[2020 New Version] Latest Microsoft 70-411 Exam Questions And Youtube Online Free Demo

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Question No: 1
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named Contoso. com. The forest contains a Network Policy Server (NPS) server named NPS1 and a VPN server named VPN1. 70-411 exam
VPN1 forwards all authentication requests to NPS1.
A partner company has an Active Directory forest named datum. com. The datum. com forest contains an NPS server named NPS2.
You plan to grant users from a datum. com VPN access to your network.
You need to authenticate the users from a datum. com on VPN1.
What should you create on each NPS server?
To answer, drag the appropriate objects to the correct NPS servers. Each object may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
70-411 exam
Answer:
70-411 exam
Question No: 2 70-411 exam
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named Contoso. com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 has the following role services installed:
DirectAccess and VPN (RRAS)
Network Policy Server
Remote users have client computers that run either Windows XP, Windows 7, or Windows 8.
You need to ensure that only the client computers that run Windows 7 or Windows 8 can establish VPN connections to Server1.
What should you configure on Server1?
A. A condition of a Network Policy Server (NPS) network policy
B. A constraint of a Network Policy Server (NPS) network policy
C. a condition of a Network Policy Server (NPS) connection request policy
D. A vendor-specific RADIUS attribute of a Network Policy Server (NPS) connection
request policy
Answer: A

Explanation:
If you want to configure the Operating System condition, click Operating System, and then click Add. In Operating System Properties, click Add, and then specify the operating system settings that are required to match the policy.
The Operating System condition specifies the operating system (operating system version or service pack number), role (client or server), and architecture (x86, x64, or ia64) required for the computer configuration to match the policy.

Question No : 3
You are a network administrator of an Active Directory domain named Contoso. com.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the DHCP Server server role and the Network Policy Server role service installed. 70-411 exam
You enable Network Access Protection (NAP) on all of the DHCP scopes on Server1.
You need to create a DHCP policy that will apply to all of the NAP non-compliant DHCP clients.
Which criteria should you specify when you create the DHCP policy?
A. The client identifier
B. The user class
C. The vendor class
D. The relay agent information
Answer: B

Explanation:
To configure a NAP-enabled DHCP server
On the DHCP server, click Start, click Run, in Open, type dhcpmgmt. SMC, and then press ENTER.
In the DHCP console, open \IPv4.
Right-click the name of the DHCP scope that you will use for NAP client computers, and then click Properties.
On the Network Access Protection tab, under Network Access Protection Settings, choose to Enable for this scope, verify that Use default Network Access Protection profile is selected, and then click OK.
In the DHCP console tree, under the DHCP scope that you have selected, right-click Scope Options, and then click Configure Options.
On the Advanced tab, verify that Default User Class is selected next to User class.
Select the 003 Router check box, and 70-411 exam in IP Address, under Data entry, type the IP address for the default gateway used by compliant NAP client computers and then click Add.
Select the 006 DNS Servers checkbox, and in IP Address, under Data entry, type the IP address for each router to be used by compliant NAP client computers, and then click Add.
Select the 015 DNS Domain Name checkbox, and in String value, under Data entry, type your organization’s domain name (for example, woodgrovebank. local), and then click Apply. This domain is a full-access network assigned to compliant NAP clients.
On the Advanced tab, next to User class, choose Default Network Access Protection Class.
Select the 003 Router checkbox, and in IP Address, under Data entry, type the IP address for the default gateway used by noncompliant NAP client computers, and then click Add. This can be the same default gateway that is used by compliant NAP clients.
Select the 006 DNS Servers checkbox, and in IP Address, under Data entry, type the IP address for each DNS server to be used by noncompliant NAP client computers, and then click Add. These can be the same DNS servers used by compliant NAP clients.
Select the 015 DNS Domain Name checkbox, and in String value, under Data entry, type a name to identify the restricted domain (for example, restricted. Woodgrovebank. local), and then click OK. This domain is a restricted-access network assigned to noncompliant NAP clients. Click OK to close the Scope Options dialog box. Close the DHCP console.

Question No: 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named Contoso. com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the Network Policy Server role service installed.
An administrator creates a RADIUS client template named Template1.
You create a RADIUS client named Client1 by using Template 1.
You need to modify the shared secret for Client1.
What should you do first?
A. Configure the Advanced settings of Template1.
B. Set the Shared secret setting of Template1 to Manual.
C. Clear Enable this RADIUS client for Client1.
D. Clear Select an existing template for Client1.
Answer: D

Explanation:
Clear checkmark for Select an existing template in the new client wizard.
In New RADIUS Client, in Shared secret, do one of the following:
Bullet Ensure that Manual is selected, and then in Shared secret, type the 70-411 exam strong password that is also entered on the RADIUS client. Retype the shared secret in Confirm shared secret.

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[2020 New Version] First-hand Microsoft MCSA 70-761 Dumps Exam Download Try Free Demo for Microsoft Video Series 100% Pass With A High Score (From Google Drive)

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Exam Code: 70-761
Exam Name: Querying Data with Transact-SQL (beta)
Q&As: 59

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70-761 dumps

QUESTION NO: 1
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <set>
#include <vector>
using namespace std;
int main(){
int t[] ={ 3, 4, 2, 1, 6, 5, 7, 9, 8, 0 };
vector<int>v(t, t+10);
multiset<int> s1(v.begin(),v.end());
s1.insert(v.begin(),v.end());
pair<multiset<int>::iterator,multiset<int>::iterator> range;
range = s1.equal_range(6);
while (range.first != range.second) {
cout<<*range.first<<” “; range.first++;
}
return 0;
}
A. program outputs: 6 6
B. program outputs: 5 7
C. program outputs: 5 5 6 6 7 7
D. program outputs: 5 5 7 7
E. program outputs: 1 1 6 6 5 5
70-761 exam Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
using namespace std;
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator()(const T & val ) {
out<<val<<” “;
}
};
struct Sequence {
int start;
Sequence(int start):start(start){}
int operator()() {
return start++ ; }};
int main() {
vector<int> v1(10);
generate(v1.rbegin(), v1.rend(), Sequence(1));
rotate(v1.begin(),v1.begin() + 1, v1.end() );
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), Out<int>(cout) );cout<<endl;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B. 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
C. 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 10
D. 1 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <fstream>
#include <string>
#include <list>
#include <algorithm>
#include <iomanip>
using namespace std;
class B { int val;
public:
B(int v=0):val(v){}
int getV() const {return val;}
operator int() const { return val; };};
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) {out<<setw(3)<<hex<<val; } }; int main () {
int t[] = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10};
fstream f(“test.out”, ios::trunc|ios::out);
list<B> l(t, t+10);
for_each(l.begin(), l.end(), Out<B>(f));
f.close();
f.open(“test.out”);
for( ; f.good() ; ) {
B i;
f>>i;
cout<<i<<” “;
}
f.close();
return 0;
}
A. file test.out will be opened writing
B. file test.out will be truncated
C. file test.out will be opened for reading
D. compilation error
E. program will display sequence 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
70-761 dumps Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4
What will happen when you attempt to compile and run the code below, assuming that you enter
the following sequence: one two three<enter>?
#include <iostream>
#include <string>
using namespace std;
int main ()
{
string a;
cin>>a;
cout<<a<<endl;
return 0;
}
The program will output:
A. one
B. one two three
C. runtime exception
D. compilation error
E. the result is unspecified
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5
What will happen when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <map>
#include <vector>
#include <sstream>
#include <string>
using namespace std;
int main() {
int t[] = { 3, 4, 2, 1, 0, 3, 4, 1, 2, 0 };
vector<int> v(t, t + 10);
multimap<int, string> m;
for (vector<int>::iterator i = v.begin(); i != v.end(); i++) {
stringstream s;s << *i << *i;
m.insert(pair<int, string>(*i, s.str()));
}
pair<multimap<int, string>::iterator, multimap<int, string>::iterator> range;
range = m.equal_range(2);
for (multimap<int, string>::iterator i = range.first; i != range.second; i++) {
cout << i?>first << ” “;
}
return 0;
}
The output will be:
A. 2 2
B. 1 2
C. 1 3
D. 2
E. 0 2
70-761 pdf Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 6
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
using namespace std;
class B { int val;
public:
B(int v):val(v){}
int getV() const {return val;} bool operator < (const B & v) const { return val>v.val;} };
ostream & operator <<(ostream & out, const B & v) { out<<v.getV(); return out;}
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) { out<<val<<” “; } };
int main() {
B t1[]={3,2,4,1,5};
B t2[]={5,6,8,2,1};
vector<B> v1(10,0);
sort(t1, t1+5);
sort(t2, t2+5);
set_intersection(t1,t1+5,t2,t2+5,v1.begin());
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), Out<B>(cout));cout<<endl;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. compilation error
B. 1 2 3 4 5 6 8 0 0 0
C. 1 2 3 4 5 6 8 2 1 0
D. 5 2 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
E. 1 2 5 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 7
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <list>
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main ()
{
int t[] = {1, 2 ,3 ,4 ,5};
vector<int>v1(t, t+5);
list<int>l1;
l1.assign(v1.end(), v1.begin());
for(int i=0; i<l1.size(); i++)
{
cout<<l1.at(i)<<” “;
}
cout<<endl;
return 0;
}
A. program displays 5 4 3 2 1
B. program displays 1 2 3 4 5
C. compilation error
D. segmentation fault runtime exception
70-761 vce Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 8
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
using namespace std;
class B { int val;
public:
B(int v):val(v){}
int getV() const {return val;} bool operator < (const B & v) const { return val<v.val;} };
ostream & operator <<(ostream & out, const B & v) { out<<v.getV(); return out;}
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) { out<<val<<” “; } };
int main() {
B t1[]={3,2,4,1,5};
B t2[]={6,10,8,7,9};
vector<B> v1(10);
sort(t1, t1+5);
sort(t2, t2+5);
merge(t1,t1+5,t2,t2+5,v1.begin());
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), Out<B>(cout));cout<<endl;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 1 2 3 4 5 6 10 8 7 9
B. 3 2 4 1 5 6 7 8 9 10
C. 3 2 4 1 5 6 10 8 7 9
D. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
E. compilation error
Answer: E

QUESTION NO: 9
Which sentence is correct about the code below?
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <vector>
using namespace std;
class A {
int a;
public:
A(int a) : a(a) {}
int getA() const { return a; }
void setA(int a) { this?>a = a; }
/* Insert Code Here */
};
struct add10 { void operator()(A & a) { a.setA(a.getA() + 10); } };
int main() {
int t[] = { 10, 5, 9, 6, 2, 4, 7, 8, 3, 1 };
vector<A> v1(t, t + 10);
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), add10());
vector<A>::iterator it = find(v1.begin(), v1.end(), A(7));
cout << it?>getA() << endl;
return 0;
}
A. it will compile and print 7
B. it will not compile
C. it will compile but the program result is unpredictable
D. adding code:
bool operator !=(const A & b) const {
if (this?>a != b.a) { return true; } return false; }
at Place 1 will allow the program to compile
70-761 exam Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 10
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <vector>
using namespace std;
void myfunction(int i) {
cout << ” ” << i;
}
void multiply (int a) {
a*2;
}
int main() {
int t[] = { 10, 5, 9, 6, 2, 4, 7, 8, 3, 1 };
vector<int> v1(t, t+10);
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), multiply);
iter_swap(v1.begin(),t+9);
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), myfunction);
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 1 5 9 6 2 4 7 8 3 1
B. compilation error
C. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D. 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
E. 10 5 9 6 2 4 7 8 3 1
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 11
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
using namespace std;
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) { out<<val<<” “; } };
int main() {
int t[]={3,2,4,1,5,10,9,7,8,6};
vector<int> v1(t,t+10);
cout<<*max_element(v1.begin(), v1.end());
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 3
B. 1
C. 6
D. 10
E. compilation error
70-761 dumps Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 12
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
using namespace std;
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) { out<<val<<” “; } };
int main() {
int t1[]={3,2,4,1,5};
int t2[]={5,6,8,2,1};
vector<int> v1(10);
sort(t1, t1+5);
sort(t2, t2+5);
set_intersection(t1,t1+5,t2,t2+5,v1.begin());
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), Out<int>(cout));cout<<endl;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. compilation error
B. 1 2 3 4 5 6 8 0 0 0
C. 1 2 3 4 5 6 8 2 1 0
D. 1 1 2 2 3 4 5 5 6 8
E. 1 2 5 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
Answer: E

QUESTION NO: 13
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <vector>
#include <deque>
#include <set>
using namespace std;
void myfunction(int i) {
cout << ” ” << i;
}
int main() {
int t[] = { 10, 5, 9, 6, 2, 4, 7, 8, 3, 1 };
vector<int> v1(t, t + 10);
deque<int> d1(t, t + 10);
set<int> s1(t, t + 10);
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), myfunction); // Line I
for_each(d1.begin(), d1.end(), myfunction); // Line II
for_each(s1.begin(), s1.end(), myfunction); // Line III
return 0;
}
A. program outputs: 10 5 9 6 2 4 7 8 3 1 10 5 9 6 2 4 7 8 3 1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B. program outputs: 10 5 9 6 2 4 7 8 3 1 10 5 9 6 2 4 7 8 3 1 10 5 9 6 2 4 7 8 3 1
C. program outputs: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D. compilation error in line I
E. compilation error in line III
70-761 pdf Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 14
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <map>
using namespace std;
int main() {
int t[] = { 10, 5, 9, 6, 2, 4, 7, 8, 3, 1 };
map<int, int> m;
for(int i=0; i < 10; i++) {
m[i]=t[i];
}
pair<const int,int> p(5,5);
map<int, int>::iterator it = find(m.begin(), m.end(), p);
if (it != m.end())
{
cout<<it?>first<<endl;
}
else
{
cout<<“Not found!n”;
}
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 5
B. Not found!
C. 10
D. compilation error
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <vector>
#include <set>
using namespace std;
void myfunction(int i) {
cout << ” ” << i;
}
int main() {
int t[] = { 10, 5, 9, 6, 2, 4, 7, 8, 3, 1 };
set<int> s1(t, t+10);
vector<int> v1(s1.rbegin(), s1.rend());
swap_ranges(s1.begin(), s1.end(), v1.begin());
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), myfunction);
for_each(s1.begin(), s1.end(), myfunction);
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B. compilation error
C. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
E. 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1

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SAP C_HANATEC_10 Exam Guide, First-hand SAP C_HANATEC_10 Answers Is Your Best Choice

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New VCE and PDF– If you want to pass the SAP C_HANATEC_10 exam successfully, do not miss testing Cisco’s latest SAP C_HANATEC_10 dumps. All Cisco 642-521 the new questions and answers were timely added, visit Flydumps.com to free download VCE player and PDF files.

QUESTION 1
Which of the following memory indicators can you reset to measure the impact of a new workload on
memory usage?
Please choose the correct answer.
Response:

A. Virtual memory
B. Used memory
C. Peak used memory
D. Resident memory
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
Which of the following must you implement for high availability in an SAP HANA production system?
There are 3 correct answers to this question.
Response:

A. A name server on one active node
B. Index server processes on all nodes
C. Shared file system for all nodes
D. Data replication to the standby nodes
E. A statistics server on one active node

Correct Answer: BCE QUESTION 3
Which tool do you use for complex data transformation of SAP ERP data?
Please choose the correct answer. Response:
A. Sybase Replication Server
B. SAP Landscape Transformation (SLT)
C. SAP BusinessObjects Explorer
D. SAP BusinessObjects Data Services

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 4
Which of the following update scenarios can be selected for execution in the SAP HANA lifecycle
manager?
There are 2 correct answers to this question.
Response:

A. Apply support package stacks
B. Update SAP HANA replication technologies components
C. Update SAP HANA lifecycle manager (HLM)
D. Update the SAP HANA studio on local machines Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is a result of using SAP HANA as an application platform?
Please choose the correct answer.
Response:

A. All database queries have a sub-second response time.
B. Aggregates in data models are only materialized when required.
C. Calculation-intensive logic is pushed down to the database.
D. The need for indexes is eliminated.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
What is the maximum number of master name servers that you can define in a distributed landscape?
Please choose the correct answer.
Response:

A. 8
B. 2
C. 3
D. 1
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 7
What is the minimum required disk space for the data volumes of an SAP HANA system in relation to its
memory (RAM)?
Please choose the correct answer.
Response:

A. 4 * RAM
B. 3 * RAM
C. 2 * RAM

D. 1 * RAM
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 8
Which of the following commands installs or updates the repository for SAP HANA studio? Please choose the correct answer.
Response:
A. hdbinst -a studio – -copy_repository=<target_repository_path>
B. hdbinst -a studio – -copy_repository=<source_repository_path>
C. hdbinst -a studio – -repository=<target_repository_path>
D. hdbinst -a studio – -repository=<source_repository_path>

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 9
Using SAP Landscape Transformation (SLT), you are replicating in real-time an SAP ERP system (source system) into an SAP HANA system.
How can you check whether the source system and SLT are synchronized?
There are 2 correct answers to this question.
Response:

A. By executing the ABAP program: SAPLATRA_TOOL_TIMES in SLT and the SAP ERP system
B. By comparing the system time of the operating systems in SLT and the SAP ERP system
C. By comparing entries in table TTZCU (Customizing time zones) in SLT and the SAP ERP system
D. By executing the ABAP program: TZCUSTHELP in SLT and the SAP ERP system

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 10
Which view in SAP HANA studio do you use to add additional users?
Please choose the correct answer.
Response:

A. Navigator view
B. Quick Launch view
C. Properties view
D. Console view

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
The log volume is full and the SAP HANA database does not accept any new requests. How can you solve
this problem and bring the SAP HANA database online?
Please choose the correct answer.
Response:

A. Delete older log files from the log volume before the last successful database backup.
B. Set the log_mode parameter to overwrite in global.ini.
C. Run “Delete older backups” in the Backup Catalog.
D. Move the log files to another volume and create a symbolic link to the new folder.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
Which of the following can decrease the startup time of an SAP HANA system after a reboot?
Please choose the correct answer.
Response:

A. Reducing the number of column tables in the database
B. Reducing the size of the transactional data records
C. Reducing the number of fields in the master data
D. Reducing the size of the row-based tables

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
Which of the following are recovery types in the SAP HANA database?
There are 2 correct answers to this question.
Response:

A. Recovery with incremental backup
B. Recovery until cancel
C. Full recovery
D. The point in time recovery

Correct Answer: CD

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QUESTION 14
You have to create an SAP HANA architecture that meets the following requirements:
–
Data provisioning is performed in batch mode
–
Data transformation is performed during the load step,

–
Reporting is run using analytic data models.
Which of the following scenarios would you implement?
Please choose the correct answer.
Response:
A.
An operational data mart
B.
SAP HANA as an application platform
C.
An SAP HANA accelerator
D.
An agile data mart
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 15
What information is presented when you check the license key?
Please choose the correct answer.
Response:

A. SAP HANA support package number
B. SAP HANA edition type
C. SAP HANA licensed memory amount
D. SAP HANA build number

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 16
Which of the following are advantages of using the SAP CO-PA accelerator?
There are 2 correct answers to this question.
Response:

A. Transforms data during the load step
B. Eliminates the need for customization
C. Provides business configuration D. Reduces reporting time

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 17
Which of the following commands stops the SAP HANA database?
Please choose the correct answer.
Response:

A. HDB stop
B. stopsaphdb
C. HDB -stop
D. stop HDB

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 18
Which of the following must you do in the SAP HANA studio to be able to use the Change and Transport
System(CTS)?
There are 2 correct answers to this question.
Response:

A. Create a delivery unit that contains all of the information models.
B. Create the HTTP connection CTSDEPLOY
C. Use a user who is authorized to attach SAP HANA content to transport requests.
D. Configure the connection to the CTS in the preferences.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 19
You create an analytic view and want to restrict access to departments with specific values using analytic
privileges. Which tasks do you have to perform to accomplish this?
There are 3 correct answers to this question.
Response:

A. Choose an attribute and define restricted values for it.
B. Assign the analytic privilege to a user or role.
C. Assign values to be restricted to a content table.
D. Assign values to be restricted. Choose at least one information model to assign restrictions.
E. Assign restricted values to the attribute view.

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 20
You created an information model in the SAP HANA studio and activated it successfully. When you
execute the data preview you get an error message indicating missing privileges.
Which of the following could solve the problem?
Please choose the correct answer.
Response:

A. GRANT SELECT ON SCHEMA <schema_name> TO _SYS_BIC
B. GRANT CREATE ANY ON SCHEMA <schema_name> TO _SYS_REPO
C. GRANT SELECT ON SCHEMA <schema_name> TO _SYS_REPO WITH GRANT OPTION
D. GRANT SELECT ON SCHEMA <schema_name> TO _SYS_BI WITH GRANT OPTION
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 21
Which Linux kernel parameters need to be adapted during SAP HANA installation depending on the SAP
HANA system size?
Please choose the correct answer.
Response:

A. net.ipv4.tcp_slow_start_after_idle and kernel.shmmni
B. kernel.shmall and fs.file-max
C. fs.file-max and net.core.wmem_max
D. net.core_rmem_max and kernel.sysrq

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 22
You deleted billions of records from several tables in the SAP HANA database. However, the file system
for the data volumes did not gain any free space.
What is the reason?
Please choose the correct answer.
Response:

A. You did not execute a full backup and restore to reduce the size of the data volumes.
B. You did not execute the ALTER SYSTEM RECLAIM LOG.
C. SAP HANA keeps the space for later reuse.
D. SAP HANA did not trigger a delta merge yet.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 23
The statistics server was stopped during an upgrade by the system administrator.
Which of the following parameters in statisticsserver.ini do you modify to restart the statistics server?
Please choose the correct answer.
Response:

A. stats connect in the trace section
B. editing in the statisticsserver_general section
C. active in the statisticsserver_general section
D. stats serve in the trace section

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 24
Which of the following can be imported into and exported from SAP HANA studio? There are 3 correct answers to this question.
Response:
A. SQL statements
B. Landscape
C. Tables
D. Models
E. Variants

Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 25
Which of the following are pre-delivered template roles? There are 2 correct answers to this question. Response:
A. MONITORING
B. IMPORT
C. SAP_INTERNAL_HANA_SUPPORT
D. MODELING
Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 26
In the SAP HANA studio, where can you check the throughput performance of SAP HANA backups?
Please choose the correct answer.
Response:

A. Administration Console Diagnosis files Backup.log
B. Backup Editor Backup Catalog Backup Details
C. System Information Database Information
D. Administration Console Performance Job Progress

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 27
Which parameters do you change to configure the trace file rotation?
There are 2 correct answers to this question.
Response:

A. max filesize
B. tracefile
C. maxfiles
D. trace

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 28
If you want to create or drop tables in a schema, which privilege type do you need?
Please choose the correct answer.
Response:
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QUESTION 1
Which of the following nodes can you use when you create a calculation view with the SAP HANA studio graphical interface? (Choose two)
A. Data Foundation
B. Aggregation
C. Join
D. Analytic Privilege

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 2
When table replication is suspended, what does the SAP Landscape Transformation (SLT) server do?
A. It prevents the RFC connection from reading the source system logging tables.
B. It deletes the database triggers and the logging tables in the source system.
C. It stops the RFC connection and deletes the target tables in SAP HANA.
D. It keeps reading via the RFC connection from the source system but does not load the data into SAP HANA.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which of the following can be part of an analytic view? (Choose three)
A. Query transformation
B. Unions
C. Logical joins
D. Data foundation
E. Attributes

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 4
Which tool do you use for real-time data provisioning into SAP HANA?
A. SAP Landscape Transformation (SLT)
B. SAP BusinessObjects Data Federation Administration
C. SAP BusinessObjects Data Services
D. SAP Direct Extractor Connection (DXC)

Correct Answer: A  https://www.leads4pass.com/c_hanaimp_1.html

QUESTION 5
You are experiencing performance problems with SAP BusinessObjects reports based on SAP HANA data.
Which of the following can you do to increase performance? (Choose two)
A. Add only relevant data to the report queries.
B. Avoid aggregation and work on raw data.
C. Merge all relevant data into a consolidated report.
D. Use drill-down or linked reports.
Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 6
You have set up replication from SAP ERP using SAP Landscape Transformation (SLT). You notice that the information models do not show the latest data from ERP.
What do you check to investigate this? (Choose two)
A. Activation status of the information models
B. Transaction SAP ERP Data Modeler (SD11)
C. Transaction LTR on SLT
D. Data Provisioning view in SAP HANA studio

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 7
You create a business layer in the SAP BusinessObjects Information Design Tool (IDT). Which of the following could you add to the data foundation? (Choose two)
A. Packages
B. Column Tables
C. Synonyms
D. Information Models

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 8
You implemented SAP-delivered business content on SAP HANA. When you try to activate the business content the activation fails.
What could be a reason for this?
A. You have not created a calculation view to expose the data to the users.
B. The data has not been loaded into SAP HANA memory yet.
C. The schema mapping was not set up correctly.
D. The import of business content was performed with the _SYS_REPO user.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 9
You want to allow another developer to access the information models in one of your packages. What privilege do you have to assign to this user to allow access?
A. SELECT on _SYS_REPO
B. SELECT on _SYS_REPO with the grant option
C. REPO.READ for the package
D. REPO.MAINTAIN_NATIVE_PACKAGES for the package

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which data provisioning method can you use to load data from SAP business content DataSources into SAP HANA? (Choose two)
A. SAP Landscape Transformation (SLT)
B. SAP Landscape Directory (SLD)
C. SAP Direct Extractor Connection (DXC)
D. SAP BusinessObjects Data Services

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 11
Your customer requires real-time replication.
Where do you select the tables to be replicated to SAP HANA?

A. in transaction LTR in SAP Landscape Transformation (SLT)
B. in the Import dialog of the Quick Launch of SAP HANA studio
C. in transaction SAP ERP Tables and Indexes Monitor (DB02)
D. in the Data Provisioning dialog of SAP HANA studio

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
Which of the following can you use as a source for a graphical calculation view? (Choose three)
A. Calculation view
B. SQL view
C. Decision table
D. Table
E. Procedure

Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 13
Which of the following can you check to investigate the query time in SAP HANA? (Choose three)
A. The SQL plan cache
B. The Central Management Console
C. The expensive statements trace
D. The statistics server warning for long-running statements
E. The System information tab of the Administration console

Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 14
You create a role with the following command: CREATE ROLE “InfoUser”
When you try to assign this role to user PETER with the following command:
GRANT InfoUser to PETER you receive an error message “Invalid user privilege: INFO USER”.
What must you do to avoid this problem? (Choose three)

A. Recreate the role with the command CREATE ROLE InfoUser.
B. Recreate user PETER with GRANT OPTION.
C. Grant the role of the WITH ADMIN OPTION.
D. Recreate the role with the command CREATE ROLE INFO USER.
E. Grant the role with the command GRANT “InfoUser” to PETER.

Correct Answer: ADE QUESTION 15
Which of the following can you set up to enable the extraction of data from SAP Business Warehouse (BW) into SAP HANA? (Choose three)
A. SAP System Landscape Directory (SLD)
B. SAP BusinessObjects Data Services
C. SAP Landscape Transformation (SLT)
D. Open hub
E. SAP HANA Direct Extractor Connection (DXC)

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 16
Which of the following does an SAP BusinessObjects universe use to communicate with SAP HANA?
A. ABAP
B. SQL
C. MDX
D. BICS

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Which of the following must you do in order to use SAP BusinessObjects Explorer on SAP HANA data? (Choose two)
A. Create a delivery unit.
B. Create a business layer.
C. Create an information model.
D. Create an information space.

Correct Answer: CD

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QUESTION 18
Where is the physical data stored, on which a calculation view is based?
A. In the _SYS_BI schema
B. In a schema
C. In the _SYS_BIC schema
D. In a package
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Which of the following automatically aggregates data? (Choose two)
A. Analytic view
B. Calculation view
C. Column table
D. Attribute view
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 20
Which privilege type do you have to assign to a role, when you want to provide row-level access to data?
A. ANALYTIC
B. PACKAGE
C. SYSTEM
D. SQL
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 21
Using SAP BusinessObjects Data Services, in which of the following can you perform data transformations? (Choose two)
A. Query
B. Datastore
C. XML File
D. Script

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 22
In which tool can you create information spaces for reporting?
A. in the SAP HANA modeler perspective
B. in the SAP HANA SQL editor
C. in SAP BusinessObjects Explorer
D. in the Information Design Tool

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 23
During loading of data into SAP HANA you want to filter the source data. Where can you apply the filters? (Choose two)
A. In a query transformation in SAP BusinessObjects Data Services
B. In a row generation transformation in SAP BusinessObjects Data Services
C. In a SQL WHERE clause in SAP Landscape Transformation (SLT)
D. In an ABAP code rule in SAP Landscape Transformation (SLT)

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 24
You have created an MS Excel report on SAP HANA data.
On which of the following could you store the Excel file and make it available for other users?

A. Shared network drive
B. SAP BusinessObjects Information Design Tool
C. SAP HANA database
D. SAP HANA studio Content node

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 25
You want to restrict access to SAP HANA information models based on user groups. The models are accessed through an SAP BusinessObjects report.
In which of the following can you implement these restrictions? (Choose two)
A. The schema mapping
B. The restricted measures
C. The analytic privileges
D. The universe Correct Answer: CD

Free practice questions for SAP C_HANAIMP_1 exam. These questions are aimed at giving you an idea of the type of questions you can expect on the actual exam. You will get an idea of the level of knowledge each topic goes into but because these are simple web pages you will not see the interactive and performance based questions – those are available in the SAP C_HANAIMP_1.

Free Microsoft Azure AZ-103 Dumps PDF [2020] For Quick Success In AZ-103 Exam

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This new exam combines the skills covered in AZ-100 and AZ-101 (which retired on May 1, 2019), with the majority of the new exam coming from AZ-100.Official AZ-103 study guide https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/az-103.

Microsoft AZ-103 PDF Dumps With Accurate Questions And Answers

QUESTION 1
You need to configure the Azure ExpressRoute circuits.
How should you configure Azure ExpressRoute routing? To answer, drag the appropriate configurations to the correct
locations. Each configuration may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q1

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q1-2

QUESTION 2
You have an Azure subscription that contains 10 virtual machines. You need to ensure that you receive an email
message when any virtual machines are powered off, restarted, or deallocated. What is the minimum number of rules
and action groups that you require?
A. three rules and three action groups
B. one rule and one action group
C. three rules and one action group
D. one rule and three action groups
Correct Answer: C
An action group is a collection of notification preferences defined by the user. Azure Monitor and Service
Health alerts are configured to use a specific action group when the alert is triggered. Various alerts may use the same
action group or different action groups depending on the user\\’s requirements.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/monitoring-and-diagnostics/monitoring-action-groups

QUESTION 3
You have a public load balancer that balancer ports 80 and 443 across three virtual machines.
You need to direct all the Remote Desktop protocol (RDP) to VM3 only.
What should you configure?
A. an inbound NAT rule
B. a load public balancing rule
C. a new public load balancer for VM3
D. a new IP configuration
Correct Answer: A
To port forward traffic to a specific port on specific VMs use an inbound network address translation (NAT) rule.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Load-balancing rule to distribute traffic that arrives at frontend to backend pool instances.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/load-balancer/load-balancer-overview

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. Subscription1 contains a resource group named RG1. RG1
contains resources that were deployed by using templates. You need to view the date and time when the resources
were
created in RG1.
Solution: From the RG1 blade, you click Deployments.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You need to recommend a solution for App1. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area;
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q5

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q5-2

This reference architecture shows how to deploy VMs and a virtual network configured for an N-tier application, using
SQL Server on Windows for the data tier.

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q5-3

Scenario: You have a public-facing application named App1. App1 is comprised of the following three tiers:
A SQL database
A web front end
A processing middle tier
Each tier is comprised of five virtual machines. Users access the web front end by using HTTPS only.
Technical requirements include:
Move all the virtual machines for App1 to Azure.
Minimize the number of open ports between the App1 tiers.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/reference-architectures/n-tier/n-tier-sql-server

QUESTION 6
You are the global administrator for an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenet named adatum.com.
You need to enable two-step verification for Azure users.
What should you do?
A. Create a sign-in risk policy in Azure AD Identity Protection
B. Enable Azure AD Privileged Identity Management.
C. Create and configure the Identity Hub.
D. Configure a security policy in Azure Security Center.
Correct Answer: A
With Azure Active Directory Identity Protection, you can: require users to register for multi-factor authentication handle
risky sign-ins and compromised users
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/identity-protection/flows

QUESTION 7
You have two subscriptions named Subscription1 and Subscription2. Each subscription is associated to a different
Azure AD tenant.
Subscription1 contains a virtual network named VNet1.VNet1 contains an Azure virtual machine named VM1 and has
an IP address space of 10.0.0.0/16.
Subscription2 contains a virtual network named VNet2. VNet2 contains an Azure virtual machine named VM2 and has
an IP address space of 10.10.0.0/24.
You need to connect VNet1 to VNet2.
What should you do first?
A. Move VNet1 to Subscription2.
B. Modify the IP address space of VNet2.
C. Provision virtual network gateways.
D. Move VM1 to Subscription2.
Correct Answer: C
The virtual networks can be in the same or different regions, and from the same or different subscriptions. When
connecting VNets from different subscriptions, the subscriptions do not need to be associated with the same Active
Directory
tenant.
Configuring a VNet-to-VNet connection is a good way to easily connect VNets. Connecting a virtual network to another
virtual network using the VNet-to-VNet connection type (VNet2VNet) is similar to creating a Site-to-Site IPsec
connection
to an on-premises location. Both connectivity types use a VPN gateway to provide a secure tunnel using IPsec/IKE, and
both function the same way when communicating.
The local network gateway for each VNet treats the other VNet as a local site. This lets you specify additional address
space for the local network gateway in order to route traffic.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/vpn-gateway/vpn-gateway-howto-vnet-vnet-resource-managerportal

QUESTION 8
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.onmicrosoft.com that contains 100 user
accounts.
You purchase 10 Azure AD Premium P2 licenses for the tenant.
You need to ensure that 10 users can use all the Azure AD Premium features.
What should you do?
A. From the Groups blade of each user, invite the users to a group.
B. From the Licenses blade of Azure AD, assign a license.
C. From the Directory role blade of each user, modify the directory role.
D. From the Azure AD domain, add an enterprise application.
Correct Answer: B
To assign a license, under Azure Active Directory > Licenses > All Products, select one or more products, and then
select Assign on the command bar.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/fundamentals/license-users-groups

QUESTION 9
You have a computer named Computer1 that has a point-to-site VPN connection to an Azure virtual network named
VNet1. The point-to-site connection uses a self-signed certificate. From Azure, you download and install the VPN client
configuration package on a computer named Computer2.
You need to ensure that you can establish a point-to-site VPN connection to VNet1 from Computer2. Solution: You join
Computer2 to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).
Does this meet this goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You have an Azure subscription that contains an Azure file share.
You have an on-premises server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You plan to set up Azure File Sync between Server1 and the Azure file share.
You need to prepare the subscription for the planned Azure File Sync.
Which two actions should you perform in the Azure subscription? To answer, drag the appropriate actions to the correct
targets. Each action may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between
panes
or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q10

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q10-2

First action: Create a Storage Sync Service
The deployment of Azure File Sync starts with placing a Storage Sync Service resource into a resource group of your
selected subscription.
Second action: Run Server Registration
Registering your Windows Server with a Storage Sync Service establishes a trust relationship between your server (or
cluster) and the Storage Sync Service. A server can only be registered to one Storage Sync Service and can sync with
other servers and Azure file shares associated with the same Storage Sync Service.
The Server Registration UI should open automatically after installation of the Azure File Sync agent.

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q10-3

QUESTION 11
You have an Azure subscription that contains three virtual networks named VNet1, VNet2, VNet3.
VNet2 contains a virtual appliance named VM2 that operates as a router. You are configuring the virtual networks in a
hub and spoke topology that uses VNet2 as the hub network.
You plan to configure peering between VNet1 and VNet2 and between VNet2 and VNet3. You need to provide
connectivity between VNet1 and VNet3 through VNet2.
Which two configurations should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. On the peering connections, allow forwarded traffic.
B. On the peering connections, allow gateway transit.
C. Create route tables and assign the table to subnets.
D. Create a route filter.
E. On the peering connections, use remote gateways.
Correct Answer: BE
Allow gateway transit: Check this box if you have a virtual network gateway attached to this virtual network and want to
allow traffic from the peered virtual network to flow through the gateway. The peered virtual network must have the Use remote gateways checkbox checked when setting up the peering from the other virtual network to this virtual network.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-network-manage-peering#requirements-and-constraints

QUESTION 12
You have two Azure virtual machines named VM1 and VM2. VM1 has a single data disk named Disk1. You need to
attach Disk1 to VM2. The solution must minimize downtime for both virtual machines. Which four actions should you
perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange
them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q12

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q12-2

Step 1: Stop VM1.
Step 2: Detach Disk1 from VM1.
Step 3: Start VM1.
Detach a data disk using the portal
1.
In the left menu, select Virtual Machines.
2.
Select the virtual machine that has the data disk you want to detach and click Stop to deallocate the VM.
3.
In the virtual machine pane, select Disks.
4.
At the top of the Disks pane, select Edit.
5.
In the Disks pane, to the far right of the data disk that you would like to detach, click the Detach button image detach
button.
6.
After the disk has been removed, click Save on the top of the pane.
7.
In the virtual machine pane, click Overview and then click the Start button at the top of the pane to restart the VM.
8.
The disk stays in storage but is no longer attached to a virtual machine.
Step 4: Attach Disk1 to VM2
Attach an existing disk
Follow these steps to reattach an existing available data disk to a running VM.
9.
Select a running VM for which you want to reattach a data disk.
10.From the menu on the left, select Disks.
11. Select Attach existing to attach an available data disk to the VM.
12.From the Attach existing disk pane, select OK.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/detach-disk
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/lab-services/devtest-lab-attach-detach-data-disk

QUESTION 13
Overview
The following section of the exam is a lab. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a live environment. While
most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality (e.g., copy and paste,
ability
to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design.
Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\\’t matter how you
accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task. Labs are not timed separately, and
this
exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as much time as you would like to complete
each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you are able to complete the lab(s) and all
other
sections of the exam in the time provided.
Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to
the lab.
To start the lab
You may start the lab by clicking the Next button.
You plan to host several secured websites on Web01.
You need to allow HTTPS over TCP port 443 to Web01 and to prevent HTTP over TCP port 80 to Web01.
What should you do from the Azure portal?
A. Answer: See below.
Correct Answer: A
You can filter network traffic to and from Azure resources in an Azure virtual network with a network security group. A
network security group contains security rules that allow or deny inbound network traffic to, or outbound network traffic
from,
several types of Azure resources. A network security group contains security rules that allow or deny inbound network
traffic to, or outbound network traffic from, several types of Azure resources.
Step A: Create a network security group
A1. Search for and select the resource group for the VM, choose Add, then search for and select Network security
group.
A2. Select Create.

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q13The Create network security group window opens.
A3. Create a network security group
Enter a name for your network security group.
Select or create a resource group, then select a location.
A4. Select Create to create the network security group.
Step B: Create an inbound security rule to allows HTTPS over TCP port 443 B1. Select your new network security
group.
B2. Select Inbound security rules, then select Add.
B3. Add inbound rule
B4. Select Advanced.
From the drop-down menu, select HTTPS.
You can also verify by clicking Custom and selecting TCP port, and 443.
B5. Select Add to create the rule.
Repeat step B2-B5 to deny TCP port 80
B6. Select Inbound security rules, then select Add.
B7. Add inbound rule
B8. Select Advanced.
Clicking Custom and selecting TCP port, and 80.
B9. Select Deny.
Step C: Associate your network security group with a subnet
Your final step is to associate your network security group with a subnet or a specific network interface.
C1. In the Search resources, services, and docs box at the top of the portal, begin typing Web01.
When the Web01 VM appears in the search results, select it.
C2. Under SETTINGS, select Networking. Select Configure the application security groups, select the Security Group
you created in Step A, and then select Save, as shown in the following picture:

Pass4itsure AZ-103 exam questions-q13-2

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Exam 300-365 : Deploying Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks

What is WIDEPLOY?Deploying Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WIDEPLOY) prepares you for the CCNP Wireless certification, a professional level certification specializing in the wireless field.

Exam policies and FAQ

Content:

  • Design and Deploy WLAN Infrastructure for Mobility 18% key
  • Implement QoS for Wireless Applications 13%
  • Implement Multicast over Wireless 13%
  • Implement High Density 13%
  • Implement Cisco MSE Architecture 12%
  • Design and Implement FlexConnect Architecture 12%
  • Implement Controller and AP High Availability 10%
  • Wireless Bridging (MESH) 10%

learn:

  • QoS Configuration Guide, Cisco IOS XE Release 3SE (Catalyst 3850 Switches) Configuring QoS
  • Cisco Unified Wireless QoS
  • Cisco Unified Wireless QoS and AVC
  • Deploying Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WIDEPLOY) v1.1CLN Store Content
  • IP Multicast Technology Overview
  • Cisco Unified Wireless Multicast Design
  • Multicast with Wireless LAN Controllers (WLCs) and Lightweight Access Points (LAPs) Configuration Example
  • Configuring the Service Discovery Gateway
  • Service Discovery Gateway
  • Deploying Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WIDEPLOY) v1.1CLN Store Content
  • Wireless LAN Design Guide for High Density Client Environments in Higher Education
  • High Density Experience (HDX) Deployment Guide, Release 8.0
  • Deploying Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WIDEPLOY) v1.1CLN Store Content
  • Enterprise Mobility 8.1 Design Guide
  • Deploying Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WIDEPLOY) v1.1CLN Store Content

Certification:

CCNP Wireless

More about CCNP certification, maybe you are interested.

Do you have the following doubts about the 300-365 exam?

Is difficult?If you have experience with WIDEPLOY, it should not be difficult.
Must I attend?If you want to get Cisco certification, we recommend that you take this exam first.
What is the score to pass? 700/1000
What other exams are there after passing? 300-360 WIDESIGN
300-365 WIDEPLOY
300-370 WITSHOOT
300-375 WISECURE Exam.

Latest study material for exam 300-365 – Recommended

Recommended – experience

This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of implementing wireless networks based on the applicable Cisco controller and Unified switching architectures that support high availability, QoS, multicast, and mobility services.

Recommended – book

These books will help you pass the exam:

  1. 300-365 WIDEPLOY (Passed) – 104852
  2. 300-365 WIDEPLOY exam training – 118562
  3. 300-360 WIDESIGN Prep – 129912
  4. Test Order (300-360/365/370/375) – 129459

Recommended – courses

Deploying Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WIDEPLOY) v1.0

If you prefer a teacher instead of reading a book or watching a video, then it is a good choice to start with.

Cisco CCNP Wireless 2020 change

350-401 ENCOR – Cisco : https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/encor-350-401.html

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Recommended – questions and answers(from pass4itsure)

QUESTION 1
You have set up FlexConnect APs. For which scenario is Fast Roaming supported, providing the WLAN is mapped to
the same VLAN and the client is roaming to an AP on the same Cisco WLC?
A. central switching with PMK (OKC) between different FlexConnect groups
B. local switching with Cisco Centralized Key Management within the same FlexConnect group
C. central switching with Cisco Centralized Key Management between different FlexConnect groups
D. local switching with PMKID within the same FlexConnect group
Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 2
An engineer has enabled Cisco Centralized Key Management on a WLAN with local and FlexConnect mode APs. The
engineer notices that Cisco CKM is not working for the FlexConnect APs when looking at roaming, but is working for
local mode APs. Which change is needed on the controller for Cisco CKM to work for the FlexConnect APs?
A. Place APs in FlexConnect group.
B. Enable FlexConnect Central Assoc.
C. Use local authentication.
D. Configure VLAN-based central switching.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-1/Enterprise-Mobility-8-1-DesignGuide/Enterprise_Mobility_8-1_Deployment_Guide/ch7_HREA.html

QUESTION 3
A customer requires that the remote site be able to utilize local servers when the AP is in WAN-down (standalone
mode). Which AP mode must be configured on the wireless controller?
A. SE-Connect
B. Monitor
C. Local
D. FlexConnect
E. Sniffer
F. Rogue Detector
Correct Answer: AD
References: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/7-2/configuration/guide/cg/cg_flexconnect.html

QUESTION 4
When CAPWAP protocol runs over IPv4, which UDP port numbers are used for control and data traffic, respectively?
A. control 5246, data ?UDP-Lite(IP Protocol 136)
B. control 5247, data ?5246
C. control 5246, data ?5247
D. control 5247, data ?UDP-Lite(IP Protocol 136)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You must ensure that new service advertisements are learned if the SP-DB is full. Which mDNS setting do you
configure?
A. MAC priority
B. mDNS gateway
C. service advertisement
D. LSS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
On which AP radio or radios is Cisco WGB association supported?
A. 2.4 GHz only
B. 2.4 or 5 GHz only
C. 2.4, 5, or 4.9 GHz
D. 5 GHz only
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
What are two functions of the RAP in a mesh network? (Choose two.)
A. It provides a wired connection for the wireless mesh APs.
B. It adds capacity and resilience to a mesh area.
C. It creates a centralized management location for the mesh network.
D. It reduces the hop count to the wireless network that is connected to the edge.
E. It routes traffic from the wireless mesh to the wired network.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
A customer has implemented a N+1 high availability plan in a multistory building. All APs on odd numbered floors are
set as primary to WLC-A and all APs on even numbered floors are set as primary to WLC-8. Which two problems are
likely to arise from this design? (Choose two)
A. inconsistent CleanAir data due to multiple WLCs
B. floor-to-floor bleed-through that causes intercontroller roaming delays
C. AVC inconsistency due to multiple mobility group members
D. legacy device compatibility with multiple WLC configuration that causes disconnects
E. unpredictable AP loading during a WLC failure
Correct Answer: AC
References: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/technology/wlc/82463-wlc-config-best-practice.html

QUESTION 9
Which standard specifies TSPEC to provide the management link between higher QoS protocols and the channel
access function?
A. 802.11e
B. 802.11a
C. 802.11ac
D. 802.11af
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An engineer must deploy FlexConnect APs to a site that typically has 300 ms latency to the WLC. Which typical
operating mode must the engineer plan on for normal operations?
A. local authentication, local switching
B. central authentication, central switching
C. central authentication, local switching
D. connected mode
Correct Answer: A
References: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/7-2/configuration/guide/cg/cg_flexconnect.html

QUESTION 11
A FlexConnect remote office deployment is using five 2702i APs indoors and two 1532i APs outdoors. When a code
upgrade is performed and FlexConnect Smart AP Image Upgrade is leveraged, but no FlexConnect Master A has been
configured. How many image transfers between the WLC and APs will occur?
A. 7
B. 1
C. 5
D. 2
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
An engineer has all of the remote locations using a pair of FlexConnect WLCs with locally switched WLANs and must
leverage local certificate based authentication. Which component must be configured?
A. Configure the APs in FlexConnect Central Auth.
B. Manually install certificates on access points.
C. Upload the vendor certificate to the Cisco WLC.
D. Cisco WLC must be integrated with LDAP.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which two multicast issues can be resolved by using VideoStream? (Choose two.)
A. Wireless multicast packets that are lost are not resent
B. Video delivery is configured at the highest mandatory data rates
C. Each Wi-Fi client must acknowledge receiving a video IP multicast stream
D. The maximum number of video clients that can receive a multicast transmission simultaneously is reduced
E. Video IP multicast streams are policed to fit the bandwidth
Correct Answer: BE

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Exam: 100-105 Question Online 1 / 13

Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1)
Exam Price: $165 USD
Duration: 90 minutes
Number of Questions: 45-55
Passing Score: Variable (750-850 / 1000 Approx.)

Last date to test: February 23, 2020!
The 100-105 ICND1 exam will be retired on February 23, 2020.

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. PC1 pings PC2. What three things will CORE router do with the data that is received from PC1?
(Choose three.)

Pass4itsure Cisco 100-105 exam questions q1

A. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet0/1 of CORE router.
B. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet1/0 of CORE router.
C. CORE router will replace the destination IP address of the packets with the IP address of PC2.
D. CORE router will replace the MAC address of PC2 in the destination MAC address of the frames.
E. CORE router will put the IP address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source IP address in
the packets.
F. CORE router will put the MAC address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source MAC
address.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 2
Which protocol verifies connectivity between two switches that are configured with IP addresses in the same network?
A. ICMP
B. STP
C. VTP
D. HSRP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Host B has just been added to the network and must acquire an IP address. Which two addresses
are possible addresses that will allow host B to communicate with other devices in the network? (Choose two.)

Pass4itsure Cisco 100-105 exam questions q3

A. 192.168.10.32
B. 192.168.10.38
C. 192.168.10.46
D. 192.168.10.47
E. 192.168.10.49
F. 192.168.10.51
Correct Answer: BC
The IP address of host B must be in the range of 192.168.10.32/28 subnet, which ranges from 192.168.10.32 to
192.168.10.47 (Increment: 16), except the IP addresses of 192.168.10.32, 192.168.10.46 (which are the network and
broadcast addresses of the subnet), 192.168.10.33, 192.168.10.34 (which have been assigned to the interface\\’s router
and the switch). Therefore, there are only two IP addresses of 192.168.10.38 and 192.168.10.46.

QUESTION 4
Which component of a routing table entry represents the subnet mask?
A. routing protocol code
B. prefix
C. metric
D. network mask
Correct Answer: D
IP Routing Table Entry Types
An entry in the IP routing table contains the following information in the order presented:
Network ID. The network ID or destination corresponding to the route. The network ID can be class-based, subnet, or
supernet network ID, or an IP address for a host route.
Network Mask. The mask that is used to match a destination IP address to the network ID.
Next Hop. The IP address of the next hop.
Interface. An indication of which network interface is used to forward the IP packet.
Metric. A number used to indicate the cost of the route so the best route among possible multiple routes to the same
destination can be selected. A common use of the metric is to indicate the number of hops (routers crossed) to the
network
ID.
Routing table entries can be used to store the following types of routes:
Directly Attached Network IDs.
Routes for network IDs that are directly attached. For directly attached networks, the Next Hop field can be blank or
contain the IP address of the interface on that network.
Remote Network IDs.
Routes for network IDs that are not directly attached but are available across other routers. For remote networks, the
Next Hop field is the IP address of a local router in between the forwarding node and the remote network.
Host Routes.
A route to a specific IP address.
Host routes allow routing to occur on a per- IP address basis. For host routes, the network ID is the IP address of the
specified host and the network mask is 255.255.255.255.
Default Route.
The default route is designed to be used when a more specific network ID or host route is not found. The default route
network ID is 0.0.0.0 with the network mask of 0.0.0.0.

QUESTION 5
Which condition is most important to support the use of syslog messages for troubleshooting?
A. Messages are logged to a UNIX-based server.
B. The router has a large internal buffer space.
C. NTP is in use to ensure accurate timestamps.
D. Messages are logged to a Cisco UCS Server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure Cisco 100-105 exam questions q6

A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem on the serial interfaces. The output from the show
interfaces command on both routers shows that the serial interface is up, line protocol is down. Given the partial output
for the show running-config in the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The serial cable is bad.
B. The MTU is incorrectly configured.
C. The Layer 2 framing is misconfigured.
D. The IP addresses are not in the same subnet.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Drag and Drop Question
Drag and drop each broadcast IP address on the left to the Broadcast Address column on the right. Not all options are
used.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Cisco 100-105 exam questions q7

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Cisco 100-105 exam questions q7-2

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has added host A to the network. Host A cannot communicate on the network.
A ping that is issued on the host to address 127.0.0.1 fails. What is the problem?

Pass4itsure Cisco 100-105 exam questions q8

A. The router is not forwarding the ping packets to network 127.0.0.0.
B. The remote host at 127.0.0.1 is unreachable.
C. The default gateway is incorrect.
D. The IP address of host A is incorrect.
E. The TCP/IP protocols are not loaded.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 9
Which statement about the enable password is true?
A. The space character is not supported.
B. It is not stored in a secured format.
C. It can be up to 32 characters long.
D. It is stored in a secured format.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/security/command/reference/fsecur_r/srfpass.html

QUESTION 10
What is the purpose of the switchport command?
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1 Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address
0018.DE8B.4BF8
A. It ensures that only the device with the MAC address 0018.DE8B.4BF8 will be able to connect to the port that is
being configured.
B. It informs the switch that traffic destined for MAC address 0018.DE8B.4BF8 should only be sent to the port that is
being configured.
C. It will act like an access list and the port will filter packets that have a source or destination MAC of
0018.DE8B.4BF8.
D. The switch will shut down the port of any traffic with source MAC address of 0018.DE8B.4BF8.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which IPsec security protocol should be used when confidentiality is required?
A. MD5
B. PSK
C. AH
D. ESP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which statement describes dynamic routing correctly?
A. more secure than static
B. high scaling for large network
C. easier to configure than static route
D. built for small networks
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which option is a valid IPv6 address?
A. 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a
B. 2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1
C. FEC0:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4
D. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1
Correct Answer: D
IPv6 Address Notation
IPv6 addresses are denoted by eight groups of hexadecimal quartets separated by colons in between them.
Following is an example of a valid IPv6 address:
2001:cdba:0000:0000:0000:0000:3257:9652
Any four-digit group of zeroes within an IPv6 address may be reduced to a single zero or altogether omitted.
Therefore, the following IPv6 addresses are similar and equally valid:
2001:cdba:0000:0000:0000:0000:3257:9652
2001:cdba:0:0:0:0:3257:9652
2001:cdba::3257:9652
The URL for the above address will be of the form:
http://[2001:cdba:0000:0000:0000:0000:3257:9652]/
http://www.ipv6.com/articles/general/IPv6-Addressing.htm

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The practice test for exam 70-742 Identity with Windows Server 2016

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QUESTION 1
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named fabrikam.com and contoso.com. Each forest contains a single
domain.
Contoso.com has a Group Policy object (GPO) named Cont_GPO1.
You need to apply the settings from Cont_GPO1 to the computers in fabrikam.com.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct section is worth one point.
A. Back up Cont_GPO1. In fabrikam.com, create and link a new GPO by using the Group Policy Management Console
(GPMC), and then run the Import Setting Wizard.
B. Back up Cont_GPO1. In fabrikam.com, run the Restore-GPO cmdlet, and then run the New-GPLink cmdlet.
C. Back up Cont_GPO1. In fabrikam.com run the Import-GPO cmdlet, and then run the New-GPLink cmdlet.
D. Copy\\contoso.com\SysVol\contoso.com\Policies to \\fabrikam.com\SysVol\ fabrikam.com\Policies. In fabrikam.com,
run the New-GPLink cmdlet.
E. Back up Cont_GPO1. In fabrikam.com, create and link a new GPO by using the Group Policy Management Console
(GPMC), and then run the Restore Group Policy Object Wizard.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain.
You have a user account that is a member of the Domain Admins group.
You have 100 laptops that have a standard corporate image installed. The laptops are in workgroups and have random
names.
A technician named Tech1 is assigned the task of joining the laptops to the domain. The computer accounts of each
laptop must be in an organizational unit (OU) that is associated to the department of the user who will use the laptop.
The
laptop names must start with four characters indicating the department, followed by a four-digit number.
Tech1 is a member of the Domain Users group only. Tech1 has the administrator logon credentials for all the laptops.
You need Tech1 to join the laptops to the domain. The solution must ensure that the laptops are named correctly, and
the computer accounts of the laptops are in the correct OUs.
Solution: You instruct Tech1 to sign in to each laptop, to rename each laptop by using System in Control Panel, and
then to join each laptop to the domain by using the Netdom join command.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1
that runs Windows Server 2016. The computer account for Server1 is in organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 and link GPO1 to OU1.
You need to add a domain user named User1 to the local Administrators group on Server1.
Solution: From the Computer Configuration node of GPO1, you configure the Account Policies settings. Does this meet
the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Account Lockout Policy settings encapsulates Password Policy, Account Lockout Policy, and Kerberos Policy. It will not
allow you to add a domain user to a local Administrators group. References: https://technet.microsoft.com/ptpt/library/cc757692(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The user account for a user named User1 is in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
You need to enable User1 to sign in as [email protected].
Solution: From Active Directory Users and Computers, you set the E-mail property of User1 to [email protected].
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers
named DC1 and DC2.
DC1 holds the RID master operations role. DC1 fails and cannot be repaired. You need to move the RID role to DC2.
Solution: On DC2, you open the command prompt, run dsmgmt.exe, connect to DC2, and use the Seize RID master
opinion.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
A user named User1 is in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
You need to enable User1 to sign in as [email protected].
You need a list of groups to which User1 is either a direct member or an indirect member.
Solution: From Windows PowerShell, you run Set -Aduser User1 -UserPricncipalName [email protected].
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Your company has multiple branch offices.
The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
In one of the branch offices, a new technician is hired to add computers to the domain.
After successfully joining multiple computers to the domain, the technician fails to join any more computers to the
domain.
You need to ensure that the technician can join an unlimited number of computers to the domain.
What should you do?
A. Configure the technician\\’s user account as a manager service account.
B. Run the Set-ADComputer cmdlet.
C. Modify the Security settings of the Computers container.
D. Add the technician to the Domain Computers group.
Correct Answer: C
Users who have the Create Account Objects privilege for the Computers container can create an unlimited number of
computer accounts in the domain. You can grant this privilege by accessing the Advanced Security settings on the
Security Tab of the Computer container via Active Directory Users And Computers or the Active Directory Administrative
Center.
References: https://books.google.co.za/books?id=LvNODQAAQBAJandpg=PT268andlpg=PT268anddq=Modify+the+Security+settings+of+the+Computers+container+2016andsource=blandots=1lRBQ21cL0andsig=1AUSon_6cjIqyN_927iOB7z3Egandhl=enandsa=Xandved=0ahUKEwjBi4OSrnbAhXKD8AKHerKDcgQ6AEISjAC#v=onepageandq=Modify%20the%20Security%20settings%20of%20the%20Computers%20container%202016andf=false

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The user account for a user named User1 is in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
You need to enable User1 to sign in as [email protected].
Solution: From Windows PowerShell, you run
Set-ADObject \\’CN=User1,OU=OU1,DC=Contoso,DC=com\\’
–Add @{UserPrincipalName=\\’[email protected]\\’}
–Remove @ {UserPrincipalName=\\’[email protected]\\’}.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains an enterprise root certification authority (CA) on a server that runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to configure the CA to support Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) responders.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct selection presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Add a new certificate template to issue.
B. Modify the Authority Information Access (AIA) of the CA.
C. Configure an enrollment agent.
D. Install a standalone subordinate CA.
E. Modify the CRL distribution point (CDP) of the CA.
Correct Answer: AB
Once the OCSP service is configured, we need to configure the OCSP Response Signing template. This process
includes adding an Authority Information Access (AIA) extension and then issuing a new certificate template.
References: https://www.poweradmin.com/blog/deploying-active-directory-certificate-services-and-online-responder/

QUESTION 10
You create a user account that will be used as a template for new user accounts.
Which setting will be copied when you copy the user account from Active Directory Users and Computers?
A. the Department attribute
B. the Description attribute
C. Permission
D. Remote Desktop Services Profile
Correct Answer: A
A user template in Active Directory can be used if you are creating users for a specific department, with exactly the
same properties, and membership to the same user groups. A user template is nothing more than a disabled user
account that has all these settings already in place.
References: http://www.rebeladmin.com/2014/07/create-users-with-user-templates-in-ad/

QUESTION 11
Your company has a main office and three branch offices. The network contains an Active Directory domain named
contoso.com.
The main office contains three domain controllers. Each branch office contains one domain controller.
You discover the new settings in the Default Domain Policy are not applied in one of the branch offices, but all other
Group Policy objects (GPOs) are applied.
You need to check the replication of the Default Domain Policy for the branch office.
What should you do from a domain controller in the main office?
A. From Group Policy Management, click Default Domain Policy under Contoso.com, and then open the Scope tab.
B. From a command prompt, run dcdiag.exe.
C. From a command prompt, run repadmin.exe.
D. From Windows PowerShell, run the Get-GPOReport cmdlet.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
Some user accounts in the domain have the P.O. Box attribute set.
You plan to remove the value of the P.O. Box attribute for all of the users by using Ldifde.
You have a user named User1 who is located in the Users container.
How should you configure the LDIF file to remove the value of the P.O. Box attribute for User1? To answer, select the
appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-742 exam questions-q12

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-742 exam questions-q12-2

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains the Active Directory forests and domains shown in the following table:

Pass4itsure 70-742 exam questions-q13

A two-way forest trust exists between ForestA and ForestB.
Each domain in ForestB contains user accounts that are used to manage servers.
You need to ensure that the user accounts used to manage the servers in ForestB are members of the Server
Operators in ForestA.
Solution: In each domain in ForestB, you create a global group that contains the user accounts of the respective
domain. You create a universal group in DomainBRoot. You add the new global groups to the new universal group. You
modify
the membership of the Server Operators in ForestA.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/identity-protection/access-control/active-directorysecurity-groups#bkmk-serveroperators

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Exam 70-761 : Querying Data with Transact-SQL

What is T-SQL?T-SQL is a proprietary set of programming extensions from Microsoft and Sybase used to interact with relational databases.

The first exam in SQL Server 2016 is Microsoft Exam 70-761. This is the first exam related to Transact-SQL query data, Transact-SQL is the query language used in SQL Server.

Exam policies and FAQ

Content:

  • Manage data with Transact-SQL (40–45%) key
  • Query data with advanced Transact-SQL components (30–35%)
  • Program databases by using Transact-SQL (25–30%)

learn:

  • Manage data with Transact-SQL
  • Create Transact-SQL SELECT queries
  • Query multiple tables by using joins
  • Implement functions and aggregate data
  • Modify data
  • Query data with advanced Transact-SQL components
  • Query data by using subqueries and APPLY
  • Query data by using table expressions
  • Group and pivot data by using queries
  • Query temporal data and non-relational data
  • Program databases by using Transact-SQL
  • Create database programmability objects by using Transact-SQL
  • Implement error handling and transactions
  • Implement data types and NULLs

Certification:

MCSA

More about MCSA certification, maybe you are interested：

[2017 New Microsoft Version] Latest Upload Microsoft MCSA 70-734 Dumps Practice Test, Microsoft 70-734 Dumps Real Exam Video Questions And Answers OEM Preinstallation for Windows 10 (From Google Drive)

Do you have the following doubts about the 70-761 exam?

Is difficult?If you have experience with T-SQL, it should not be difficult.
Must I attend?If you want to get Microsoft certification, we recommend that you take this exam first.
What is the score to pass? 700/1000
What other exams are there after passing?70-762, 70-764, 70-765, 70-767,70-768 Exam.

Latest study material for exam 70-761 – Recommended

Recommended – experience

This exam is for SQL Server database administrators, system engineers and developers with two or more years of experience who want to validate their skills and knowledge to write queries.

Recommended – book

These books will help you pass the exam:

  1. Murach’s SQL Server 2012 for Developers (Training & Reference)
  2. Itzik Ben-Gan books
  3. Beginner SQL Programming Using Microsoft SQL Server 2016
  4. Learn SQL Server Intuitively: Transact-SQL: The Solid Basics
  5. Working with XML and SQL Server
  6. Exam Ref 70-761 Querying Data with Transact-SQL

Recommended – videos

Latest MCSA 70-761 dumps Practice test Questions and answers

Recommended – courses

20761: Querying Data with Transact-SQL (three days)

If you prefer a teacher instead of reading a book or watching a video, then it is a good choice to start with.

Recommended – questions and answers(from pass4itsure)

QUESTION 1

You develop and deploy a project management application. The application uses a Microsoft SQL Server database to

store data. You are developing a software bug tracking add-on for the application. The add-on must meet the following

requirements:

Allow case sensitive searches for product.

Filter search results based on exact text in the description.

Support multibyte Unicode characters.

You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q1

You need to ensure that users can perform searches of descriptions. Which Transact-SQL statement should you run?

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q1-2

A. B. C. D.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/queries/contains-transact-sql?view=sql-server-2017

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a database named DB1 that contains two tables named Sales.Customers and Sales.Orders.
Sales.Customers has a foreign key relationship to a column named CustomerID in Sales.Orders.
You need to recommend a query that returns all the customers. The query must also return the number of orders that
each customer placed in 2016.
Solution: You recommend the following query:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q2

Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may
be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
You have a database that contains tables named Customer_CRMSystem and Customer_HRSystem. Both tables use
the following structure:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q3

The tables include the data below: Customer_CRMSystem

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q3-2Customer_HRSystem

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q3-3

Records that contain null values for CustomerCode can be uniquely identified by CustomerName. You need to display
customers who appear in both tables and have a non-null CustomerCode. Which Transact-SQL statement should you
run?
Correct Answer: B
INTERSECT returns distinct rows that are output by both the left and right input queries operator. Incorrect Answers:
A: INNER JOIN returns records that have matching values in both tables but it returns duplicate records.
C: LEFT OUTER JOIN returns ALL records from the left table, and the matched records from the right table.
D: EXCEPT returns distinct rows from the left input query that are not output by the right input query.
E, F: UNION and UNION ALL combines the results of two or more queries into a single result set that includes all the
rows that belong to all queries in the union.
G: CROSS JOIN returns all possible combinations of data from both tables.
H: FULL OUTER JOIN returns all records when there is a match in either left or right table
Note: NULL values are treated as distinct values in join operations.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/performance/joins?view=sql-server-2017
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/language-elements/set-operators-except-and-intersect-transact-sql?view=sqlserver-2017 https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/language-elements/set-operators-union-transactsql?view=sqlserver-2017 https://www.w3schools.com/sql/sql_join.asp

QUESTION 4
You have a database named DB1 that contains a temporal table named Sales.Customers.
You need to create a query that returns the credit limit that was available to each customer in DB1 at the beginning of
2017.
Which query should you execute?

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q4

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q4-2

A. B. C. D.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
You have two tables named UserLogin and Employee respectively.
You need to create a Transact-SQL script that meets the following requirements:
The script must update the value of the IsDeleted column for the UserLogin table to 1 if the value of the Id column for
the UserLogin table is equal to 1.
The script must update the value of the IsDeleted column of the Employee table to 1 if the value of the Id column is
equal to 1 for the Employee table when an update to the UserLogin table throws an error.
The error message “No tables updated!” must be produced when an update to the Employee table throws an error.
Which five Transact-SQL segments should you use to develop the solution? To answer, move the appropriate TransactSQL segments from the list of Transact-SQL segments to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q5

Correct Answer :

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q5-2

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
You have a database that contains the following tables: tblRoles, tblUsers, and tblUsersInRoles.
The table tblRoles is defined as follows.

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q6

You have a function named ufnGetRoleActiveUsers that was created by running the following Transact-SQL statement:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q6-2

You need to list all roles and their corresponding active users. The query must return the RoleId, RoleName, and
UserName columns. If a role has no active users, a NULL value should be returned as the UserName for that role. How
should you complete the Transact-SQL statement? To answer, select the appropriate Transact-SQL segments in the
answer area.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q6-3

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q6-4

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may
be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
You have a database that contains several connected tables. The tables contain sales data for customers in the United
States only.
All the sales data is stored in a table named table1. You have a table named table2 that contains city names.
You need to create a query that lists only the cities that have no sales.
Which statement clause should you add to the query?
A. GROUP BY
B. MERGE
C. GROUP BY ROLLUP
D. LEFT JOIN
E. GROUP BY CUBE
F. CROSS JOIN
G. PIVOT
H. UNPIVOT
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/queries/from-transact-sql?view=sql-server-2017 

QUESTION 8
HOTSPOT
You need to develop a Transact-SQL statement that meets the following requirements:
The statement must return a custom error when there are problems updating a table.
The error number must be value50555.
The error severity level must be14.
A Microsoft SQL Server alert must be triggered when the error condition occurs.
Which Transact-SQL segment should you use for each requirement? To answer, select the appropriate Transact-SQL
segments in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q8

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q8-2

Box 1: TRY…CATCH
The TRY…CATCH Transact-SQL construct implements error handling for Transact-SQL that is similar to the exception
handling in the Microsoft Visual C# and Microsoft Visual C++ languages. A group of Transact-SQL statements can be
enclosed in a TRY block. If an error occurs in the TRY block, control is passed to another group of statements that is
enclosed in a CATCH block.
Box 2: RAISERROR(50555, 14, 1 \\’The update failed.”) WITH LOG
We must use RAISERROR to be able to specify the required severity level of 14, and we should also use the LOG
option, which Logs the error in the error log and the application log for the instance of the Microsoft SQL Server
Database
Engine, as this enable a MS MS SQL SERVER alert to be triggered.
Note: RAISERROR generates an error message and initiates error processing for the session. RAISERROR can either
reference a user-defined message stored in the sys.messages catalog view or build a message dynamically. The
message is returned as a server error message to the calling application or to an associated CATCH block of a
TRY…CATCH construct.
Incorrect Answers:
Not THROW: THROW does not have a severity parameter.
References:
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms175976.aspx
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms178592.aspx

QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
You have a database that contains the following tables: tblEmployees and tblSalesSummary. Each record contains
approximately one million records.
You use Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio (SSMS) to run two queries. The Include Actual Execution Plan
option is enabled.
Both queries return the same results. SSMS generates the execution plans shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit
button.)
You need to troubleshoot the queries.
How should you interpret the execution plans? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q9

Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q9-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q9-3
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/showplan-logical-and-physical-operatorsreference?view=sql-server-2017

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section. You will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You create a table named Customer by running the following Transact-SQL statement:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q10

You must insert the following data into the Customer table:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q10-2

You need to ensure that both records are inserted or neither record is inserted. Solution: You run the following TransactSQL statement:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q10-3

Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/it-it/sql/t-sql/statements/insert-transact-sql?view=sql-server-2017

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section. You will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a database that tracks orders and deliveries for customers in North America. The database contains the
following tables:
Sales.Customers

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q11

Application.Cities

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q11-2

Sales.CustomerCategories

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q11-3

The company\\’s development team is designing a customer directory application. The application must list customers
by the area code of their phone number. The area code is defined as the first three characters of the phone number.
The main page of the application will be based on an indexed view that contains the area and phone number for all
customers.
You need to return the area code from the PhoneNumber field.
Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q11-4

Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
We need SELECT TOP 1 @areacode =.. to ensure that only one value is returned.

QUESTION 12
You are building a stored procedure that will update data in a table named Table1 by using a complex query as the data
source.
You need to ensure that the SELECT statement in the stored procedure meets the following requirements:
Data being processed must be usable in several statements in the stored procedure.
Data being processed must contain statistics.
What should you do?
A. Update Table1 by using a common table expression (CTE).
B. Insert the data into a temporary table, and then update Table1 from the temporary table.
C. Place the SELECT statement in a derived table, and then update Table1 by using a JOIN to the derived table.
D. Insert the data into a table variable, and then update Table1 from the table variable.
Correct Answer: B
Temp Tables… Are real materialized tables that exist in tempdb Have dedicated stats generated by the engine Can be
indexed Can have constraints Persist for the life of the current CONNECTION Can be referenced by other queries or
subproce Incorrect Answers:
A: CTEs do not have dedicated stats. They rely on stats on the underlying objects
C: Unlike a derived table, a CTE can be self-referencing and can be referenced multiple times in the same query.
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms190766(v=sql.105).aspx
https://dba.stackexchange.com/questions/13112/whats-the-difference-between-a-cte-and-a-temp-table

QUESTION 13
HOTSPOT
You develop and deploy a project management application. The application uses a Microsoft SQL Server database to
store data. You are developing a software bug tracking add-on for the application.
The add-on must meet the following requirements:
Allow case sensitive searches for product.
Filter search results based on exact text in the description.
Support multibyte Unicode characters.

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q13

You run the following Transact-SQL statement:
Users report that searches for the product Salt also return results for the product salt.
You need to ensure that the query returns the correct results.
How should you complete the Transact-SQL statement? To answer, select the appropriate Transact-SQL segments in
the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q13-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q13-3

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Microsoft CCNP Security 300-210 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which statement about the Cisco ASA CX role in inspecting SSL traffic is true?
A. To decrypt traffic, the Cisco ASA CX must accept the websites\\’ certificates as Trusted Root Cas.
B. If the administrator elects to decrypt traffic, the Cisco ASA CX acts as a man-in–me- middle.
C. Either all traffic is decrypted, or no traffic is decrypted by the Cisco ASA CX.
D. The traffic is encrypted, so the Cisco ASA CX cannot determine the content of the traffic.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What type of interface is required to pass VLAN tagged traffic from one network to another on a Firepower 7125?
A. logical switched
B. logical routed
C. physical switched
D. hybrid
E. physical routed
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
With Cisco FirePOWER Threat Defense software, which interface mode do you configure for an IPS deployment, where
traffic passes through the appliance but does not require VLAN rewriting?
A. inline set
B. passive
C. inline tap
D. routed
E. transparent
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Which two conditions must you configure in an event action rule to match all IPv4 addresses in the victim range and
filter on the complete subsignature range? (Choose two.)
A. Disable event action override.
B. Leave the victim address range unspecified.
C. Set the subsignature ID-range to the default.
D. Set the deny action percentage to 100.
E. Set the deny action percentage to 0.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
Which two statements about Cisco Cloud Web Security functionality are true? (Choose two.)
A. It integrates with Cisco Integrated Service Routers.
B. It supports threat avoidance and threat remediation.
C. It extends web security to the desktop, laptop, and PDA.
D. It integrates with Cisco ASA Firewalls.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6pass4itsure 300-210 exam question q6 pass4itsure 300-210 exam question q6-1

To what extent will the Cisco IPS sensor contribute data to the Cisco SensorBase network?
A. It will not contribute to the SensorBase network.
B. It will contribute to the SensorBase network, but will withhold some sensitive information
C. It will contribute the victim IP address and port to the SensorBase network.
D. It will not contribute to Risk Rating adjustments that use information from the SensorBase network.
Correct Answer: B
To configure network participation, follow these steps:
Step 1: Log in to IDM using an account with administrator privileges. Step 2: Choose Configuration > Policies > Global
Correlation > Network Participation. Step 3: To turn on network participation, click the Partial or Full radio button:
?artial–Data is contributed to the SensorBase Network, but data considered potentially sensitive is filtered out and never
sent.
?ull–All data is contributed to the SensorBase Network
In this case, we can see that this has been turned off as shown below:

pass4itsure 300-210 exam question q6-2

QUESTION 7
Which Cisco deployment architectures support Clustering? (Choose 2).
A. Cisco FirePOWER Management Center
B. Cisco ASAv
C. Cisco FirePOWER Appliances (NGIPS)
D. Cisco ASA with FirePOWER Services
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
Which two pieces of information are required to implement transparent user identification using context Directory Agent?
(Choose two.)
A. the shared secret
B. the server name where Context Directory Agent is installed
C. the server name of the global catalog domaint controller
D. the syslog server IP address
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
What are two features of the Cisco ASA NGFW? (Choose two.)
A. It can restrict access based on qualitative analysis.
B. It can restrict access based on reputation.
C. It can reactively protect against Internet threats.
D. It can proactively protect against Internet threats.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which interface type allows packets to be dropped?
A. passive
B. inline
C. TAP
D. either passive or inline, provided that the intrusion policy has the Drop When Inline check box selected.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which option describes device trajectory on Cisco Advanced Malware Protection for Endpoints?
A. It shows the file path on a host.
B. It shows a full packet capture of the file.
C. It shows which devices on the network received the file.
D. It shows what a file did on a host.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which statement about the default configuration of an IPS sensor\\’s management security settings is true?
A. There is no login banner
B. The web server port is TCP 80
C. Telnet and SSH are enable
D. User accounts lock after three attempts
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which Cisco ESA component receives connections from external mail servers?
A. MTA
B. public listener
C. private listener
D. recipient access table
E. SMTP incoming relay agent
Correct Answer: B

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