirectories using the management class
v2archive. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 25 Where does deduplication processing take place with client-side deduplication enabled on the Tivoli Storage Manager server?
A. on the server only
B. on the Backup-Archive client only
C. on both the Backup-Archive client and the server
D. on the server but the client maintains the deduplication list

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 26
What is the function of reconciliation in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM)?
A. It removes obsolete data from the TSM database.
B. It logs orphan stubs and deletes obsolete copies of files.
C. It removes orphan stub files from the TSM server database.
D. It repopulates orphan stubs and deletes obsolete copies of the files.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 27
Which device class type supports IBM Tivoli Storage Manager deduplication?
A. LTO
B. FILE
C. DISK
D. SERVER

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 28
What are two considerations when planning for an active data pool?
A. Retention period for the data.
B. Number of versions of data to keep.
C. Usage of dedup for the active data pool.
D. Usage for fast restore or disaster recovery.
E. Usage of LAN-free techniques for the active data pool.

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 29
The IBM DB2 command runstats performs which function?
A. It reorganizes the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) database.
B. It resets the TSM database table schema.
C. It updates statistics on tables and indexes.
D. It displays statistics on the database and indexes.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 30

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QUESTION NO: 1
Cloud Service A is installed on Virtual Server A and the database it accesses is located on Cloud Storage Device A. Both Virtual Servers A and B are hosted by Hypervisor A. Requests from cloud service consumers are intercepted by an automated scaling listener that automatically routes subsequent requests to additional instances of Cloud Service A whenever the given usage of an instance exceeds two concurrent requests.

Cloud Service Consumer A accesses Cloud Service A (1), which either sends a query or a read/write request to a database on Cloud Storage Device A (2). A usage and administration portal is available, enabling Cloud Consumer A to view the billing and usage history of Virtual Servers A and B (3).
Cloud Service Consumer A and Cloud Consumer A are owned by Organization A. which performs several tests on the cloud architecture that produce the following results:
-A stress test is performed to generate workloads on Virtual Servers A and B to gauge their load capacity. This test reveals that both virtual servers have firm workload thresholds. If the workload capacity on either virtual server reaches its threshold, further processing requests are rejected.
-An availability test shows that Cloud Service A becomes unavailable whenever Hypervisor A crashes.
-A security test is carried out during which the cloud architecture is accessed by a malicious cloud consumer that disables the path used by Cloud Service A to access Cloud Storage Device A, thereby causing all subsequent cloud service consumer requests to be replied to with data access errors.
Which of the following statements describes a solution that addresses the concerns raised by the three tests?
A. The Resource Reservation pattern can be applied to ensure that Virtual Servers A and B are not accessed by any cloud consumers other than Organization A, thereby enabling their respective capacity to be maximized. A second hypervisor can be implemented and the Synchronized Operating State pattern can be applied to emulate the usage of the resource cluster mechanism with the two hypervisors. This will prevent Cloud Service A from being affected if one of the hypervisors fails. The Service State Management pattern can be applied to establish a secondary cloud storage device that can be accessed by Cloud Service A whenever Cloud Storage Device A becomes inaccessible.
B. The Elastic Resource Capacity pattern can be applied to enable resources to be assigned to the virtual servers dynamically. The Hypervisor Clustering pattern can be applied to avoid jeopardizing the availability of Cloud Service A when its underlying hypervisor fails. The Multipath Resource Access pattern can be applied to establish an alternative path to Cloud Storage Device
A. Cloud Service A can then be designed to access Cloud Storage Device A via the alternative path whenever access via the original path fails.
C. The Elastic Resource Capacity pattern can be applied to enable resources to be assigned to the virtual servers dynamically. The Resource Pooling pattern can be applied to allow Hypervisor A to be part of a larger hypervisor pool. The Cross-Storage Device Vertical Tiering pattern can be applied to allow Cloud Service A to access Cloud Storage Device A via different tiers.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 2
Cloud Service A accesses LUN Aon Cloud Storage Device A when it receives requests to process data from cloud consumers. Cloud Service A is hosted by Virtual Server A. The usage and administration portal can be used to access and manage the data in Cloud Storage Device B, which is also hosted by Virtual Server A. Virtual Server A is further hosted by Hypervisor A, which resides on Physical Server A. Virtual Server B is part of a virtual server cluster hosted by Hypervisor B. which resides on Physical Server B. Physical Server C is not in use and does not yet have an operating system installed.
Cloud Service Consumer A sends a request to Cloud Service A (1), which accesses data in LUN Aon Cloud Storage Device A (2). Cloud Consumer B uses the usage and administration portal to upload new data (3). The data is placed in LUN B on Cloud Storage Device B (4).
Cloud Service Consumer A and Cloud Consumer B belong to Organization A, which is leasing Virtual Server A and Virtual Server B from the cloud provider. Organization A also proceeds to lease Physical Server C as part of a new laaS agreement it signs with the cloud provider.
Organization A wants to provision Physical Server C with a number of legacy systems that cannot be deployed on virtual servers. However, when it attempts to do so, it realizes that its laaS package only provides Physical Server C as an out-of-the-box hardware server without anything installed on it. In order to deploy its legacy systems Organization A requires that Physical Server C first has an operating system installed, but it has no means of remotely provisioning Physical Server C with an operating system.

Organization A would like to deploy two of its legacy systems on Virtual Server A and to further extend Cloud Service A’s functions so that it can be used as an external interface for cloud service consumers to access legacy system features. Additionally, Organization A would like to deploy three of its mission-critical legacy systems on Virtual Server B in order to take advantage of the additional performance and failover benefits provided by the virtual server cluster that Virtual Server B is part of. Each of the five legacy systems is comprised of dozens of components that need to be installed individually. Instead of manually installing each component of each legacy system, Organization A would like to customize workflows that can automate these deployment tasks.
During the first few months of working with its cloud-based legacy systems. Organization A receives a number of complaints from users that the cloud-based legacy systems are at times behaving erratically. However, when cloud resource administrators with Organization A review the cloud provider’s reports that log usage, downtime and other runtime characteristics, they do not find any indication of erratic behavior or any other comparable problems. After some further investigation, the cloud resource administrators determine that the nature of the erratic behavior is specific to proprietary features of the legacy systems and is therefore not monitored or logged by the cloud provider’s standard audit monitor, pay-per-use monitor or automated scaling listener. The cloud resource administrators recommend that a new service agent be developed with features customized to monitor the legacy systems.
Which of the following statements provides a solution that can address Organization A’s requirements?
A. The Bare-Metal Provisioning pattern can be applied to remotely provision Physical Server C with the operating system required to deploy the legacy systems. The Automated Administration pattern can be applied to enable Organization A to create custom scripts that can carry out the deployment of the legacy system components via the use of an intelligent automation engine. To provide Organization X with the tools to monitor IT resource usage and collect usage data so that security breaches and other impacts do not occur, the Usage Monitoring pattern can be applied to establish the required custom monitoring functionality.
B. The Bare-Metal Provisioning pattern can be applied to enable Organization A to provisioning Physical Server C with legacy systems after the operating system has been installed. The Synchronized Operating State pattern can be applied to consolidate Organization A’s legacy systems via a centralized administration portal from which it can then automate their deployment. The Automated Administration pattern can be applied to establish a series of workflow scripts customized to monitor and log proprietary legacy system behavior.
C. The Rapid Provisioning pattern can be applied to enable Physical Server C to be remotely provisioned with the operating system and legacy systems. The Centralized RemoteAdministration pattern can be applied to enable Organization A’s employees to remotely manage and administer legacy system deployment. The Pay-as-You-Go pattern can be applied to establish the custom monitoring functionality required by Organization A’s legacy systems.
D. None of the above.
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 3
Cloud Service A is hosted by Virtual Server A, which is hosted by Hypervisor A on Physical Server
A. Virtual Server B is hosted by Hypervisor B on Physical Server B.
Cloud Service Consumer A accesses Cloud Service A and the request is intercepted by an SLA monitor (1). Cloud Service A receives the request (2) and accesses Cloud Storage Device A and Cloud Storage Device B (3).
Cloud Service Consumer A belongs to Organization A, which is leasing all of the IT resources shown in the figure as part of an laaS environment.

Cloud Storage Device B has a higher performance capacity than Cloud Storage Device A. Cloud Storage Device C has a higher performance capacity than Cloud Storage Device B. The requests being received by Cloud Service A from Cloud Service Consumer A have recently increased in both quantity and in the amount of data being queried, written and read from Cloud Storage Device A. As a result, Cloud Storage Device A’s capacity is frequently reached and it has become unstable at times, timing out with some requests and rejecting other requests.
Cloud Storage Device C is used by Organization A to store backup data on a daily basis. One day, a hardware failure within Cloud Storage Device C results in the permanent loss of data. Organization A requires a system that will prevent this type of failure from resulting in data loss.
The cloud provider is planning to implement a routine maintenance schedule for Cloud Storage Devices A, B, and C and issues a notice stating that the new schedule will start next week. An outage of 30 minutes every Thursday and Sunday at 8:00 PM is needed for the maintenance tasks. Upon hearing this, Organization A complains that they cannot afford to have Cloud Storage Devices A and B become inoperable, especially not during the weekdays.
Which of the following statements describes a solution that can address Organization A’s issues?
A. The Intra-Storage Device Vertical Data Tiering pattern can be applied to enable dynamic scaling between Cloud Storage Devices A, B and C. The Dynamic Failure Detection and Recovery pattern can be applied to establish a resilient watchdog system that is able to respond dynamically to prevent data loss. The Service State Management pattern can be applied to keep a copy of the data in Cloud Storage Devices A, B and C during the maintenance outages.
B. The Cross-Storage Device Vertical Tiering pattern can be applied to enable dynamic scaling between Cloud Storage Devices A, B and C. The Redundant Storage pattern can be applied by designating Cloud Storage Device D as the secondary storage to which Organization A’s data can be replicated. In order to prevent planned or unplanned outages from affecting Organization A’s data access, the Storage Maintenance Window pattern can be applied to replicate the data in Cloud Storage Device D for retrieval before the outages begin.
C. The Load Balanced Virtual Switches pattern can be applied to increase the bandwidth of Physical Server A so that data processing problems within Cloud Storage Device A can be prevented. The Non-Disruptive Service Relocation pattern can be applied to automatically relocate Cloud Storage Device A to Physical Server B so that data access is not interrupted. The Storage Maintenance Window pattern can be applied to replicate the data in Cloud Storage Device D for retrieval before the outages begin.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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The storage management portal is a portal that provides management features for
A. Vertically tiered cloud storage devices
B. Horizontally scaled cloud storage devices
C. Block-based storage devices
D. Alltypesof cloud storage devices
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 2
Which pattern can be applied to establish a failover system for cloud storage devices that enables continuous data access for cloud consumers?
A. Direct LUN Access
B. Redundant Storage
C. Storage Workload Management
D. Intra-Storage Device Vertical Tiering
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 3
The application of the Intra-Storage Device Vertical Tiering pattern establishes a system that optimizes the availability of different disk types of the same capacity.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 4

A. Watchdog system
B. Capacityplanner system
C. Failover system C D.Intelligent automation engine
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 5
After applying the _____________pattern, a system is established in which a _____________is used to provide virtual servers with direct access to LUNs.
A. Direct LUN Access, hypervisor
B. Redundant Storage, cloud storage device
C. Direct LUN Access, physical host bus adapter card
D. Redundant Storage, virtual switch
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 6
The Hypervisor Clustering pattern establishes a _____________that is comprised of multiple hypervisors residing on different physical servers.
A. High-availability hypervisor cluster
B. Nested storage resource pool
C. Load balanced hypervisor cluster
D. Noneoftheabove.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 7

A. secondary physical connection, Synchronized Operating State C B. primary physical connection, Zero Downtime
B. secondary physical connection, Redundant Physical Connection for Virtual Servers
C. virtual switch uplink port, Service Load Balancing
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 8
The benefits of the cloud architecture that is established by applying the Cloud Balancing compound pattern include: (Choose Three)
A. improved IT resource performance
B. improved IT resource availability
C. improved IT resource failover (across clouds)
D. improved IT resource discovery (across clouds)
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 9
The _______________ pattern is applied to centralize the storage of _______________ data, in order to maintain network connectively whenever virtual servers are being moved between host physical servers.
A. Redundant Physical Connection for Virtual Servers, physical network connectivity
B. Persistent Virtual Network Configuration, virtual network configuration
C. Redundant Physical Connection for Virtual Servers, redundant
D. Persistent Virtual Network Configuration, normalized
Answer: B
The application of the Elastic Resource Capacity pattern results in a system that can dynamically allocate and reclaim __________________ and __________________ for virtual servers, in response to fluctuating processing requirements.
A. RAM memory, CPUs
B. storage capacity, LUN5
C. virtual switches, uplinks
D. load balanced IT resources, clustered IT resources
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 11
The system established by the application of the Elastic Network Capacity pattern uses the automated scaling listener mechanism and _______________ to detect traffic increases that have exceeded the bandwidth threshold.
A. the failover system mechanism
B. intelligent automation engine scripts
C. the resource replication mechanism
D. the usage and administration portal
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 12
The system that is established by the application of the Dynamic Failure Detection and Recovery pattern can address which of the following issues: (Choose Three)
A. cloud-based bare-metal physical servers need to be provisioned with operating systems
B. cloud-based IT resources encountering runtime failure conditions require intervention
C. the manual process to solve cloud-based IT resource failure is too slow
D. the manual recovery of IT resources leads to additional failures
Answer: B,C,D QUESTION NO: 13

The data de-duplication system checks each block of data to determine whether it is _____________with a block that has already been received. The ______________ blocks are replaced with pointers to their equivalent blocks that are already in storage.
A. combined,combined
B. scaled, scaled
C. redundant,redundant
D. load balanced, load balanced
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 14
The cloud architecture that results from the application of the __________________ pattern relies on the _____________mechanism to synchronize cloud storage devices.
A. Synchronized Operating State. resource cluster
B. Redundant Storage, resource replication
C. Zero Downtime, hypervisor
D. Service Load Balancing, failover system
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15
The _____________pattern is applied to dynamically allocate and reclaim physical uplinks, whenever _____________become bottlenecks.
A. Elastic Resource Capacity, virtual firewalls
B. Elastic Disk Provisioning, failed network ports
C. Elastic Resource Capacity, network cards
D. Elastic Network Capacity, virtual switches

QUESTION NO: 16
In a cloud architecture resulting from the application of the Cloud Bursting compound pattern, the _________________ mechanism is used to maintain synchronizing between a cloud consumer’s on-premise and cloud-based IT resources.
A. hypervisor
B. resource pooling
C. automated scaling listener
D. resource replication
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 17
The Automated Administration pattern can be applied together with the Elastic Resource Capacity pattern, so that a hypervisor can be initiated by _____________to allocate more resources for a virtual server.
A. a watchdog monitor
B. a pay-per-use monitor
C. an intelligent automation engine script
D. an automatic scaling listener
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 18
The Intra-Storage Device Vertical Tiering pattern is applied to resolve issues caused by:
A. Multiple cloud storage devices that need to vertically scale at the same time
B. Cloud consumers that are limited to using one cloud storage device to store multiple applications and services
C. Different disktypesacross redundant cloud storage devices that use different storage methods
D. Cloud consumers that have cloud storage devices in different geographical regions that need to be combined
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 19
The system resulting from the application of the Direct LUN Access pattern allows virtual servers to see LUN5 as directly accessible file-based storage.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 20
The cloud architecture that is established by the application of the Storage Workload Management pattern can rely on the storage capacity monitor to: (Choose Two)
A. notify the storage capacity system whenever a cloud storage device is being over-utilized
B. migrate LUN5 to different cloud storage devices
C. detect when the workload of a cloud storage device has reached a pre-defined threshold
D. act as an external interlace to a cloud storage service
Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 21
The application of the _____________pattern results in a dynamic vertical scaling system that uses the _____________program to move LUNs to cloud storage devices of higher capacity.
A. Cross-Storage Device Vertical Tiering, LUN migration
B. Intra-Storage Device Vertical Tiering, storage replication

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