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Best Cisco CCNA 200-301 practice exam questions 1-13
QUESTION 1 An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). What command sequence must be implemented? A. switch#lldp port-description B. switch(config)#lldp port-description C. switch(config-line}#lldp port-description D. switch(config-if)#lldp port-description Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails? A. The administrative distance must be higher on the primary route so that the backup route becomes secondary. B. The default-information originate command must be configured for the route to be installed into the routing table. C. The floating static route must have a lower administrative distance that the primary route so it is used as a backup. D. The floating static route must have a higher administrative distance that the primary route so it is used as a backup Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred? A. A network device has restarted. B. A debug operation is running. C. A routing instance has flapped. D. An ARP inspection has failed. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Which option best describes an API? A. A contract that describes how various components communicate and exchange data with each other. B. an architectural style (versus a protocol) for designing applications; C. a stateless client-server model D. request a certain type of data by specifying the URL path that models the data Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 What mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote sites and supports encryption? A. ISATAP B. GRE over iPsec C. iPsec over ISATAP D. GRE Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement? A. enable AAA override B. enable RX-SOP C. enable DTIM D. enable Band Select Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 Refer to the exhibit. Which two events occur on the interface,if packets from an unknown Source address arrive after the interface learns the maximum number of secure MAC address? (Choose two.)
A. The security violation counter dose not increment B. The port LED turns off C. The interface is error-disabled D. A syslog message is generated E. The interface drops traffic from unknown MAC address Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 8 Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two) A. asychronous routing B. single-homed branches C. dual-homed branches D. static routing E. dynamic routing Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 9 Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching? A. WSA B. Firepower C. ASA D. FireSIGHT Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols? A. dual algorithm B. metric C. administrative distance D. hop count Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID? A. 10.10.1.10 B. 10.10.10.20 C. 172.16.15.10 D. 192.168.0.1 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 What are the two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two.) A. A BNC connector is used for fiber connections B. The glass core component is encased in a cladding C. The data can pass through the cladding D. Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber E. Fiber connects to physical interfaces using RJ-45 connections Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 13 What software-defined architecture plane assists network devices with making packet-forwarding decisions by providing Layer 2 reachability and Layer 3 routing information? A. data plane B. control plane C. policy plane D. management plane Correct Answer: B
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Cisco CCNP 300-420 Exam Questions Practice Test
QUESTION 1 What is a benefit of using VRRPv3 as compared to VRRPv2? A. VRRPv3 supports IPv4 and IPv6 B. VRRPv3 supports authentication C. VRRPv3 supports preemption D. VRRPv3 supports stateful switchover Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 When a network is designed using IS-IS protocol, which two circuit types are supported? (Choose two.) A. nonbroadcast multiaccess B. multiaccess C. point-to-multipoint D. nonbroadcast E. point-to-point Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 3 Which two steps can be taken to improve convergence in an OSPF network? (Choose two.) A. Use Bidirectional Forwarding Detection B. Merge all the areas into one backbone area C. Tune OSPF parameters D. Make all non-backbone areas stub areas E. Span the same IP network across multiple areas. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 4 Which routes does the overlay management protocol advertise in an SD-WAN overlay? A. underlay, MPLS, and overlay B. primary, backup, and load-balanced C. prefix, TLOC, and service D. Internet, MPLS, and backup Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 An enterprise customer has these requirements: 1. end-to-end QoS for the business-critical applications and VoIP services based on CoS marking. 2. flexibility to offer services such as IPv6 and multicast without any reliance on the service provider. 3. support for full-mesh connectivity at Layer 2. Which WAN connectivity option meets these requirements? A. VPWS B. MPLS VPN C. DMVPN D. VPLS Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 Which common issue causes intermittent DMVPN tunnel flaps? A. a routing neighbor reachability issue B. a suboptimal routing table C. interface bandwidth congestion D. that the GRE tunnel to hub router is not encrypted Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 A network solution is being designed for a company that connects to multiple Internet service providers. Which Cisco proprietary BGP path attribute will influence outbound traffic flow? A. Local Preference B. MED C. Weight D. AS Path E. Community Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 Which design consideration should be observed when EIGRP is configured on Data Center switches? A. Perform manual summarization on all Layer 3 interfaces to minimize the size of the routing table. B. Prevent unnecessary EIGRP neighborships from forming across switch virtual interfaces. C. Lower EIGRP hello and hold timers to their minimum settings to ensure rapid route reconvergence. D. Configure multiple EIGRP autonomous systems to segment Data Center services and applications. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 A customer is discussing QoS requirements with a network consultant. The customer has specified that endto- end path verification is a requirement. Which QoS solution meets this requirement? A. IntServ model with RSVP to support the traffic flows B. DiffServ model with PHB to support the traffic flows C. marking traffic at the access layer with DSCP to support the traffic flows D. marking traffic at the access layer with CoS to support the traffic flows Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 What is an advantage of designing an out-of-band network management solution? A. In the event of a production network outage, network devices can still be managed. B. There is no separation between the production network and the management network. C. In the event of a production network outage, it can be used as a backup network path. D. It is less expensive than an in-band management solution Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 Which feature is required for graceful restart to recover from a processor failure? A. Cisco Express Forwarding B. Virtual Switch System C. Stateful Switchover D. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 Which two BGP features will result in successful route exchanges between eBGP neighbors sharing the same AS number? (Choose two.) A. advertise-best-external B. bestpath as-path ignore C. client-to-client reflection D. as-override E. allow-as-in Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 13 A customer with an IPv4 only network topology wants to enable IPv6 connectivity while preserving the IPv4 topology services. The customer plans to migrate IPv4 services to the IPv6 topology, then decommission the IPv4 topology. Which topology supports these requirements? A. dual stack B. 6VPE C. 6to4 D. NAT64 Correct Answer: A
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Microsoft Azure AZ-900 exam study guide – questions answers
QUESTION 1 You have an on-premises network that contains 100 servers. You need to recommend a solution that provides additional resources to your users. The solution must minimize capital and operational expenditure costs. What should you include in the recommendation? A. a complete migration to the public cloud B. an additional data center C. a private cloud D. a hybrid cloud Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 3 HOTSPOT For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 4 HOTSPOT For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 5 Which two types of customers are eligible to use Azure Government to develop a cloud solution? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. a Canadian government contractor B. a European government contractor C. a United States government entity D. a United States government contractor E. a European government entity Correct Answer: CD References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/modules/intro-to-azure-government/2-what-is-azure-government
QUESTION 6 You have an on-premises application that sends email notifications automatically based on a rule. You plan to migrate the application to Azure. You need to recommend a serverless computing solution for the application. What should you include in the recommendation? A. a web app B. a server image in Azure Marketplace C. a logic app D. an API app Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 HOTSPOT For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 8 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. You have an Azure virtual network named VNET1 in a resource group named RG1. You assign an Azure policy specifying that virtual networks are not an allowed resource type in RG1. VNET1 is deleted automatically. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct. A. No change is needed B. is moved automatically to another resource group C. continues to function normally D. is now a read-only object Correct Answer: A References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/governance/policy/overview
QUESTION 9 For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Resource groups provide organizations with the ability to manage the compliance of Azure resources across multiple subscriptions. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct. A. No change is needed B. Management groups C. Azure policies D. Azure App Service plans Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 HOTSPOT For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 12 You plan to deploy a critical line-of-business application to Azure. The application will run on an Azure virtual machine. You need to recommend a deployment solution for the application. The solution must provide a guaranteed availability of 99.99 percent. What is the minimum number of virtual machines and the minimum number of availability zones you should recommend for the deployment? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 13 A team of developers at your company plans to deploy, and then remove, 50 customized virtual machines each week. Thirty of the virtual machines run Windows Server 2016 and 20 of the virtual machines run Ubuntu Linux. You need to recommend which Azure service will minimize the administrative effort required to deploy and remove the virtual machines. What should you recommend? A. Azure Reserved Virtual Machines (VM) Instances B. Azure virtual machine scale sets C. Azure DevTest Labs D. Microsoft Managed Desktop Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 1 Your organization needs to resolve DNS entries stored in an Amazon Route 53 private zone “awscloud:internal” from the corporate network. An AWS Direct Connect connection with a private virtual interface is configured to provide access to a VPC with the CIDR block 192.168.0.0/16. A DNS Resolver (BIND) is configured on an Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) instance with the IP address 192.168.10.5 within the VPC. The DNS Resolver has standard root server hints configured and conditional forwarding for “awscloud.internal” to the IP address 192.168.0.2. From your PC on the corporate network, you query the DNS server at 192.168.10.5 for www.amazon.com. The query is successful and returns the appropriate response. When you query for “server.awscloud.internal”, the query times out. You receive no response. How should you enable successful queries for “server.awscloud.internal”? A. Attach an internet gateway to the VPC and create a default route. B. Configure the VPC settings for enableDnsHostnames and enableDnsSupport as True C. Relocate the BIND DNS Resolver to the corporate network. D. Update the security group for the EC2 instance at 192.168.10.5 to allow UDP Port 53 outbound. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 A multinational organization has applications deployed in three different AWS regions. These applications must securely communicate with each other by VPN. According to the organization\\’s security team, the VPN must meet the following requirements: AES 128-bit encryption SHA-1 hashing User access via SSL VPN PFS using DH Group 2 Ability to maintain/rotate keys and passwords Certificate-based authentication Which solution should you recommend so that the organization meets the requirements? A. AWS hardware VPN between the virtual private gateway and customer gateway B. A third-party VPN solution deployed from AWS Marketplace C. A private MPLS solution from an international carrier D. AWS hardware VPN between the virtual private gateways in each region Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Your hybrid networking environment consists of two application VPCs, a shared services VPC, and your corporate network. The corporate network is connected to the shared services VPC via an IPsec VPN with dynamic (BGP) routing enabled. The applications require access to a common authentication service in the shared services VPC. You need to enable native network access from the corporate network to both application VPCs. Which step should you take to meet the requirements? A. Use VPC peering to peer the application VPCs with the shared services VPC, and enable associated routing in the shared services VPC via the corporate VPN. B. Configure an IPsec VPN between the virtual private gateway in each application VPC to the virtual private gateway in the shared services VPC. C. Configure additional IPsec VPNs for each application VPC back to the corporate network, and enable VPC peering to the shared services VPC. D. Enable CloudHub functionality to route traffic between the three VPCs and the corporate network using dynamic BGP routing. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 You currently use a single security group assigned to all nodes in a clustered NoSQL database. Only your cluster members in one region must be able to connect to each other. This security group uses a self-referencing rule using the cluster security group\\’s group-id to make it easier to add or remove nodes from the cluster. You need to make this database comply with out-of-region disaster recovery requirements and ensure that the network traffic between the nodes is encrypted when travelling between regions. How should you enable secure cluster communication while deploying additional cluster members in another AWS region? A. Create an IPsec VPN between AWS regions, use private IP addresses to route traffic, and create cluster security group rules that reference each other\\’s security group-id in each region. B. Create an IPsec VPN between AWS regions, use private IP addresses to route traffic, and create cluster security group CIDR-based rules that correspond with the VPC CIDR in the other region. C. Use public IP addresses and TLS to securely communicate between cluster nodes in each AWS region, and create cluster security group CIDR-based rules that correspond with the VPC CIDR in the other region. D. Use public IP addresses and TLS to securely communicate between cluster nodes in each AWS region, and create cluster security group rules that reference each other\\’s security group-id in each region. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Your company decides to use Amazon S3 to augment its on-premises data store. Instead of using the company\\’s highly controlled, on-premises Internet gateway, a Direct Connect connection is ordered to provide high bandwidth, low latency access to S3. Since the company does not own a publically routable IPv4 address block, a request was made to AWS for an AWS-owned address for a Public Virtual Interface (VIF). The security team is calling this new connection a “backdoor”, and you have been asked to clarify the risk to the company. Which concern from the security team is valid and should be addressed? A. AWS advertises its aggregate routes to the Internet allowing anyone on the Internet to reach the router. B. Direct Connect customers with a Public VIF in the same region could directly reach the router. C. EC2 instances in the same region with access to the Internet could directly reach the router. D. The S3 service could reach the router through a pre-configured VPC Endpoint. Correct Answer: A
AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner is a recommended, optional step toward achieving an Associate-level or Specialty certification.
Latest Exam Practice Questions – AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner
QUESTION 1 When is it beneficial for a company to use a Spot Instance? A. When there is flexibility in when an application needs to run. B. When there are mission-critical workloads. C. When dedicated capacity is needed. D. When an instance should not be stopped. Correct Answer: A The key to understanding spot instances is to look at the way that cloud service providers such as Amazon Web Services (AWS) operate. Cloud service providers invest in hardware resources and then release those resources (often on a per-hour basis) to subscribers. One of the problems with this business model, however, is that at any given time, there are likely to be compute resources that are not being utilized. These resources represent hardware capacity that AWS has paid for but are sitting idle, and not making AWS any money at the moment. Rather than allowing these computing resources to go to waste, AWS offers them at a substantially discounted rate, with the understanding that if someone needs those resources for running a normal EC2 instance, that instance will take priority over spot instances that are using the hardware resources at a discounted rate. In fact, spot instances will be stopped if the resources are needed elsewhere. Reference: https://awsinsider.net/articles/2017/09/25/aws-spot-instances-primer.aspx
QUESTION 2 What is an example of agility in the AWS Cloud? A. Access to multiple instance types B. Access to managed services C. Using Consolidated Billing to produce one bill D. Decreased acquisition time for new compute resources Correct Answer: D Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/enterprise-strategy/risk-is-lack-of-agility/
QUESTION 3 What is a benefit of loose coupling as a principle of cloud architecture design? A. It facilitates low-latency request handling. B. It allows applications to have dependent workflows. C. It prevents cascading failures between different components. D. It allows companies to focus on their physical data center operations. Correct Answer: C IT systems should ideally be designed in a way that reduces inter-dependencies. Your components need to be loosely coupled to avoid changes or failure in one of the components from affecting others. Your infrastructure also needs to have well defined interfaces that allow the various components to interact with each other only through specific, technology-agnostic interfaces. Modifying any underlying operations without affecting other components should be made possible. Reference: https://www.botmetric.com/blog/aws-cloud-architecture-design-principles/
QUESTION 4 How does AWS MOST effectively reduce computing costs for a growing start-up company? A. It provides on-demand resources for peak usage. B. It automates the provisioning of individual developer environments. C. It automates customer relationship management. D. It implements a fixed monthly computing budget. Correct Answer: A You can continue to optimize your spend and keep your development costs low by making sure you revisit your architecture often, to adjust to your startup growth. Manage your cost further by leveraging different options such as S3 CloudFront for caching and offloading to reduce cost of EC2 computing, as well as Elastic Load Balancing which prepares you for massive scale, high reliability and uninterrupted growth. Another way to keep costs down is to use AWS Identity and Access Management solutions (IAM) to manage governance of your cost drivers effectively and by the right teams. Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/startups/lean/
QUESTION 5 A company is considering migrating its applications to AWS. The company wants to compare the cost of running the workload on-premises to running the equivalent workload on the AWS platform. Which tool can be used to perform this comparison? A. AWS Simple Monthly Calculator B. AWS Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) Calculator C. AWS Billing and Cost Management console D. Cost Explorer Correct Answer: B TCO calculator compare the cost of running your applications in an on-premises or colocation environment to AWS. Reference: https://awstcocalculator.com
The AWS Certified Developer – Associate examination is intended for individuals who perform a development role and have one or more years of hands-on experience developing and maintaining an AWS-based application.
AWS-CERTIFIED-DEVELOPER-ASSOCIATE Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1 An application deployed on AWS Elastic Beanstalk experiences increased error rates during deployments of new application versions, resulting in service degradation for users. The Development team believes that this is because of the reduction in capacity during the deployment steps. The team would like to change the deployment policy configuration of the environment to an option that maintains full capacity during deployment while using the existing instances. Which deployment policy will meet these requirements while using the existing instances? A. All at once B. Rolling C. Rolling with additional batch D. Immutable Correct Answer: D Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/developer/version-2-of-the-aws-elastic-beanstalk-windows-server-platform/
QUESTION 2 An application that runs on an Amazon EC2 instance needs to access and make API calls to multiple AWS services. What is the MOST secure way to provide access to the AWS services with MINIMAL management overhead? A. Use AWS KMS to store and retrieve credentials. B. Use EC2 instance profiles. C. Use AWS root user to make requests to the application. D. Store and retrieve credentials from AWS CodeCommit. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 A web application is designed to allow new users to create accounts using their email addresses. The application will store attributes for each user, and is expecting millions of user to sign up. What should the Developer implement to achieve the design goals? A. Amazon Cognito user pools B. AWS Mobile Hub user data storage C. Amazon Cognito Sync D. AWS Mobile Hub cloud logic Correct Answer: A Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/cognito/
QUESTION 4 According to best practice, how should access keys be managed in AWS? (Choose two.) A. Use the same access key in all applications for consistency. B. Delete all access keys for the account root user. C. Leave unused access keys in the account for tracking purposes. D. Embed and encrypt access keys in code for continuous deployment. E. Use Amazon IAM roles instead of access keys where possible. Correct Answer: BE Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/general/latest/gr/aws-access-keys-best-practices.html#iam-user-access-keys
QUESTION 5 The development team is working on an API that will be served from Amazon API gateway. The API will be served from three environments: development, test, and production. The API Gateway is configured to use 237 GB of cache in all three stages. Which is the MOST cost-efficient deployment strategy? A. Create a single API Gateway with all three stages. B. Create three API Gateways, one for each stage in a single AWS account. C. Create an API Gateway in three separate AWS accounts. D. Enable the cache for development and test environments only when needed. Correct Answer: D
The AWS Certified DevOps Engineer – Professional exam is intended for individuals who perform a DevOps engineer role with two or more years of experience provisioning, operating, and managing AWS environments.
AWS Certified DevOps Engineer – Professional Exam Questions Answers
QUESTION 1 You need to create a Route53 record automatically in CloudFormation when not running in production during all launches of a Template. How should you implement this? A. Use a Parameter for environment, and add a Condition on the Route53 Resource in the template to create the record only when environment is not production. B. Create two templates, one with the Route53 record value and one with a null value for the record. Use the one without it when deploying to production. C. Use a Parameter for environment, and add a Condition on the Route53 Resource in the template to create the record with a null string when environment is production. D. Create two templates, one with the Route53 record and one without it. Use the one without it when deploying to production. Correct Answer: A The best way to do this is with one template, and a Condition on the resource. Route53 does not allow null strings for records. Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSCloudFormation/latest/UserGuide/conditions-section-structure.html
QUESTION 2 A company is using several AWS CloudFormation templates for deploying infrastructure as code. In most of the deployments, the company uses Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling groups. A DevOps Engineer needs to update the AMIs for the Auto Scaling group in the template if newer AMIs are available. How can these requirements be met? A. Manage the AMI mappings in the CloudFormation template. Use Amazon CloudWatch Events for detecting new AMIs and updating the mapping in the template. Reference the map in the launch configuration resource block. B. Use conditions in the AWS CloudFormation template to check if new AMIs are available and return the AMI ID. Reference the returned AMI ID in the launch configuration resource block. C. Use an AWS Lambda-backed custom resource in the template to fetch the AMI IDs. Reference the returned AMI ID in the launch configuration resource block. D. Launch an Amazon EC2 m4 small instance and run a script on it to check for new AMIs. If new AMIs are available, the script should update the launch configuration resource block with the new AMI ID. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Which deployment method, when using AWS Auto Scaling Groups and Auto Scaling Launch Configurations, enables the shortest time to live for individual servers? A. Pre-baking AMIs with all code and configuration on deploys. B. Using a Dockerfile bootstrap on instance launch. C. Using UserData bootstrapping scripts. D. Using AWS EC2 Run Commands to dynamically SSH into fleets. Correct Answer: A Note that the bootstrapping process can be slower if you have a complex application or multiple applications to install. Managing a fleet of applications with several build tools and dependencies can be a challenging task during rollouts. Furthermore, your deployment service should be designed to do faster rollouts to take advantage of Auto Scaling. Prebaking is a process of embedding a significant portion of your application artifacts within your base AMI. During the deployment process you can customize application installations by using EC2 instance artifacts such as instance tags, instance metadata, and Auto Scaling groups. Reference: https://d0.awsstatic.com/whitepapers/overview-of-deployment-options-on-aws.pdf
QUESTION 4 A retail company has adopted AWS OpsWorks for managing its deployments. In the last three months: the company has discovered that some production instances have been restarting without reason. Upon inspection of the AWS CloudTrail logs, a DevOps Engineer determined that those instances were restarted by OpsWorks. The Engineer now wants automated email notifications whenever OpsWorks restarts an instance when the instance is deemed unhealthy or unable to communicate with the service endpoint. How can the Engineer meet this requirement? A. Create a Chef recipe to place a cron to run a custom script within the Amazon EC2 instances that sends an email to the team by using Amazon SES if the OpsWorks agent detects an instance failure. B. Create an Amazon SNS topic and create a subscription for this topic that contains the destination email address. Create an Amazon CloudWatch rule: specify aws . opsworks as a source and specify auto-healing in the initiated_by details. Use the SNS topic as a target. C. Create an Amazon SNS topic and create a subscription for this topic that contains the destination email address. Create an Amazon CloudWatch rule specify aws. opsworks as a source and specify instance-replacement in the initiated_by details. Use the SNS topic as a target. D. Create a subscription for this topic that contains the email address. Enable instance restart notifications within the OpsWorks layer and indicate the destination email address for the notification. Correct Answer: C
The AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate examination is intended for individuals who perform a solutions architect role and have one or more years of hands-on experience designing available.
The AWS-SOLUTION-ARCHITECT-ASSOCIATE Exam Questions, Practice Test
QUESTION 1 A company has asked a Solutions Architect to ensure that data is protected during data transfer to and from Amazon S3. Use of which service will protect the data in transit? A. AWS KMS B. HTTPS C. SFTP D. FTPS Correct Answer: B Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/premiumsupport/knowledge-center/secure-s3-resources/
QUESTION 2 Which of the following cannot be used in Amazon EC2 to control who has access to specific Amazon EC2 instances? A. Security Groups B. IAM System C. SSH keys D. Windows passwords Correct Answer: B http://blogs.aws.amazon.com/security/post/Tx29HCT3ABL7LP3/Resource-level-Permissions-for- EC2-ControllingManagement-Access-on-Specific-Ins
QUESTION 3 A Solutions Architect is designing a new architecture that will use an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group. Which of the following factors determine the health check grace period? (Select TWO.) A. How frequently the Auto Scaling group scales up or down. B. How many Amazon CloudWatch alarms are configured for status checks. C. How much of the application code is embedded in the AMI. D. How long it takes for the Auto Scaling group to detect a failure. E. How long the bootstrap script takes to run. Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 4 A customer has established an AWS Direct Connect connection to AWS. The link is up and routes are being advertised from the customer\\’s end, however the customer is unable to connect from EC2 instances inside its VPC to servers residing in its datacenter. Which of the following options provide a viable solution to remedy this situation? (Choose two.) A. Add a route to the route table with an iPsec VPN connection as the target. B. Enable route propagation to the virtual pinnate gateway (VGW). C. Enable route propagation to the customer gateway (CGW). D. Modify the route table of all Instances using the \\’route\\’ command. E. Modify the Instances VPC subnet route table by adding a route back to the customer\\’s on-premises environment. Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 5 A website keeps a record of user actions using a globally unique identifier (GIUD) retrieved from Amazon Aurora in place of the user name within the audit record. Security protocols state that the GUID content must not leave the company\\’s Amazon VPC. As the web traffic has increased, the number of web servers and Aurora read replicas has also increased to keep up with the user record reads for the GUID. What should be done to reduce the number of read replicas required while improving performance? A. Keep the user name and GUID in memory on the web server instance so that the association can be remade on demand. Remove the record after 30 minutes. B. Deploy a Amazon ElastiCache for Redis server into the infrastructure and store the user name and GUID there. Retrieve GUID from ElastiCache when required. C. Encrypt the GUID using Base64 and store it in the user\\’s session cookie. Decrypt the GUID when an audit record is needed. D. Change the GUID to an MD5 hash of the user name, so that the value can be calculated on demand without referring to the database. Correct Answer: B Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/elasticache/redis/faqs/
The AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Professional exam is intended for individuals who perform a solutions architect role with two or more years of hands-on experience managing and operating systems on AWS.
Practice Questions: AWS-SOLUTION- ARCHITECT-PROFESSIONAL Exam
QUESTION 1 You want to establish redundant VPN connections and customer gateways on your network by setting up a second VPN connection. Which of the following will ensure that this functions correctly? A. The customer gateway IP address for the second VPN connection must be publicly accessible. B. The virtual gateway IP address for the second VPN connection must be publicly accessible. C. The customer gateway IP address for the second VPN connection must use dynamic routes. D. The customer gateway IP address for the second VPN connection must be privately accessible and be the same public IP address that you are using for the first VPN connection. Correct Answer: A To establish redundant VPN connections and customer gateways on your network, you would need to set up a second VPN connection. However, you must ensure that the customer gateway IP address for the second VPN connection is publicly accessible. http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonVPC/latest/UserGuide/VPC_VPN.html
QUESTION 2 A company is creating an account strategy so that they can begin using AWS. The Security team will provide each team with the permissions they need to follow the principle or least privileged access. Teams would like to keep their resources isolated from other groups, and the Finance team would like each team\\’s resource usage separated for billing purposes. Which account creation process meets these requirements and allows for changes? A. Create a new AWS Organizations account. Create groups in Active Directory and assign them to roles in AWS to grant federated access. Require each team to tag their resources, and separate bills based on tags. Control access to resources through IAM granting the minimally required privilege. B. Create individual accounts for each team. Assign the security account as the master account, and enable consolidated billing for all other accounts. Create a cross-account role for security to manage accounts, and send logs to a bucket in the security account. C. Create a new AWS account, and use AWS Service Catalog to provide teams with the required resources. Implement a third-party billing solution to provide the Finance team with the resource use for each team based on tagging. Isolate resources using IAM to avoid account sprawl. Security will control and monitor logs and permissions. D. Create a master account for billing using Organizations, and create each team\\’s account from that master account. Create a security account for logs and cross-account access. Apply service control policies on each account, and grant the Security team cross-account access to all accounts. Security will create IAM policies for each account to maintain least privilege access. Correct Answer: B By creating individual IAM users for people accessing your account, you can give each IAM user a unique set of security credentials. You can also grant different permissions to each IAM user. If necessary, you can change or revoke an IAM user\\’s permissions anytime. (If you give out your root user credentials, it can be difficult to revoke them, and it is impossible to restrict their permissions.) Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/IAM/latest/UserGuide/best-practices.html
QUESTION 3 You are responsible for a web application that consists of an Elastic Load Balancing (ELB) load balancer in front of an Auto Scaling group of Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) instances. For a recent deployment of a new version of the application, a new Amazon Machine Image (AMI) was created, and the Auto Scaling group was updated with a new launch configuration that refers to this new AMI. During the deployment, you received complaints from users that the website was responding with errors. All instances passed the ELB health checks. What should you do in order to avoid errors for future deployments? (Choose 2) A. Add an Elastic Load Balancing health check to the Auto Scaling group. Set a short period for the health checks to operate as soon as possible in order to prevent premature registration of the instance to the load balancer. B. Enable EC2 instance CloudWatch alerts to change the launch configuration\\’s AMI to the previous one. Gradually terminate instances that are using the new AMI. C. Set the Elastic Load Balancing health check configuration to target a part of the application that fully tests application health and returns an error if the tests fail. D. Create a new launch configuration that refers to the new AMI, and associate it with the group. Double the size of the group, wait for the new instances to become healthy, and reduce back to the original size. If new instances do not become healthy, associate the previous launch configuration. E. Increase the Elastic Load Balancing Unhealthy Threshold to a higher value to prevent an unhealthy instance from going into service behind the load balancer. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 4 If no explicit deny is found while applying IAM\\’s Policy Evaluation Logic, the enforcement code looks for any ______ instructions that would apply to the request. A. “cancel” B. “suspend” C. “allow” D. “valid” Correct Answer: C If an explicit deny is not found among the applicable policies for a specific request, IAM\\’s Policy Evaluation Logic checks for any “allow” instructions to check if the request can be successfully completed. http://docs.aws.amazon.com/IAM/latest/UserGuide/AccessPolicyLanguage_EvaluationLogic.html
QUESTION 5 The Solutions Architect manages a serverless application that consists of multiple API gateways, AWS Lambda functions, Amazon S3 buckets, and Amazon DynamoDB tables. Customers say that a few application components slow while loading dynamic images, and some are timing out with the “504 Gateway Timeout” error. While troubleshooting the scenario, the Solutions Architect confirms that DynamoDB monitoring metrics are at acceptable levels. Which of the following steps would be optimal for debugging these application issues? (Choose two.) A. Parse HTTP logs in Amazon API Gateway for HTTP errors to determine the root cause of the errors. B. Parse Amazon CloudWatch Logs to determine processing times for requested images at specified intervals. C. Parse VPC Flow Logs to determine if there is packet loss between the Lambda function and S3. D. Parse AWS X-Ray traces and analyze HTTP methods to determine the root cause of the HTTP errors. E. Parse S3 access logs to determine if objects being accessed are from specific IP addresses to narrow the scope to geographic latency issues. Correct Answer: AE
Earn your AWS Certified SysOps Administrator – Associate Certification.
AWS-SYSOPS Exam Latest practice questions
QUESTION 1 A user has launched an EBS backed EC2 instance. What will be the difference while performing the restart or stop/start options on that instance? A. For restart it does not charge for an extra hour, while every stop/start it will be charged as a separate hour B. Every restart is charged by AWS as a separate hour, while multiple start/stop actions during a single hour will be counted as a single hour C. For every restart or start/stop it will be charged as a separate hour D. For restart it charges extra only once, while for every stop/start it will be charged as a separate hour Correct Answer: A For an EC2 instance launched with an EBS backed AMI, each time the instance state is changed from stop to start/ running, AWS charges a full instance hour, even if these transitions happen multiple times within a single hour. Anyway, rebooting an instance AWS does not charge a new instance billing hour.
QUESTION 2 Which services allow the customer to retain run administrative privileges or the underlying EC2 instances? (Choose two.) A. AWS Elastic Beanstalk B. Amazon Elastic Map Reduce C. Elastic Load Balancing D. Amazon Relational Database Service E. Amazon Elastic Cache Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3 The SysOps Administrator must integrate an existing on-premises asymmetrical key management system into an AWS services platform. How can the Administrator meet this requirement? A. Implement AWS KMS and integrate with the existing on-premises asymmetrical key management system B. Implement AWS CloudHSM and integrate it with the existing key management infrastructure C. Deploy an Amazon EC2 instance and choose an AMI from an AWS partner in the AWS Marketplace D. Create a master key in AWS KMS, and export that key to the existing on-premises asymmetrical key management system Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 A user has created a queue named “myqueue” with SQS. There are four messages published to queue which are not received by the consumer yet. If the user tries to delete the queue, what will happen? A. A user can never delete a queue manually. AWS deletes it after 30 days of inactivity on queue B. It will delete the queue C. It will initiate the delete but wait for four days before deleting until all messages are deleted automatically. D. It will ask user to delete the messages first Correct Answer: B SQS allows the user to move data between distributed components of applications so they can perform different tasks without losing messages or requiring each component to be always available. The user can delete a queue at any time, whether it is empty or not. It is important to note that queues retain messages for a set period of time. By default, a queue retains messages for four days.
QUESTION 5 A user is displaying the CPU utilization, and Network in and Network out CloudWatch metrics data of a single instance on the same graph. The graph uses one Y-axis for CPU utilization and Network in and another Y-axis for Network out. Since Network in is too high, the CPU utilization data is not visible clearly on graph to the user. How can the data be viewed better on the same graph? A. It is not possible to show multiple metrics with the different units on the same graph B. Add a third Y-axis with the console to show all the data in proportion C. Change the axis of Network by using the Switch command from the graph D. Change the units of CPU utilization so it can be shown in proportion with Network Correct Answer: C Amazon CloudWatch provides the functionality to graph the metric data generated either by the AWS services or the custom metric to make it easier for the user to analyze. It is possible to show the multiple metrics with different units on the same graph. If the graph is not plotted properly due to a difference in the unit data over two metrics, the user can change the Y-axis of one of the graph by selecting that graph and clicking on the Switch option.
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220-1002 Dumps – CompTIA [2020] 220-1002 PDF Exam Questions
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CompTIA A+ Certification Exam 220-1002 Practice Test [2020]
QUESTION 1 A user reports malware activity on an isolated workstation used for testing. It is running an end-of-life OS, and a USB drive is the only method used to transfer files. After removing the malware and replacing the USB drive with a brand new one, the technician gives the approval to use the equipment. The next day the user reports the same malware activity is present after powering on the system. Which of the following did the technician forget to do to prevent reinfection? A. Connect to the network and update the OS with the latest security patches B. Scan and clean the USB device used to transfer data from the equipment C. Disable System restore and remove all restore points from the system D. Update the local antivirus and set it to scan automatically every evening Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 A technician is troubleshooting a printer issue on a Windows computer and wants to disable the printer to test a theory. Which of the following should the technician use to accomplish this? A. Devices and Printers B. Sync Center C. Device Manger D. Power Options Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Users notify the help desk of an email that was just received. The email came from the help desk\\’s email address and asked the users to click on an embedded link. This email is BEST described as: A. phishing. B. zombie. C. whaling. D. spoofing. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 A user states that they are having a problem with their word processor on their laptop. Whenever they attempt to type letters with their right hand, numbers and symbols show up instead. Which of the following would address this issue? A. Switch to a standardized font B. Restore regional settings to default C. Toggle the function + num lock combination D. Connect a full sized external keyboard Correct Answer: C Explanation: http://forum.notebookreview.com/windows-os-software/43702-holding-fn-key-toggle-numlock.html
QUESTION 5 Which of the following built-in accounts was removed in Windows 10? A. Power User B. Administrator C. Guest D. Standard User Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 A company wishes to secure entry and provide a reviewwable entry log to specific offices within its building. Which of the following would be the lowest-cost solution to BEST meet the company\\’s needs? A. Key fob B. Biometric locks C. Entry control roster D. Cipher locks Correct Answer: B New Question, pending the Answer.
QUESTION 7 A user recently installed an application. Upon the next reboot, the system is displaying various errors relating to the system files and certain actions e.g. right-clicking no longer works. The user does not have time to reimage the computer, nor do they wish to remove and reinstall the application. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST? A. Open up the command prompt and type SFC /SCANNOW B. Open Task Manager and stop all running SERVICES processes C. Open up MSCONFIG and remove the application from the start-up tab D. Open a command prompt and type REGSVR32 SYSMAIN.DLL ?U Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Which of the following regular maintenance tasks for a workgroup of Windows PCs is MOST likely to be performed on a nightly basis? A. CHKDSK B. Patch installation C. Defragmentation D. Backups Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 A technician is tasked with resolving a display issue with a laptop. The technician has determined that the laptop\\’s display needs to be replaced. Which of the following is the NEXT step the technician should perform? A. Identify the problem that caused the display to fail. B. Establish a theory of the probable cause. C. Verify full system functionality and implement preventive measures. D. Establish an action plan to resolve the problem. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 A user brings in an older CRT monitor and reports there are issues with the colors and bands of discoloration.Which of the following should be done to correct the issue? A. Replace the power cord B. Reformat C. Increase the refresh rate D. Degauss Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 A technician must remove data from the human resources computers. The technician plans to reuse the drives in the computers. Which of the following data destruction methods should the technician perform to ensure the data is removed completely? A. Degaussing B. Standard format C. Overwrite D. Low-level format Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 A customer purchased a 3TB HDD to use with a Windows 7 PC and wants to have letter “J” assigned only to the drive. Which of the following types of partitioning should be performed to give the customer full use of the 3 TB drive? A. GPT B. Dynamic C. Basic D. Extended Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 A company executive reports receiving numerous bounce-back messages to an inbox. When a technician investigates, it appears the executive did not send any of the messages that triggered the bounce-back replies. Which of the following is MOST likely to have occurred\\’ A. Social engineering B. Man-in-the-mid die attack C. Spear pNshing D. Email hijacking E. Logic bomb Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 1 Which default port does ATP use to communicate with the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) web services? A. 8446 B. 8081 C. 8014 D. 1433 Correct Answer: B Reference: https://support.symantec.com/en_US/article.HOWTO81103.html
QUESTION 2 While filling out the After Actions Report, an Incident Response Team noted that improved log monitoring could help detect future breaches. What are two examples of how an organization can improve log monitoring to help detect future breaches? (Choose two.) A. Periodically log into the ATP manager and review only the Dashboard. B. Implement IT Analytics to create more flexible reporting. C. Dedicate an administrator to monitor new events as they flow into the ATP manager. D. Set email notifications in the ATP manager to message the Security team when a new incident is occurring. E. Implement Syslog to aggregate information from other systems, including ATP, and review log data in a single console. Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 4 An organization has five (5) shops with a few endpoints and a large warehouse where 98% of all computers are located. The shops are connected to the warehouse using leased lines and access internet through the warehouse network. How should the organization deploy the network scanners to observe all inbound and outbound traffic based on Symantec best practices for Inline mode? A. Deploy a virtual network scanner at each shop B. Deploy a virtual network scanner at the warehouse and a virtual network scanner at each shop C. Deploy a physical network scanner at each shop D. Deploy a physical network scanner at the warehouse gateway Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 An Incident Responder launches a search from ATP for a file hash. The search returns the results immediately. The responder reviews the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) command status and does NOT see an indicators of compromise (IOC) search command. How is it possible that the search returned results? A. The search runs and returns results in ATP and then displays them in SEPM. B. This is only an endpoint search. C. This is a database search; a command is NOT sent to SEPM for this type of search. D. The browser cached result from a previous search with the same criteria. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 An Incident Responder has noticed that for the last month, the same endpoints have been involved with malicious traffic every few days. The network team also identified a large amount of bandwidth being used over P2P protocol. Which two steps should the Incident Responder take to restrict the endpoints while maintaining normal use of the systems? (Choose two.) A. Report the users to their manager for unauthorized usage of company resources B. Blacklist the domains and IP associated with the malicious traffic C. Isolate the endpoints D. Blacklist the endpoints E. Find and blacklist the P2P client application Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 7 Why is it important for an Incident Responder to copy malicious files to the ATP file store or create an image of the infected system during the Recovery phase? A. To have a copy of the file policy enforcement B. To test the effectiveness of the current assigned policy settings in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) C. To create custom IPS signatures D. To document and preserve any pieces of evidence associated with the incident Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 An ATP Administrator set up ATP: Network in TAP mode and has placed URLs on the blacklist. What will happen when a user attempts to access one of the blacklisted URLs? A. Access to the website is blocked by the network scanner but an event is NOT generated B. Access to the website is blocked by the network scanner and a network event is generated C. Access to the website is allowed by the network scanner but blocked by ATP: Endpoint and an endpoint event is generated D. Access to the website is allowed by the network scanner but a network event is generated Correct Answer: D Reference: https://support.symantec.com/us/en/article.HOWTO125951.html
QUESTION 9 Which attribute is required when configuring the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) Log Collector? A. SEPM embedded database name B. SEPM embedded database type C. SEPM embedded database version D. SEPM embedded database password Correct Answer: D Reference: https://support.symantec.com/en_US/article.HOWTO125960.html
QUESTION 10 An Incident Responder wants to run a database search that will list all client named starting with SYM. Which syntax should the responder use? A. hostname like “SYM” B. hostname “SYM” C. hostname “SYM*” D. hostname like “SYM*” Correct Answer: A Reference: https://support.symantec.com/en_US/article.HOWTO124805.html
QUESTION 11 An Incident Responder needs to remediate a group of endpoints but also wants to copy a potentially suspicious file to the ATP file store. In which scenario should the Incident Responder copy a suspicious file to the ATP file store? A. The responder needs to analyze with Cynic B. The responder needs to isolate it from the network C. The responder needs to write firewall rules D. The responder needs to add the file to a whitelist Correct Answer: A Reference: https://support.symantec.com/us/en/article.HOWTO128772.html
QUESTION 12 Which National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) cybersecurity function includes Risk Assessment or Risk Management Strategy? A. Recover B. Protect C. Respond D. Identify Correct Answer: D Reference: https://www.nist.gov/cyberframework/online-learning/five-functions
250-101 : Symantec small Business security 231 Q&As Updated: Apr 28, 2020 250-215 : Administration of Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5 102 Q&As Updated: Apr 28, 2020 250-222 : Implementation of High Availability Solutions for UNIX using Veritas Cluster Server 4.0 145 Q&As Updated: May 04, 2020 250-223 : Data Protection Administration for UNIX using NBU 5.0 208 Q&As Updated: Apr 28, 2020 250-240 : Administration of Storage Foundation 4.0 for UNIX 133 Q&As Updated: Apr 28, 2020 250-250 : Administration of Storage Foundation 5.0 for UNIX 199 Q&As Updated: Apr 28, 2020 250-251 : Administration of HA Solutions for UNIX (VCS 5.0) 208 Q&As Updated: Apr 28, 2020 250-252 : Administration of Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for Unix 109 Q&As Updated: May 04, 2020 250-253 : Administration of Veritas Cluster Server 6.0 for Unix 108 Q&As Updated: May 04, 2020
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QUESTION 1 Which object can an administrator add to an organizational group? A. User B. Report C. Policy D. Data class Correct Answer: A Organization is added as a member of the Organization Management role group. This account can then add other members to the role group as needed. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/organizationmanagement-exchange-2013-help
QUESTION 2 An administrator has been notified that a new office location will be opening within a few weeks. The office is a large site that will have 8,000 managed endpoints. The data center is located in Lindon, Utah and the office is located in Houston, Texas. What is the minimum number of site servers needed to support the new office location? A. Four site servers B. Two site servers C. One site server D. Three site servers Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 A large organization wants to stagger the installation of software updates with computers in different organizational groups by installing the updates on different days. How can an administrator accomplish this without continually creating separate software update policies that target the different organizational groups? A. Configure Site Management settings so that each organizational group downloads the software update installation files from a different package server B. Create clones of the Default Software Update Plug-in Policy and modify the target in each policy C. Configure an automation policy that periodically disables the Software Update Plug-in by organizational group D. Create clones of the Windows Patch Remediation Settings and modify the target in each policy Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 With what Service and Asset Management configuration item must an asset be associated to accurately assess its value? A. Cost Center B. Accounting Code C. Depreciation Schedule D. Owner Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 When investigating Driver Management Issues in Deployment Solution, an administrator tries to import a known working driver named NIC_Intel_C8121.CAB, but the Driver Manager stalls and becomes non-responsive after 5 minutes. What is the cause of the program stalling? A. Driver manifest files are too large B. Corrupt or missing driver manifest files C. CAB\\’s or EXE\\’s are not supported D. CAB\\’s or EXE\\’s are supported but take longer to import Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 A corporate president has decided to centralize management of operating system updates after a virus spread through the corporate network. The president requires the ability to create reports about which updates have been deployed, which updates are still needed, and other information that will demonstrate the security of the network. Which two (2) features of IT Management Suite 8.1 provide all of the required functionality? (Choose two.) A. IT Analytics B. Patch Management Solution C. Software Management Solution D. Inventory Solution E. Monitor Solution Correct Answer: BD Reference: https://www.symantec.com/content/dam/symantec/docs/data-sheets/it-management-suite-en.pdf
QUESTION 7 What task, if completed, will likely fix many of the performance related issues an administrator may experience in an IT Management Suite implementation, when solving database performance related issues? A. Implement a MS SQL Server Performance plan B. Implement a MS SQL Server Defragmentation plan C. Implement a MS SQL Server Optimization plan D. Implement a MS SQL Server Maintenance plan Correct Answer: D Reference: https://support.symantec.com/us/en/article.guides10103.html
QUESTION 9 An administrator needs to create an image that can be used for a mass deployment in the company. Which Deployment Solution task should the administrator perform before creating the image? A. Run the Deploy Sysprep task before cloning B. Run the Prepare for Image Capture task before cloning C. Run SIDGen to prepare the image for deployment D. Run the Capture Personality task before cloning Correct Answer: B Reference: https://www.symantec.com/connect/forums/deploy-image-windows-10
QUESTION 10 An administrator is tasked with implementing an IT Management Suite 8.1 solution that will centrally manage 30,000 endpoints. Which is the best architecture to support this environment? A. Single Notification Server B. 1 x 6 Hierarchy C. 1 x 2 Hierarchy D. Two standalone Notification Servers Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 An administrator needs to quickly deploy Windows 7 to several new computers without pre-configured operating systems. The administrator decides to use an existing Ghost image since the necessary drivers have already been added to the DeployAnywhere database. The Network Boot Services configuration is set to respond only to known computers. How should the administrator proceed? A. Configure NBS to respond to a known list of MAC addresses and deploy the images only to the new systems. B. Deploy an Automation Folder to the new computers to prepare them for imaging. C. Import the list of new computers into the Management Console and assign an imaging task. D. Use an Initial Deployment Event to distribute the image as the computers boot to the network. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 Which item is available in the “Package Options” section of a software update policy? A. Shut down computer after remediation B. Allow immediate restart if required C. Delay until the next software update cycle D. Log off user after remediation Correct Answer: B Software Update policy “Package Options” here. Would you please advise if I should uncheck the “Allow immediate restart if required”. Reference: https://www.symantec.com/connect/forums/swu-policy-package-options-allow-immediaterestart
QUESTION 13 Which two (2) IT Management Suite 8.1 features should an administrator use in order to display an alert if a specified metric indicates a problem on a server? (Choose two.) A. Event Console B. Event policy C. Monitor policy D. Notification rule E. Automation rule Correct Answer: AC Reference: https://support.symantec.com/us/en/article.doc9587.html#403
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QUESTION 40
Your company has a main office and two branch offices. The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. In the main office, you have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is configured to use an IPv4 address only. You need to assign an IPv6 address to Server1. The IP address must be private and routable. Which IPv6 address should you assign to Server1?
A. fe80:ab32:145c::32cc:401b
B. ff00:3fff:65df:145c:dca8::82a4
C. 2001:ab32:145c::32cc:401b
D. fd00:ab32:14:ad88:ac:58:abc2:4
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 41
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All client computers run Windows 8.
You deploy a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You install a new client-server application named App1 on Server1 and on the client
computers.
The client computers must use TCP port 6444 to connect to App1 on Server1. Server1 publishes the information of App1 to an intranet server named Server2 by
using TCP port 3080. You need to ensure that all of the client computers can connect to App1. The solution must ensure that the application can connect to
Server2.
Which Windows Firewall rule should you create on Server1?
A. an inbound rule to allow a connection to TCP port 3080
B. an outbound rule to allow a connection to TCP port 3080
C. an outbound rule to allow a connection to TCP port 6444
D. an inbound rule to allow a connection to TCP port 6444
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
The domain contains a server named Server1.
You install the Windows PowerShell Web Access gateway on Server1. You need to provide administrators with the ability to manage the servers in the domain by
using the Windows PowerShell Web Access gateway.
Which two cmdlets should you run on Server1? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Set-WSManQuickConfig
B. Set-WSManInstance
C. Add-PswaAuthorizationRule
D. Set-BCAuthentication
E. Install-PswaWebApplication
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 43
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All user accounts in the sales department reside in an organizational unit (OU) named
OU1. You have a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1. GPO1 is used to deploy a logon script to all of the users in the sales department.
You discover that the logon script does not run when the sales users log on to their computers.
You open Group Policy Management as shown in the exhibit.
You need to ensure that the logon script in GPO1 is applied to the sales users. What should you do?
A. Enforce GPO1.
B. Modify the link order of GPO1.
C. Modify the Delegation settings of GPO1.
D. Enable the link of GPO1.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
You have a server named Server 1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server 1 has the Hyper-V server role installed.
You have fixed-size VHD named Files.vhd.
You need to make the contents in Files.vhd available to several virtual machines. The solution must meet the following requirements:
-Ensure that if the contents are changed on any virtual machine, the changes are not reflected on the other virtual machines.
-Minimize the amount of disk space used.
What should you do?
A. Create a fixed-size VHDX. Transfer the information from Files.vhd to the new VHDX file.
B. Convert Files.vhd to a dynamically expanding VHD?
C. Create a dynamically expanding VHDX. Transfer the information from Files.vhd to the new VHDX file.
D. Create differencing VHDs that use Files.vhd as the parent disk.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 45
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains several thousand member servers that run Windows Server 2012
R2. All of the computers account for the member servers are in an organizational unit (OU) named ServersAccounts.
Servers are restarted only occasionally.
You need to identify which servers were restarted during the last two days.
What should you do?
A. Run dsquery computer and specify the -stalepwd parameter
B. Run dsquery server and specify the -o parameter.
C. Run Get-ADComputer and specify the last login property.
D. Run Get-ADComputer and specify the SearchScope parameter
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 46
Your network contains three servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The servers are configured as shown in the following table (click Exhibit). Server3 is
configured to obtain an IP address automatically.
You need to ensure that Server3 only receives an IP address from Server1. The IP address must always be the same.
Which two tasks should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Create an exclusion on Server1.
B. Create a filter on Server1.
C. Create a reservation on Server2
D. Create a reservation on Server1
E. Create a filter on Server2.
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 47
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2
and a client computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 8. DC1 is configured as a DHCP server as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) Computer1
is configured to obtain an IP address automatically. You need to ensure that Computer1 can receive an IP address from DC1.
What should you do?
A. Disable the Allow filters.
B. Disable the Deny filters
C. Activate Scope [10.1.1.0] Contoso.com.
D. Authorize dc1.contoso.com.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 48
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named Server1 that has the DNS Server server
role installed. Server1 hosts a primary zone for contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server2 that is configured to use Server1 as its
primary DNS server. From Server2, you run nslookup.exe as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You need to ensure that when you run Nslookup, the correct name of the default server is displayed.
What should you do?
A. From Advanced TCP/IP Settings on Server1, add contoso.com to the DNS suffix list
B. On Server1, modify the Security settings of the contoso.com zone
C. On Server1, create a reverse lookup zone.
D. From Advanced TCP/IP Settings on Server2, add contoso.com to the DNS suffix list
Correct Answer: C
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Question No: 1
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named Contoso. com. The forest contains a Network Policy Server (NPS) server named NPS1 and a VPN server named VPN1. 70-411 exam
VPN1 forwards all authentication requests to NPS1.
A partner company has an Active Directory forest named datum. com. The datum. com forest contains an NPS server named NPS2.
You plan to grant users from a datum. com VPN access to your network.
You need to authenticate the users from a datum. com on VPN1.
What should you create on each NPS server?
To answer, drag the appropriate objects to the correct NPS servers. Each object may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Answer:
Question No: 2 70-411 exam
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named Contoso. com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 has the following role services installed:
DirectAccess and VPN (RRAS)
Network Policy Server
Remote users have client computers that run either Windows XP, Windows 7, or Windows 8.
You need to ensure that only the client computers that run Windows 7 or Windows 8 can establish VPN connections to Server1.
What should you configure on Server1?
A. A condition of a Network Policy Server (NPS) network policy
B. A constraint of a Network Policy Server (NPS) network policy
C. a condition of a Network Policy Server (NPS) connection request policy
D. A vendor-specific RADIUS attribute of a Network Policy Server (NPS) connection
request policy
Answer: A
Explanation:
If you want to configure the Operating System condition, click Operating System, and then click Add. In Operating System Properties, click Add, and then specify the operating system settings that are required to match the policy.
The Operating System condition specifies the operating system (operating system version or service pack number), role (client or server), and architecture (x86, x64, or ia64) required for the computer configuration to match the policy.
Question No : 3
You are a network administrator of an Active Directory domain named Contoso. com.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the DHCP Server server role and the Network Policy Server role service installed. 70-411 exam
You enable Network Access Protection (NAP) on all of the DHCP scopes on Server1.
You need to create a DHCP policy that will apply to all of the NAP non-compliant DHCP clients.
Which criteria should you specify when you create the DHCP policy?
A. The client identifier
B. The user class
C. The vendor class
D. The relay agent information
Answer: B
Explanation:
To configure a NAP-enabled DHCP server
On the DHCP server, click Start, click Run, in Open, type dhcpmgmt. SMC, and then press ENTER.
In the DHCP console, open \IPv4.
Right-click the name of the DHCP scope that you will use for NAP client computers, and then click Properties.
On the Network Access Protection tab, under Network Access Protection Settings, choose to Enable for this scope, verify that Use default Network Access Protection profile is selected, and then click OK.
In the DHCP console tree, under the DHCP scope that you have selected, right-click Scope Options, and then click Configure Options.
On the Advanced tab, verify that Default User Class is selected next to User class.
Select the 003 Router check box, and 70-411 exam in IP Address, under Data entry, type the IP address for the default gateway used by compliant NAP client computers and then click Add.
Select the 006 DNS Servers checkbox, and in IP Address, under Data entry, type the IP address for each router to be used by compliant NAP client computers, and then click Add.
Select the 015 DNS Domain Name checkbox, and in String value, under Data entry, type your organization’s domain name (for example, woodgrovebank. local), and then click Apply. This domain is a full-access network assigned to compliant NAP clients.
On the Advanced tab, next to User class, choose Default Network Access Protection Class.
Select the 003 Router checkbox, and in IP Address, under Data entry, type the IP address for the default gateway used by noncompliant NAP client computers, and then click Add. This can be the same default gateway that is used by compliant NAP clients.
Select the 006 DNS Servers checkbox, and in IP Address, under Data entry, type the IP address for each DNS server to be used by noncompliant NAP client computers, and then click Add. These can be the same DNS servers used by compliant NAP clients.
Select the 015 DNS Domain Name checkbox, and in String value, under Data entry, type a name to identify the restricted domain (for example, restricted. Woodgrovebank. local), and then click OK. This domain is a restricted-access network assigned to noncompliant NAP clients. Click OK to close the Scope Options dialog box. Close the DHCP console.
Question No: 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named Contoso. com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the Network Policy Server role service installed.
An administrator creates a RADIUS client template named Template1.
You create a RADIUS client named Client1 by using Template 1.
You need to modify the shared secret for Client1.
What should you do first?
A. Configure the Advanced settings of Template1.
B. Set the Shared secret setting of Template1 to Manual.
C. Clear Enable this RADIUS client for Client1.
D. Clear Select an existing template for Client1.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Clear checkmark for Select an existing template in the new client wizard.
In New RADIUS Client, in Shared secret, do one of the following:
Bullet Ensure that Manual is selected, and then in Shared secret, type the 70-411 exam strong password that is also entered on the RADIUS client. Retype the shared secret in Confirm shared secret.
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Exam Code:70-761
Exam Name: Querying Data with Transact-SQL (beta)
Q&As: 59
QUESTION NO: 1 What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <set>
#include <vector>
using namespace std;
int main(){
int t[] ={ 3, 4, 2, 1, 6, 5, 7, 9, 8, 0 };
vector<int>v(t, t+10);
multiset<int> s1(v.begin(),v.end());
s1.insert(v.begin(),v.end());
pair<multiset<int>::iterator,multiset<int>::iterator> range;
range = s1.equal_range(6);
while (range.first != range.second) {
cout<<*range.first<<” “; range.first++;
}
return 0;
} A. program outputs: 6 6 B. program outputs: 5 7 C. program outputs: 5 5 6 6 7 7 D. program outputs: 5 5 7 7 E. program outputs: 1 1 6 6 5 5
70-761 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 2 What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
using namespace std;
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator()(const T & val ) {
out<<val<<” “;
}
};
struct Sequence {
int start;
Sequence(int start):start(start){}
int operator()() {
return start++ ; }};
int main() {
vector<int> v1(10);
generate(v1.rbegin(), v1.rend(), Sequence(1));
rotate(v1.begin(),v1.begin() + 1, v1.end() );
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), Out<int>(cout) );cout<<endl;
return 0;
} Program outputs: A. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 B. 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 C. 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 10 D. 1 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 3 What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <fstream>
#include <string>
#include <list>
#include <algorithm>
#include <iomanip>
using namespace std;
class B { int val;
public:
B(int v=0):val(v){}
int getV() const {return val;}
operator int() const { return val; };};
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) {out<<setw(3)<<hex<<val; } }; int main () {
int t[] = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10};
fstream f(“test.out”, ios::trunc|ios::out);
list<B> l(t, t+10);
for_each(l.begin(), l.end(), Out<B>(f));
f.close();
f.open(“test.out”);
for( ; f.good() ; ) {
B i;
f>>i;
cout<<i<<” “;
}
f.close();
return 0;
} A. file test.out will be opened writing B. file test.out will be truncated C. file test.out will be opened for reading D. compilation error E. program will display sequence 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 70-761 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 4 What will happen when you attempt to compile and run the code below, assuming that you enter
the following sequence: one two three<enter>?
#include <iostream> #include <string>
using namespace std;
int main ()
{
string a;
cin>>a;
cout<<a<<endl;
return 0;
}
The program will output: A. one B. one two three C. runtime exception D. compilation error E. the result is unspecified Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 5 What will happen when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <map>
#include <vector>
#include <sstream>
#include <string>
using namespace std; int main() {
int t[] = { 3, 4, 2, 1, 0, 3, 4, 1, 2, 0 };
vector<int> v(t, t + 10);
multimap<int, string> m;
for (vector<int>::iterator i = v.begin(); i != v.end(); i++) {
stringstream s;s << *i << *i;
m.insert(pair<int, string>(*i, s.str()));
}
pair<multimap<int, string>::iterator, multimap<int, string>::iterator> range;
range = m.equal_range(2);
for (multimap<int, string>::iterator i = range.first; i != range.second; i++) {
cout << i?>first << ” “;
}
return 0;
}
The output will be: A. 2 2 B. 1 2 C. 1 3 D. 2 E. 0 2
70-761 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 6 What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code? #include <vector>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
using namespace std;
class B { int val;
public:
B(int v):val(v){}
int getV() const {return val;} bool operator < (const B & v) const { return val>v.val;} };
ostream & operator <<(ostream & out, const B & v) { out<<v.getV(); return out;}
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) { out<<val<<” “; } };
int main() {
B t1[]={3,2,4,1,5};
B t2[]={5,6,8,2,1};
vector<B> v1(10,0);
sort(t1, t1+5);
sort(t2, t2+5);
set_intersection(t1,t1+5,t2,t2+5,v1.begin());
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), Out<B>(cout));cout<<endl;
return 0;
}
Program outputs: A. compilation error B. 1 2 3 4 5 6 8 0 0 0 C. 1 2 3 4 5 6 8 2 1 0 D. 5 2 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 E. 1 2 5 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 7 What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <list>
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main ()
{
int t[] = {1, 2 ,3 ,4 ,5};
vector<int>v1(t, t+5);
list<int>l1;
l1.assign(v1.end(), v1.begin());
for(int i=0; i<l1.size(); i++)
{
cout<<l1.at(i)<<” “;
}
cout<<endl;
return 0;
} A. program displays 5 4 3 2 1 B. program displays 1 2 3 4 5 C. compilation error D. segmentation fault runtime exception
70-761 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 8 What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
using namespace std;
class B { int val;
public:
B(int v):val(v){}
int getV() const {return val;} bool operator < (const B & v) const { return val<v.val;} };
ostream & operator <<(ostream & out, const B & v) { out<<v.getV(); return out;}
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) { out<<val<<” “; } };
int main() {
B t1[]={3,2,4,1,5};
B t2[]={6,10,8,7,9}; vector<B> v1(10);
sort(t1, t1+5);
sort(t2, t2+5);
merge(t1,t1+5,t2,t2+5,v1.begin());
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), Out<B>(cout));cout<<endl;
return 0;
}
Program outputs: A. 1 2 3 4 5 6 10 8 7 9 B. 3 2 4 1 5 6 7 8 9 10 C. 3 2 4 1 5 6 10 8 7 9 D. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 E. compilation error Answer: E
QUESTION NO: 9 Which sentence is correct about the code below?
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <vector>
using namespace std;
class A {
int a;
public:
A(int a) : a(a) {}
int getA() const { return a; } void setA(int a) { this?>a = a; }
/* Insert Code Here */
};
struct add10 { void operator()(A & a) { a.setA(a.getA() + 10); } };
int main() {
int t[] = { 10, 5, 9, 6, 2, 4, 7, 8, 3, 1 };
vector<A> v1(t, t + 10);
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), add10());
vector<A>::iterator it = find(v1.begin(), v1.end(), A(7));
cout << it?>getA() << endl;
return 0;
} A. it will compile and print 7 B. it will not compile C. it will compile but the program result is unpredictable D. adding code:
bool operator !=(const A & b) const {
if (this?>a != b.a) { return true; } return false; }
at Place 1 will allow the program to compile
70-761 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10 What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm> #include <vector>
using namespace std;
void myfunction(int i) {
cout << ” ” << i;
}
void multiply (int a) {
a*2;
}
int main() {
int t[] = { 10, 5, 9, 6, 2, 4, 7, 8, 3, 1 };
vector<int> v1(t, t+10);
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), multiply);
iter_swap(v1.begin(),t+9);
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), myfunction);
return 0;
}
Program outputs: A. 1 5 9 6 2 4 7 8 3 1 B. compilation error C. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 D. 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 E. 10 5 9 6 2 4 7 8 3 1 Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 11 What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
using namespace std;
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) { out<<val<<” “; } };
int main() {
int t[]={3,2,4,1,5,10,9,7,8,6};
vector<int> v1(t,t+10);
cout<<*max_element(v1.begin(), v1.end());
return 0;
}
Program outputs: A. 3 B. 1 C. 6 D. 10 E. compilation error 70-761 dumpsAnswer: D
QUESTION NO: 12 What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
using namespace std;
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) { out<<val<<” “; } };
int main() {
int t1[]={3,2,4,1,5};
int t2[]={5,6,8,2,1};
vector<int> v1(10);
sort(t1, t1+5);
sort(t2, t2+5);
set_intersection(t1,t1+5,t2,t2+5,v1.begin());
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), Out<int>(cout));cout<<endl;
return 0;
}
Program outputs: A. compilation error B. 1 2 3 4 5 6 8 0 0 0 C. 1 2 3 4 5 6 8 2 1 0 D. 1 1 2 2 3 4 5 5 6 8 E. 1 2 5 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 Answer: E
QUESTION NO: 13 What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <vector>
#include <deque>
#include <set>
using namespace std;
void myfunction(int i) {
cout << ” ” << i;
}
int main() {
int t[] = { 10, 5, 9, 6, 2, 4, 7, 8, 3, 1 };
vector<int> v1(t, t + 10);
deque<int> d1(t, t + 10);
set<int> s1(t, t + 10);
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), myfunction); // Line I
for_each(d1.begin(), d1.end(), myfunction); // Line II
for_each(s1.begin(), s1.end(), myfunction); // Line III return 0;
} A. program outputs: 10 5 9 6 2 4 7 8 3 1 10 5 9 6 2 4 7 8 3 1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 B. program outputs: 10 5 9 6 2 4 7 8 3 1 10 5 9 6 2 4 7 8 3 1 10 5 9 6 2 4 7 8 3 1 C. program outputs: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 D. compilation error in line I E. compilation error in line III
70-761 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 14 What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <map>
using namespace std;
int main() {
int t[] = { 10, 5, 9, 6, 2, 4, 7, 8, 3, 1 };
map<int, int> m;
for(int i=0; i < 10; i++) {
m[i]=t[i];
}
pair<const int,int> p(5,5);
map<int, int>::iterator it = find(m.begin(), m.end(), p);
if (it != m.end())
{ cout<<it?>first<<endl;
}
else
{
cout<<“Not found!n”;
}
return 0;
}
Program outputs: A. 5 B. Not found! C. 10 D. compilation error Answer: B QUESTION NO: 15 What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <vector>
#include <set>
using namespace std;
void myfunction(int i) {
cout << ” ” << i;
} int main() {
int t[] = { 10, 5, 9, 6, 2, 4, 7, 8, 3, 1 };
set<int> s1(t, t+10);
vector<int> v1(s1.rbegin(), s1.rend());
swap_ranges(s1.begin(), s1.end(), v1.begin());
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), myfunction);
for_each(s1.begin(), s1.end(), myfunction);
return 0;
}
Program outputs: A. 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 B. compilation error C. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 D. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 E. 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
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