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QUESTION 1
An application is hosted on Google Kubernetes Engine. A new JavaScript module is created to work with the existing
application. Which task is mandatory to make the code ready to deploy?
A. Create a Dockerfile for the code base.
B. Rewrite the code in Python.
C. Build a wrapper for the code to “containerize” it.
D. Rebase the code from the upstream git repo.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
An application uses OAuth to get access to several API resources on behalf of an end user. What are two valid
parameters to send to the authorization server as part of the first step of an authorization code grant flow? (Choose
two.)
A. URI to which the authorization server will send the user-agent back when access is granted or denied
B. list of the API resources that the application is requesting to access
C. secret that was generated by the authorization server when the application registered as an OAuth integration
D. list of scopes that correspond to the API resources to which the application is requesting to access
E. name of the application under which the application registered as an OAuth integration
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3

350-901 exam questions-q3

Refer to the exhibit. An Intersight API is being used to query RackUnit resources that have a tag keyword set to “Site”.
What is the expected output of this command?
A. list of all resources that have a tag with the keyword “Site”
B. error message because the Value field was not specified
C. error message because the tag filter should be lowercase
D. list of all sites that contain RackUnit tagged compute resources
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
A web application is susceptible to cross-site scripting. Which two methods allow this issue to be mitigated? (Choose
two.)
A. Use only drop downs.
B. Limit user input to acceptable characters.
C. Encrypt user input on the client side.
D. Use AES encryption to secure the script.
E. Remove all HTML/XML tags from user input.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
A user is receiving a 429 Too Many Requests error. Which scheme is the server employing that causes this error?
A. rate limiting
B. time outs
C. caching
D. redirection
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
An automated solution is needed to configure VMs in numerous cloud provider environments to connect the
environments to an SDWAN. The SDWAN edge VM is provided as an image in each of the relevant clouds and can be
given an identity and all required configuration via cloud-init without needing to log into the VM once online.
Which configuration management and/or automation tooling is needed for this solution?
A. Ansible
B. Ansible and Terraform
C. NSO
D. Terraform
E. Ansible and NSO
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
Which two techniques protect against injection attacks? (Choose two.)
A. input validation
B. trim whitespace
C. limit text areas to 255 characters
D. string escaping of user free text and data entry
E. only use dropdown, checkbox, and radio button fields
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the code onto the snippet to update a SSID in Meraki using the Dashboard API. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

350-901 exam questions-q8

Correct Answer:

350-901 exam questions-q8-2

QUESTION 9

350-901 exam questions-q9

 Refer to the exhibit. a developer created the code, but it fails to execute. Which code snippet helps to identify the
issue?

350-901 exam questions-q9-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which RFC5988 (Web Linking) relation type is used in the Link header to control pagination in APIs?
A. rel=”index”
B. rel=”page”
C. rel=”next”
D. rel=”section”
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

350-901 exam questions-q11

Refer to the exhibit. Which two functions are performed by the load balancer when it handles traffic originating from the
Internet destined to an application hosted on the file server farm? (Choose two.)
A. Terminate the TLS over the UDP connection from the router and originate an HTTPS connection to the selected
server.
B. Terminate the TLS over the UDP connection from the router and originate an HTTP connection to the selected
server.
C. Terminate the TLS over the TCP connection from the router and originate an HTTP connection to the selected
server.
D. Terminate the TLS over the TCP connection from the router and originate an HTTPS connection to the selected
server.
E. Terminate the TLS over the SCTP connection from the router and originate an HTTPS connection to the selected
server.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 12
An organization manages a large cloud-deployed application that employs a microservices architecture across multiple
data centers. Reports have received about application slowness. The container orchestration logs show that faults have
been raised in a variety of containers that caused them to fail and then spin up brand new instances.
Which two actions can improve the design of the application to identify the faults? (Choose two.)
A. Automatically pull out the container that fails the most over a time period.
B. Implement a tagging methodology that follows the application execution from service to service.
C. Add logging on exception and provide immediate notification.
D. Do a write to the datastore every time there is an application failure.
E. Implement an SNMP logging system with alerts in case a network link is slow.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP

350-901 exam questions-q13

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the steps from the left into the correct order of operation on the right for a successful
OAuth2 three-legged authorization code grant flow.
Select and Place:

350-901 exam questions-q13-2

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QUESTION 1
Which two statements about PCIe are true? (Choose two.)
A. The PCIe link is built around dedicated unidirectional couples of serial, point-to-point connections known as lanes.
B. You can install a PCI Express x8 adapter into an x4 slot.
C. The PCIe standard is a bus-based system in which all the devices share the same bidirectional, 32-bit or 64-bit,
parallel signal path.
D. The PCIe 1.0 standard doubles the transfer rate compared to PCIe 2.0.
E. A link that is composed of four lanes is called an x4 link.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 2

010-151 exam questions-q2

Refer to the exhibit. Which two faults can occur if the System Health LED is in a steady amber state? (Choose two.)
A. At least one DIMM is faulty.
B. Major fault with CPU
C. Major fault with the system board
D. CPU mismatch
E. Major fault with memory DIMM
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 3
Which two statements about Cisco UCS 6454 Fabric Interconnect are true? (Choose two.)
A. 1-RU 10/25/40/100/200/400 Gigabit Ethernet, FCoE, and Fibre Channel switch offers up to 32 ports.
B. It hosts and runs Cisco Integrated Management Controller (CIMC).
C. All Ethernet ports can support FCoE.
D. Provides the management and communication backbone for the Cisco UCS 5108 Server Chassis and Cisco UCS BSeries Blade Servers only.
E. Provides both the LAN and SAN connectivity for all servers within its domain.
Correct Answer: CE
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QUESTION 4
Which three steps do you perform to troubleshoot when a rack server powers on with no video? (Choose three.)
A. Check that the front I/O dongle is properly seated.
B. Check the front I/O cable connection to the motherboard.
C. Check for memory subsystem failure.
D. Verify the power source to equipment.
E. Reseat the DIMMs, CPU, and PCI cards.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5
Which transceiver can support 400 Gigabit Ethernet?
A. QSFP-DD
B. QSFP+
C. QSFP28
D. SFP-DD
Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 6
Which tool does a network administrator not need when installing hardware?
A. cable tester
B. wrench set
C. cable wraps
D. needle-nose pliers
E. PCMCIA memory
F. soldering iron with grounded tip
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 7
Which type of connection across the network does a SAN allow for multiple servers to access an unlimited amount of
storage devices?
A. any-to-many
B. many-to-any
C. any-to-any
D. any-to-one
E. one-to-any
F. one-to-one
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which processor option is supported in the Cisco UCS C420 M3 Server?
A. up to two Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
B. up to two Intel Xeon E7-4800 series multicore processors
C. up to four Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
D. two or four Intel Xeon E7-8800 series multicore processors
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which cable is used to access the command-line interface of a Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects?
A. KVM cable
B. console cable
C. Ethernet cable
D. SFP+ Ethernet transceiver cable
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which two statements about the Cisco Nexus 5596UP switch are true? (Choose two.)
A. Its power supplies and fan trays are hot-swappable.
B. It supports unified ports.
C. It is offered in a one-rack-unit form factor.
D. It has one expansion slot.
E. It supports up to 96 10G BASE-T ports.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
Which three statements about powering down a Cisco UCS C-Series Rack-Mount Server to perform maintenance or
replacement are true? (Choose three.)
A. Standby power mode: Power is supplied only to the service processor and the cooling fans, and it is safe to power off
the server from this mode.
B. Power status LED. Green indicates that the server is in main power mode and can be safely powered off.
C. Graceful shutdown: Press and release the power button. The operating system performs a graceful shutdown, and
the server goes to standby mode, which is indicated by an amber power status LED.
D. Disconnect the power cords from the power supplies in your server to completely power off the server.
E. Only an emergency shutdown can be performed using the power button on the server front panel.
F. The Cisco UCS C-Series Rack-Mount Server has only one power mode.
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 12
Which supervisor module is supported by a Cisco Nexus 7700 Series Switch?
A. first-generation supervisor module
B. second-generation supervisor module (Sup2)
C. second-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup2E)
D. third-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup3E)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which two blade servers support GPUs? (Choose two.)
A. UCS B260 M4
B. UCS B200 M4
C. UCS B420 M4
D. UCS B480 M5
E. UCS B200 M5
Correct Answer: DE
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Microsoft MS-203 exam dumps information:

Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Fundamentals
Exam Code: MS-900
Exam Name: Microsoft 365 Fundamentals
Updated: Nov 10, 2020
Q&As: 186

Here are some Microsoft MS-900 exam questions for you to practice:

QUESTION 1
A company deploys Exchange Online and SharePoint Online.
You must audit and assess reports for the Microsoft 365 cloud services that the company uses.
You need to provide the required documents.
Which Microsoft site should you use to obtain this information?
A. Compliance Manager
B. Service Trust Portal
C. Office 365 Security and Compliance Center
D. Azure portal
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://servicetrust.microsoft.com/ViewPage/TrustDocumentsV3?docTab=7f51cb60-3d6c-11e9-b2af-7bb9f5d2d913_FAQ_and_White_Papers


QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure ms-900 exam questions-q2

Correct Answer:

work2you ms-900 exam questions-q2-2

Reference: https://office365adoption.com/better-manage-customer-appointments-microsoft-bookings/


QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
An organization has a Microsoft 365 subscription. You plan to implement multi-factor authentication.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

work2you ms-900 exam questions-q3

Correct Answer:

work2you ms-900 exam questions-q3-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/enterprise/multi-factor-authentication-for-your-office-365-devtest-environment


QUESTION 4
A company deploys Microsoft Azure AD. You run the Identity Secure Score report. The report displays five security
items. Which three security items on the report have the most impact on the score? Each correct answer presents a
complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Enable policy to block legacy authentication.
B. Enable user risk policy.
C. Require multi-factor authentication for all users.
D. Delete/block accounts not used in the last 30 days.
E. Do not expire passwords.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company. The company plans to upgrade client operating systems to
Windows 10.
You need to explain the concepts of Windows as a Service (WaaS) to the management team.
Match each term to its definition. To answer, drag the appropriate terms from the column on the left to its definitions on
the right. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

work2you ms-900 exam questions-q5

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/update/waas-overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/update/waas-deployment-rings-windows-10-updates

QUESTION 6
You need to ensure that all users in your tenant have access to the earliest release of updates in Microsoft 365. You set
the organizational release preference to Standard release. Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not
make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. Targeted release for the entire organization
B. No change is needed
C. Targeted release for select users
D. First release
Correct Answer: A
The standard release is the default setting. It implements updates on final release rather than early release.
The first release is now called a Targeted release. The targeted release is the early release of updates for early feedback. You
can choose to have individuals or the entire organization receive updates early.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/admin/manage/release-options-in-office-365?view=o365-worldwide

QUESTION 7
You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company.
You need to ensure that users receive a warning message if they select links in emails that might be unsafe.
What should you do?
A. Use Windows PowerShell to install the latest antimalware engine updates
B. Enable Microsoft Office 365 Advanced Threat Protection
C. Use the Microsoft Exchange Admin Center to configure a new spam-filter policy
D. Use the Microsoft Exchange Admin Center to create a new antimalware policy
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/atp-safe-links

QUESTION 8
You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company.
Your company wants to learn more about what happens if the availability terms of the Microsoft Office 365 services are
not met.
Where can you find this information?
A. Service Level agreement
B. Microsoft Services agreement
C. Microsoft Cloud agreement
D. Microsoft Products and Services agreement
E. Microsoft Enterprise agreement
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/servicedescriptions/office-365-platform-servicedescription/service-level-agreement

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
You are implementing cloud services.
Match each scenario to its service. To answer, drag the appropriate scenario from the column on the left to its cloud
service on the right. Each scenario may be used only once.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

work2you ms-900 exam questions-q9

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/enterprise/hybrid-cloud-overview

QUESTION 10
You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company.
A user experiences an issue with SharePoint Online.
You need to resolve the issue.
Which two options can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Go to the SharePoint admin center and create a support request.
B. Contact Microsoft technical support by telephone.
C. Create a new service request from the Microsoft 365 admin center.
D. Create a service request from the SharePoint portal.
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://www.thewindowsclub.com/microsoft-support-chat-phone-number
https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/praveenkumar/2013/07/17/how-to-create-service-requests-to-contactoffice-365-support/

QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company.
You need to identify available cloud security features.
Match each feature to the correct description. To answer, drag the appropriate feature from the column on the left to its
description on the right. Each feature may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

work2you ms-900 exam questions-q11

Correct Answer:

work2you ms-900 exam questions-q11-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/cloud-app-security/discovered-apps https://www.microsoft.com/enus/itshowcase/using-azure-information-protection-to-classify-and-label-corporate-data https://docs.microsoft.com/enus/azure/active-directory/conditional-access/overview https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security-center/securitycenter-virtual-machine-protection


QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to implement security policies to ensure that sensitive data is protected.
Which tools should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate tools to the correct scenarios. Each tool may be used
once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

work2you ms-900 exam questions-q12

Correct Answer:

work2you ms-900 exam questions-q12-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/information-protection/help-users
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/compliance-manager-overview#controls


QUESTION 13
A company uses Microsoft 365.
Employees report that their searches are failing in Microsoft Outlook.
You need to determine the reason the searches are failing.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. View the mailboxes list in the Exchange admin center.
B. View the Exchange Online advisories in the Service health dashboard.
C. View the email activity in the usage reports.
D. Submit a service request in Support Assistant.
Correct Answer: BD

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